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0
Q

Which drugs would you use to treat angular chelitis?

A

Fluconozole
Amphotericin
Nystatin

Miconazole

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1
Q

Which type of test would not be useful in diagnosis of angular chelitis?

A

Liver function test

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2
Q

Which drugs commonly cause Steven johsons syndrome?

A

Sulphonamides

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3
Q

What are the causes of burning mouth syndrome?

A 
Vitamin b def
Type 2 diabetes
Xerostomia
Poorly made dentures
Allergy
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4
Q

Which human herpes virus is associated with kaposis sarcoma?

A

HHV8

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5
Q

How many types of kaposis sarcoma are there?

A

3
Classic
Endemic
Epidemic

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6
Q

Where is carbamezapine metabolised?

A

Liver

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7
Q

Which autoantibodies are associated with SLE?

A

Anti smith

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8
Q

What does CREST stand for?

A 
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophogeal dismotility
Scleroderma
Telangiectasia
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9
Q

What disease are bench jones protein measured in?1

A

Multiple myeloma

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10
Q

What is the effect of Vit B12 on the nerves?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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11
Q

T/f Vit b12 def can cause oral ulceration?

A

T

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12
Q

What are the rare complications of chicken pox?

A

Encephalitis and pneumonia

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13
Q

What are the most common benign and maligant tumours of the parotid glands?

A

Benign: pleiomorphic adenoma
Malignant: mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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14
Q

Which nerve runs closely to the submandibular gland?

A

Hypoglossal

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15
Q

T/f vicryl is a Resorbable suture?

A

T

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16
Q

What re the articular surfaces of the TMJ covered by?

A

Fibrocartilage

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17
Q

Where does the Stylomandibular ligament pass with respect to the parotid gland?

A

Medial

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18
Q

What structure does the lingual nerve loop around in the floor of the mouth?

A

Whartons duct (duct from SM gland)

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19
Q

How long should you keep patient notes for?

A

11 years or until a child is 25 which ever is the longer one

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20
Q

Sterilisation times and temps for instruments ?

A

112 for 15 mins

134 for 3 mins

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21
Q

What are masters retractors used for?

A

Retraction of flaps during extrsction of upper 8’s

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22
Q

How many sections can temporalis be divided into?

A

3 posterior middle and anterior

Middle and anterior are for elevation of mandible

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23
Q

What is the nerve supply for the tongue?

A

Anterior 2/3:
Taste: corda tympani (branch of facial)
General sensation: lingual
Movement: hypoglossal

Poster 1/3
Taste: Glosso
Gen sensation: gloss
Movement : hypoglossal

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24
If rigid fixation is used during surgery for facial fracture repair what does this mean?
Rigid prevents micro movement about the fracture line preventing infection and aiding healing
25
Which phase of amalgam is responsible for creep?
Gamma 2
26
Which element reduces the amount of creep?
Copper
27
Etched enamel has what type of surface enters?
High therefore does not need wetting
28
What's the function of a Dentine primer?
Wets the dentine ( increase surface energy)
29
What's the function of a dentine conditioner?
Remove smear layer
30
What size overjet is IOTN 4?
6-9mm
31
What open bite is IOTN 4?
4mm
32
What type of anaesthetic is lidocaine?
Amide
33
What voltage X-ray do we use?
70kv
34
Who sets the dose limits For xrays?
IRR
35
What is the annual dose limit for classified workers?
20mSv
36
What is the annual dose limit for non classified workers?
6mSv
37
What is the annual dose limit for general public?
1 mSv
38
What is the radiation dose for an OPG?
0.01msv
39
What is the dose to the patient for an OPG?
0.034mSv
40
What is the name of the Endodontic file used to explore apical area of the canal?
Seeker
41
Which organ absorbs fluoride?
Stomach
42
Ketoacidosis is more common in which type of diabetics?
Type 1
43
What is the name of the initiator in acrylic resin?
Benzoyl peroxide
44
What is the name of the inhibitor in acrylic resins?
Hydroquinone
45
What are the three main components of dental composites?
Inorganic filler Resin Coupling agents eg gamma MPTS
46
TF Keratocyts can be both unilocular and multilocular ?
T
47
What feature do all giant cell lesions have?
Cross the midline
48
Giant cell lesions are usually seen in which age group?
Young adults
49
Pale films can result from?
Underexposure | Developer too dilute/weAk of being contaminated by the fixer
50
What would happen to he image if the film was out of date?
The image would appear foggy
51
What do the international commission for Radiation Protrction do?
Limitation Screening Optimisation
52
TF an adequately trained nurse can take an X-ray?
T
53
What are the two types of stochiastic effects?
Genetic and somatic (they may occur )
54
What are the deterministic effects?
They will defo occur and are somatic
55
What happens when the film is placed in the fixer solution?
Unsensitised silver halide crystals are removed and exposes the white areas of the film
56
Is the developer alkali or acidic?
Alkali
57
When is the charter tooth brushing good?
Perio surgery and ortho
58
When is the fines technique good?
Poor manual dexterity
59
How far do the bristles in the bass go down the pocket?
3mm
60
Which nerve supplies buccal gingiva of the lower?
Long buccal
61
What does the antibody to HBsAg mean?
AB present if they have been successfully immunised or mounted an immune response.
62
Who are at risk from bacterial endocarditis?
Previous Aortic stenosis Aortic regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation Heart murmur Congenital Cardiac
63
What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis?
1:1000 0.5ml adren IM
64
What is the managemt of diabetics unconscious?
1mg glucagon IM
65
Which drug in addition to adrenaline can be given in anaphylaxis?
10-20mg chlorphenamine
66
When is an AED used?
Ventricular fibrillation
67
Hashimoto disease causes what?
Auto immune destruction of thyroid gland
68
How long does it take to see acute osteomyelitis on an X-ray?
About 10 days
69
Page 93
Syphylitic
70
Dry mouth occurs when salivary flow rate falls below what?
0.1ml/min
71
Which nerve loops around the SM duct?
Lingual
72
What leaches out of soft liners to make them hard?
Aromatic esters
73
What are the signs of lidocaine over dose?
Light headlines and convulsions
74
What antibiotic causes red man syndrome?
Vancomycin

MJDF (4 decks)

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