Boxed stuff Flashcards
(233 cards)
1
Q
What is the “I AM IT” acronym used for and what does it mean?
A
Hypersensitivity reactions
I:Type 1 for Immediate
AM: Type 2 for Antibody mediated
I: Type 3 for Immune complex mediated/Inflammation
T: Type 4 for Tcell mediated
2
Q
Histocompatibility Complex proteins have two classes… What are their jobs?
A
Class 1= surface of most cells in the body, inform Killer Tcells what going on INSIDE other cells
Class 2= made by APC informing Helper Tcells problems existing OUTSIDE of cells
3
Q
What type of immunoglobulin/cells are found with Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions? and where would you see this?
A
IgE, mast cells, basophils and allergic mediators
Anaphylaxis, hay fever, asthma
4
Q
What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 2 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?
A
IgG, IgM
Blood group incompatibility/transfusions, pernicious anemia, myasthenia gravis
5
Q
What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 3 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?
A
IgG
SLE, RA, serum sickness, Rheumatic fever
6
Q
What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 4 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?
A
NO immunoglobulins, Tcell mediated.
It is delayed.
Infections, dermatitis, graft rejections
7
Q
What is the primary dye
A
Crystal violet
8
Q
What is the decolorizer
A
Alcohol rinse
9
Q
What color do Gram + stain
A
Purple
10
Q
What color do Gram - stain
A
Red/pink
11
Q
What cell presents antigen to Tcells?
A
Macrophages
12
Q
What cell inactivates pathogens?
A
Natural killer cells
13
Q
What part of antigen is recognized by immune system?
A
Epitope
14
Q
Sabin used LIVE attenuated virus for his vaccine, Salk treated polio with what to KILL the virus?
A
Formaldehyde
15
Q
What is the shape of:
Bacilii
Cocci
Spirochetes
Spirilla
A
Rod
Spherical
Spiral
Spring
16
Q
Staph, Botulism, and Listeria are (gram + or -)?
A
Gram +
17
Q
E.Coli, Salmonella, Shingella, Cholera, Francisella tularensis, and Mycobacterium bovis are (Gram + or -)?
A
Gram -
18
Q
What are on the Biodefense list -Category A?
A
Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, viral Hemorrhagic fever, Arenaviruses (Lassa fever), Bunya viruses (Hanta), Flaviruses (Dengue), and Filoviruses (Ebola)
19
Q
What is the gram + bacterial cell wall made of?
A
Peptidoglycan
20
Q
What is the gram - bacterial cell wall made of?
A
Peptidoglycan AND Lipopolysaccharides
21
Q
What disease is coined with Lungs that look like swiss cheese?
A
CA-MRSA
22
Q
Found in Sheep, AKA Woolsorter’s Dx, is aerobic… What’s the disease and pathogen?
A
Anthrax
Bacillus anthracis
23
Q
What pathogen causes toxic shock syndrome, impetigo and is transmitted via fomite?
A
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
24
Q
How many days does Tetanus take to set in?
A
8 Days
25
Botulism causes (flaccid or spastic) paralysis in 12-36 hours?
Flaccid (PNS)
26
Tetanus causes (flaccid or spastic) paralysis in 8 days?
Spastic (CNS)
27
What are the 5 Jones criteria for Rheumatic fever? and how many do you need to make a Dx?
5/5
"SPECS"
Sydenham's Chorea
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Carditis
Subcutaneous nodules
28
What is the test for Strep Throat?
Mitis-Salivarius Agar
29
What is the test for Scarlet fever?
DICK test
30
What disease is known for the strawberry tongue?
Scarlet fever
31
What pathogen is AKA Babes Ernst bodies and is tested via the SCHICK test?
Corynebacterium diphtheria
32
Corynebacterium diphtheria is known for what physical feature?
Gray pseudo membrane
33
Do (gram + or gram -) bacteria typically end in US or UM?
What is the exception?
Gram +
Listeria monocytogene
34
Do (gram + or gram -) bacteria typically end in A or IA?
What is the exception?
Gram -
Haemophilus
Camphylobacter jejuni
35
What pathogen is tested on a Thayer-Martin chocolate agar?
Neisseria gonorrhea
36
Where is a likely spot to pick up Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
What is a characteristic of this pathogen?
Hot tubs and burn victims in hospitals.
Blue/Green pus
37
What pathogen has a metallic green sheen?
Escherichia coli
38
What gram - bacteria does NOT present with fever?
Shigella
39
What is the pathogen responsible for the MC cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?
Camphylobacter jejuni
40
Bordetella pertussis is causative of what condition?
Whooping cough
41
2nd MC cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and known for "pea soup diarrhea"?
Salmonella
42
Klebsiella AKA Friedlanders is known for what physical trait?
red currant jelly sputum
43
Rice water stools is common in what disease?
Cholera, from pathogen Vibrio cholera
44
Rickettsia rickettsii is AKA what and what type of vector carries it?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever or Tick Typhus
ixodid tick
45
Match the Rickettsia and name the vector:
prowazekii
typhi
tsutsugamushi
Epidemic typhus (Louse feces)
murine typhus (flea)
Scrub typhus (Chigger)
46
Maculopapular rash is a physical characteristic of?
Rickettsia prowazekii
47
Rochalimaea quintana AKA? and what is the vector?
Trench fever
Louse
48
Coxiella burnetti AKA? and mode of transition?
Q fever
milk-drank or dried up and inhaled or a tick
49
Treponema pallidum is the pathogen to what disease?
Syphilis
50
What are the three phases of syphilis?
Primary= Chancre
Secondary= Rash
Third= Gumma
51
Tabis dorsalis is effecting what, and what leads to this?
Gumma is the third stage of syphilis. This primarily effects the thoracic aorta and posterior column. Infection of post column causes Tabis dorsalis.
52
What is the vector for Borrelia recurrentis?
lice
53
Borrelia burgdorferi is the pathogen to what disease
Lymes
54
Weil's syndrome is associated with what pathogen?
HINT vector is rat urine often found on pop can lids!
Leptospira interrogans
55
What WBC increase with viral infections?
Lymphocytes
56
What is the disease expression of Adenovirus?
Upper and lower Respiratory
conjunctivitis
diarrhea
57
What is the disease expression of Echovirus?
upper respiratory
pharyngitis
skin rash
58
What is the disease expression of Rhinovirus?
upper respiratory
(common cold)
59
What is the disease expression of Coxsackie virus/Picorna? *Most dangerous
"devils grip" -Pleurodynia
herpangina
myocarditis
pancreatitis
hand-foot-mouth
60
What is the disease expression of Respiratory syncytial virus/Paramyxo?
bronchiolitis
pneumonia (in children)
61
what is the viral family of influenza?
orthomyxo
62
Clarify the difference in Variola virus and Vaccinia virus.
Variola= smallpox and have guarnieri bodies
Vaccinia= cow pox, and can also make you immune from small pox
63
What virus is tested with the ELSIA and Western blot test?
HIV 1 and 2
*2 positive ELSIA is confirmed with Western Blot
64
Aedes Aegypti mosquito is the vector for what pathogen?
Yellow fever
65
What disease is spread through rodent dust?
Hanta virus
66
Walter Reed is associated with what disease?
Dengue/hemorrhagic fever
67
Negri bodies are associated with what disease?
Rabies
68
West Nile virus and Rift Valley fever and Arboviral encephalitis are spread through what vector?
mosquito
69
What is mycologist or mycoses?
Fungi or the studies of mushrooms
70
Dermatophytosis is another word for what?
Tinea or ring worm
71
"pricked by a rose thorn" is associated with what infection? And what tissues are affected?
Sporotrichosis / Sporothrix schenckii
Nodules beneath the skin and lymph invation
72
Hisoplasmosis is AKA?
Ohio valley fever
73
North American blastomycosis is AKA
Chicago disease
74
Coccidioidomycosis is AKA
San Joaquin valley fever
75
"Fungus balls" in the lungs is associated with what infection?
Aspergillus fumigatus
76
Necrotic pneumonia is caused from what infection?
Fungus balls! AKA Aspergillus fumigatus
77
Trichuris Trichiura AKA
Whipworm
78
Enterobius vermicularis AKA
Pinworm
79
What disease can be prevented by not walking barefoot in sand?
Necator americanus
80
Schistosoma -- are associated with what vectors through its life cycle?
Snails and humans
Ingestion of fresh water containing larvae
81
Opisthorchis sinesis is transmitted through what vector?
consumption of fish
82
Paragonimus westermani is transmitted through what vector?
consumption of crab
83
What are the vectors for Taenia Saginata and Taenia Solium?
Saginata= consumption of raw or undercooked beef
Solium= consumption of raw or undercooked pork
84
What pathogen is transmitted via canine feces?
Echinococcus granuloses
85
The longest tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium latum, causes what deficiency and is transmitted through consumption of what?
B12
raw or undercooked fish
86
Naegleria fowleri causes what?
primary acute Meningoencephalitis
87
Giardia lamblia is AKA
camper's diarrhea
88
What is the vector for Plasmodium falciparum?
Anopheles mosquito
89
Trypansoma brucei (rhodesiense or gambiens) is transmitted through what vector?
TseTse fly
90
Trypansoma cruzi is AKA and what is the vector
Chagas
Kissing bug
91
Sand flys are vectors for what pathogens?
Leishmania donovani and Leishmania tropica
92
What is the vector for Taxoplasma gondii?
Cat feces
93
What agency protects air water and land
Enviornmental protection agency
94
What protects us from hazordous waste?
Public health assessment
95
What are the re emerging disease?
TB
smallpox
malaria
96
Where does a Berry aneurysm occur?
Anterior communicating of the Circle of Willis
97
What is PDA/Patent Ductus Arteriosus?
Congenital failure of closure between pulmonary artery and aorta.
98
DRIP is and acronym for the Tetralogy of Fallot. What does it stand for?
Dextrorotation of the aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Intraventricular septal defect
Pulmonary artery stenosis
99
What valves are affected in Rheumatic fever?
Mitral and aortic
100
Deficiency in iron causes what type of anemia?
Microcytic Hypochromic
101
Deficiency of B12 or B9 causes what type of anima?
Macrocytic normochromic
102
What type of angina occurs at rest?
Prinzmetal
103
Skip lesions are associated with what disease?
Chron's
104
GERD is often also referred to as?
Barrett's esophagus
105
Most common place for peptic ulcers?
Duodenal
106
Steatorrhea or malabsorption of fat is often due to what disease?
Celiac/nontropical sprue/gluten enteropathy/celiac sprue
107
Pancoast tumors can cause?
Horner's
Ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis
And affects the brachial plexus
108
Occupational matching:
Silicosis
Asbestosis
Siderosis
Byssinosis
Bagassosis
Stannosis
Silicon/sandblasters
Asbestos
Iron dust
Cotton dust
Sugar cane dust
Tin dust
109
Where are casts found?
DCT into urine
110
RBC casts are found in what disorder?
Glomerulo nephritis
111
WBC casts are found in what disorder?
Pyelonephritis
112
HEP is an acronym for genitourinary disorders. What does it mean?
Hypertension
Edema
Proteinuria
113
What hormones are secreted by the POST pituitary?
Oxytocin and ADH
114
What hormones does the ANT pituitary secret?
GH
TSH
ACTH
FSH
LH
prolactin
MSH
115
Pain in lower extremities, increased in smokers and young males are signs of what blood/lymph disorder?
Thromboangiitis obliterans AKA Buerger's
116
Hodgkin's affects what cells?
Reed-Sternberg giant cells
117
Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with what chromosome?
Chromosome 8
118
What is the difference between:
Hyperplasia
Metaplasia
Dysplasia
Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Aplasia
Agenesis
Increased number
One cell type to another
Size, shape, function changes
Disorganized/Cancer
Defective development
Lack of development
Absence of growth
119
Types of degeneration:
Caseous
Enzymatic
Fatty
Gummatous
Wallerian
TB-single lesion=Ghon Complex
Pancreas head
Liver
Tertiary syphilis
Peripheral nerves
120
What immunoglobulin is found in milk and membranes?
IgA
"Grade A milk"
121
What immunoglobulin is the smallest and most numerous?
IgG
122
What immunoglobulin is involved in allergies and parasites?
IgE
123
What immunoglobulin is the first responder and the largest?
IgM
124
Never Let My Engine Blow 60 30 8 3 0
is a riddle for what?
WBC and the % they should be in the blood
125
MPH is an acronym for attributes of Ivory White Vertebra. What does it stand for?
Metastasis
Pagets/Osteitis Deformans
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
126
T or F Anemia is present in ALL leukemias
True
127
What type of leukemia is most common in young adults?
AML Acute myeloblastic leukemia
128
Acute leukemia is in __
While Chronic is in __
Acute=Young
Chronic=Older
129
What are the age ranges associated with the following leukemias:
ALL
AML
CML
CLL
3-4
15-20
All ages
Elderly
130
What does the term anasarca mean?
whole body swelling
131
What are ascites?
Free fluid in peritoneal cavity
132
What is transudate mostly made of?
Albumin
133
What makes interleukin?
Helper CD4+
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Macrophages
Endothelial cells
134
What is is the word associated with Right sided heart failure?
Cor pulmonale
135
What are the two epiphyseal bone cancers? and what age group is associated with it?
Giant cell - Old
Chondroblastoma - young
136
What are the two diaphyseal bone cancers and the ages associated with them and is there periosteal reactions?
Ewing's - young - Yes
Multiple Myeloma- old -No
137
What cancer causes onion or laminated skin?
Ewings
138
What cancer causes sunburst, radiating or spiculated periosteal reactions?
Sarcoma
139
What causes parallel or solid periosteal reactions?
infections or fracture
140
Multiple myeloma AKA
Plasma cell cytoma
141
Grawitz's is AKA
Renal adenocarcinoma
142
What cancer has a reversed A/G ratio?
Multiple myeloma
143
What is Caplan's?
RA + pneumonia
144
Lover's heel, calcaneal spur, "Can't see, can't pee, can't dance with me" is for what disease?
Reiter's / ReA
145
What blood marker would you find with someone with AS/Marie Strumpell
HLA-B27
146
AKA for DISH
Forestier's
147
Lewy bodies are found with what disease?
Parkinson's/ Paralysis agitans
148
B12 deficiency and glove and stocking paresthesias is associated with what disease?
PLS -PosteroLateral sclerosis
AKA Combined systems disease
149
Common in females, Charcot's triad, slurred speech, intension tremor and nystagmus is associated with what disease?
Multiple sclerosis
150
CREST sign is and acronym for Scleroderma, what does it stand for?
Calcinosis
Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
151
Genetic disorders:
Down's
Turner or Bonnevie-Ullrich
Klinefelter's syndrome
DiGeorge Anomally
Trisomy 21
XO - 45X - female
XXY - 47 - male
Thymic hypoplasia, Tcell immunodeficiency
152
Benign cancer associated with skeletal muscle.
Rhabdomyoma
153
Basement membrane cancer.
Goodpasture's
154
Pott's disease is...
TB
155
Barrel chest is seen in?
Emphysema
156
Lipofuscin are...
dark spots
157
Charcot joint AKA
Neurogenic joint
158
Calcium Pyrophosphate Disease (CPPD) AKA
pseudogout
159
Ankylo AKA
Marie Strumpell's Disease
160
-OH group points up =
-OH group points down=
beta
alpha
161
What is the "feul factor" for carbs
4kcal/g
162
Increasing positive charges or loss of negative charges is what?
Oxidation
163
Addition of hydrogen, gain of electrons is?
Reduction
164
What are the "Big 4"
Glycolysis
Pyruvate oxidation
Citric acid cycle
oxidative phosphorylation
165
What are the structures of CHO's?
Starch (complex) and sugar (simple)
166
Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose are...?
(mono, di, oligo or poly saccharides)
And what are their bonds?
Disaccharides
Maltose= alpha 1-4
Lactose= beta 1-4 (beta b for bad because it doesn't digest)
Sucrose= alpha-beta 1-2
167
How many kcal/g of fat do we get?
9
168
What type of bond is between glycerol and fatty acids in lipids?
Ester bonds
169
of Carbons/Double bonds
(ALLE)
Arachidonic 20:4
LinoleNic 18:3
LinolEIC 18:2
EPA (Eicosapentaenoic acid) 20:5
170
What are the precursor molecules (think MASH)
Mevalonate
Acetyl CoA
Squalene
HMG CoA
171
What lipoprotein is sourced from the intestinal mucosa and has the highest % of triglycerides
Chylomicron
172
What lipoprotein has the highest % of cholesterol?
LDL
173
What lipoprotien has the lowest % of protein?
VLDL
174
What does beta oxidation require?
Carnitine
175
What enzyme transfers a phosphate?
Kinase
176
Where does the krebs cycel occur?
Mitochondria
177
Where does the ETC occur?
Inner mitochondria
178
What is a ketogenic amino acid?
Leucine
179
List the essential amino acids?
(Pvt TIM HALL)
Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Isoleucine
Methonine
Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine
180
What is the amnio acid precursor to Serotonin?
Tryptophan
181
What is the amino acid precursor to GABA?
Glutamate
182
What is the amino acid precursor to Creatine?
Clycine/Arginine
183
What is the amino acid precursor to NAD?
Tryptophan
184
What are the 2 sulfur containing amino acids?
Methionine and cysteine
185
Explain the process of exercise and the Cori cycle.
Exercise causes the body to produce Ammonia (From amino acids) and Lactate (from glucose). These together will form Alanine. Alanine is transported to the liver where it is broken back to lactate and ammonia. Lactate will make more glucose to go to the supporting muscles and the ammonia will exit through the urea cycle.
186
How many kcal/g do we get from proteins?
4
187
What are the fat soluble vitamins?
ADEK
188
Deficiency in what vitamin causes Wernicke's Korskoff?
B1/Thamine
189
What B vitamin is riboflavin?
B2
190
Pellagra (4Ds) is caused from deficiency in what vitamin?
B3 Niacin
191
What vitamin is Pantothenic acid?
B5
192
What B vitamin is cyanocobalamin?
B12
193
Macrocytic anemia is caused by deficiency of what vitamin?
B12/Cyanocobalamin
194
Vitamin C is also named?
Ascorbic acid
195
What is the white part of fruit high in?
Bioflavonoids
196
What is the % of calcium you sould have in blood?
9-11mg%
197
Hypochromic anemia is a deficiency of what micromineral?
Iron
198
Iron is transported as __ and stored as __
Transferrin
Ferritin
199
Macrocytic/Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of what micromineral?
Cobalt
200
Menke's syndrome is a deficiency of what micromineral?
Copper
201
What micromineral transports glucose?
Chromium
202
Selenium is synergistic with what vitamin?
E
203
How many NADH and FAD are formed in the Krebs cycle?
3:1
204
What is needed to start the krebs cycle?
Acetyl coenzyme
205
Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA requires what?
(These Five Coenzymes Love Nutrition)
Thiamine pyrophosphate from B1
FAD from B2
CoA from B5
Lipoic acid
NAD from B3
206
In summary how many ATP in:
Krebs
Glycerol-3-phosphate shunt
Glycolysis
TOTAL
30
4
2
Total = 36
207
What are the products of glycolysis?
2 ATP
2 Pyruvate
2 NADH
208
Where does glycolysis take place?
Cytosol
209
What is the charge of AA or proteins?
0
210
What are wheat and rice missing?
Lysine
211
Legumes are missing what?
Methionine
212
Corn is missing?
Lysine and Tryptophan
213
What is an enantiomer?
Mirror image
214
Stereoisomers are?
Atoms bonded in the same order but differ in precise orientation
215
Epimers are?
Sugar differing in configuration at a single asymmetric center
216
What do bile salts end in?
Cholic acid or Cholate
217
Rate limiting enzyme for Kreb's cycle?
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
218
Rate limiting enzyme for HMP shunt?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
219
Rate limiting enzyme for FA synthesis?
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
220
Rate limiting enzyme for Beta oxidation?
Carnitine acyltransferase 1
221
Rate limiting enzyme for Urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1
222
What is a holoenzyme?
Enzyme + Cofactor
223
What regulates rate of enzyme synthesis at the DNA level?
Steroids
224
What is the Allosteric site?
area on the enzyme where a compound may bind and change the rate of activity
225
Substrates ___ a reaction,
Products __ a reaction.
Stimulate
inhibit.
226
Michaelis-Menten constant Km is what?
Concentration of substrate at which an enzyme yields half Vmax
227
What enzyme transfers a phosphate?
Kinase
228
What enzyme moves hydrogen
Oxidoreductase
229
NAD ___ molecules
NADH ___ molecules
breaks
builds
230
When an amino acid derivative has the suffix -ine what is it associated with?
Epinephrine
231
Peptides with suffix -in are associated with?
Insulin
232
Steroid with suffix -one are associated with
Testosterone
233
