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1
Q

2.Which of the following conditions can be associated with vitamin D deficiency, except for?
a.Osteomalacia
b.Rickets
c.Osteoporosis
d.Secondary hyperparathyroidism
e.Psoriasis

A

e.Psoriasis

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1
Q

1.In Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) of the hip, true hip pain typically produces discomfort in which area?
a.Lateral aspect of the thigh
b.Groin
c.On the acetabular area
d.Medial aspect of the thigh
e.Posterior aspect of the thigh

A

b.Groin

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2
Q
  1. A patient who has a history of meniscal problems is most likely to worry about which of the following issues in old age?
    a.Knee instability
    b.Developing osteoarthritis
    c.Chronic pain in the knee
    d.Reduces range of motion
    Increased risk of knee surgeries
A

b.Developing osteoarthritis

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3
Q

4.On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in which of the following?
a.Deltoid strain
b.Bursitis
c.Tendonitis
d.Osteoarthritis

A

d.Osteoarthritis

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4
Q
  1. An 85-year-old woman presents with arthritis in her right hip and left knee, complaining of pain, stiffness, and crepitus. She also has a history of gastric ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a.Osteoarthritis
    b.Rheumatoid arthritis
    c.Bursitis
    d.Psoriatic arthritis
    e.Gout
A

a.Osteoarthritis

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5
Q

6.Which of the following medications is used for the treatment of acute gout?
a. Colchicine
b. Allopurinol
c. NSAIDs
d. DMARDs

A

c. NSAIDs

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6
Q

7.A 60-year-old patient presents with severe pain in the proximal muscle groups, along with elevated creatine kinase levels. The patient also demonstrates rash over the eyelids and malaise. This is most suggestive of:
a.Dermatomyositis
b.Polymyositis
c.Myasthenia gravis
d.Fibromyalgia

A

a.Dermatomyositis

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7
Q

8.Pain in the lower extremity when walking and during leg elevation may indicate:
a.Arterial insufficiency
b.Venous insufficiency
c.Peripheral neuropathy
d.Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
e.Lumbar radiculopathy

A

a.Arterial insufficiency

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8
Q

9.Which of the following inhibits gastrin release, except for which one?
a.Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
b.Prostaglandin
c.Somatostatin
d.Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)
e.Acidic pH (Low pH)

A

d.Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)

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9
Q

10.Which of the following medications is commonly used for muscle spasms, except for?
a.Gabapentine
b.Baclofen
c.Cyclobenzaprine
d.Methocarbamol
e. Tizanidine

A

a.Gabapentine

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10
Q

11.Which of the following is a known cause of varicose veins except for?
a.Low sodium diet
b.Obesity
c.Smoking
d.Prolonged standing or sitting
e.Pregnancy

A

a.Low sodium diet

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11
Q

12.An 85-year-old woman presents with arthritis in her right hip and left knee, complaining of pain, stiffness, and crepitus. She also has a history of gastric ulcers. What is the single most appropriate NSAID of choice for this patient?
a.Aspirin
b.Ibuprofen
c.Celecoxib
d.Naproxen
e.Diclofenac

A

c.Celecoxib

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12
Q

13.What physiological process stops during swallowing?
a.Breathing
b.Heart rate
c.Peristalsis
d.Salivation
e. Gastric secretion

A

a.Breathing

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13
Q

14.Which of the following is not included in Herzberg’s “hygiene factors”?
a. Salary increase
b. Achievement
c. Company policies
d. Job security
e. Interpersonal relationship

A

b. Achievement

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14
Q

15.Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with a prolonged QT interval, depressed ST segment, and flat T-wave?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypercalcemia
e. Hyperkalemia

A

b. Hypokalemia

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15
Q

16.Which of the following statements includes the organization’s goals and outlines what is expected of each member?
a.Strategic plan
b.Mission statement
c.Vision statement
d.Code of conduct
e.Organizational values

A

a.Strategic plan

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16
Q

17.Where does the bulk absorption of water primarily occur in the digestive system?
a.Small intestine
b.Large intestine
c.Stomach
d.Kidney
e. Duodenum

A

a.Small intestine

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17
Q

18.The gastroileal reflex is triggered when food enters which part of the digestive tract?
a.Stomach
b.Ileum
c.Duodenum
d.Jejunum
e. Cecum

A

a.Stomach

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18
Q

19.What is the most common cause of metastasis to the vertebral spine?
a.Lung cancer
b.Kidney cancer
c.Pancreatic cancer
d.Prostate cancer
e.Breast cancer

A

d.Prostate cancer

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19
Q

20.Which of the following terms refers to non-specific displacement of the spine?
a.Spondylolisthesis
b.Retrolisthesis
c.Olisthesis
d.Lateralisthesis
e.Anterolisthesis

A

c.Olisthesis

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20
Q

21.When measuring cervical rotation using a goniometer, what are the correct anatomic landmarks to follow to ensure accurate measurement?
a.Place the goniometer at the nasion with the stationary arm alignment with the shoulder
b.Position the goniometer at the center of the head with the stationary arm aligned with the trunk
c.Align the goniometer with the ear and the stationary arm along the nose
d.Position the goniometer at the occipital protuberance with the stationary arm aligned with the mandible
e.Place the goniometer over the external auditory meatus with the stationary arm aligned with the acromion process

A

b.Position the goniometer at the center of the head with the stationary arm aligned with the trunk

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21
Q

22.What is the initial instruction for a wheelchair-to-mat transfer?
a.Push-up for clearance
b.Position the mat beside the wheelchair
c.Bend forward and reach for the mat
d.Lock the wheelchair
e.Remove the footrests from the wheelchair

A

d.Lock the wheelchair

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22
Q

23.The success of ankle joint arthroplasties is dependent on the health of what ankle joint?
a.Talonavicular
b.Talofibular
c.Subtalar
d.Talotibial

A

c.Subtalar

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23
Q

24.A 65-year-old woman who has recently undergone a right total hip arthroplasty (R THA) has suffered a fall resulting in a fractured left tibia. She cannot bear weight on either lower extremity and has fair manual muscle testing (MMT) grades in both upper extremities. What is the most appropriate method for transferring her from a wheelchair to the floor?
a.Sliding board transfer
b.Dependent standing pivot transfer
c.Two-person lift
d.Lateral transfer with assistance
e.Floor to wheelchair transfer with hydraulic lift

A

c.Two-person lift

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24
25.An 85-year-old woman presents with arthritis in her right hip and left knee, complaining of pain, stiffness, and crepitus. She also has a history of gastric ulcers. What is the single most appropriate assistive device to recommend for her mobility? a.Walker b.Crutches c.Cane d.Wheelchair e.Rollator
c.Cane
25
26.What percentage of spinal load is experienced when bending forward? a. 250% b. 150% c. 100% d. 200% e. 300%
b. 150%
26
27.A high school student was being evaluated for scoliosis. A right thoracolumbar curve was present when standing, but it disappeared when seated. This is most likely due to: a.Leg length discrepancy (LLD) b. Unilateral weakness of the gluteus medius c. Short iliopsoas d. Lumbar facet dysfunction e. Postural asymmetry
a.Leg length discrepancy (LLD)
27
28.Which of the following would not typically cause a pressure ulcer when sitting in a wheelchair? a. Elbow b. Heel c. Scapula d. Ischium e. Sacrum
a. Elbow
28
29.What level of amputation would have the most difficulty ascending and descending stairs? a. Transfemoral b. Transtibial c. Syme's d. Transmetatarsal e. Knee disarticulation
a. Transfemoral
29
30.Which of the following is NOT a primary consideration when prescribing a wheelchair? a.Weight b.Height c.Cushion d.Width e.Leg length
c.Cushion
30
31.Airway resistance may be decreased by: a.Increasing airway diameter and length b.Increasing airway diameter c.Decreasing flow rate d.Decreasing airway length e.Increasing airflow speed
b.Increasing airway diameter
31
32.What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with chronic low back pain who is unable to perform core stabilization exercises due to pain? a.McKenzie exercises b.Manual therapy and patient education c.Spinal fusion surgery d.Traction therapy
b.Manual therapy and patient education
32
33.What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with lumbar spine stenosis presenting with radiating leg pain? a.Extension exercises b.Flexion exercises c.Core strengthening d.Lateral trunk flexion
b.Flexion exercises
33
34.Where is the ulnar pulse typically palpated, and what anatomical landmarks can help in locating it? a.At the wrist on the lateral side, near the styloid process of the radius b.At the wrist on the medial side, between the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon and the ulnar bone c.In the antecubital fossa, medial to the biceps tendon d.At the base of the neck, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle e.In the popliteal fossa, behind the knee joint
b.At the wrist on the medial side, between the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon and the ulnar bone
34
35.Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the scapular rhythm? a.Upper trapezius b.Serratus anterior c.Rhomboids d.Supraspinatus e.Latissimus dorsi
d.Supraspinatus
35
36.Which of the following muscles will you NOT typically test in the supine position? a.Shoulder extensors b.Middle trapezius c.Hip flexors d.Rectus abdominis e.Serratus anterior
b.Middle trapezius
36
37.Which muscle can assist neck flexion if the platysma is weak? a.Sternocleidomastoid b.Scalene c.Trapezius d.Longus colli e.Levator scapulae
a.Sternocleidomastoid
37
38.Muscle strength is primarily based on which of the following factors? a.Number of contracting muscle fibers b.Cross-sectional area of a muscle c.Type of muscle fibers (e.g., type I vs. type II) d.Length of the muscle e.Muscle fiber arrangement
b.Cross-sectional area of a muscle
38
39.Thermal and cold receptors are both sensitive to heat. This is because of the principle of: a.Projection b.Adaptation c.Adequate stimuli d.Specific nerve energies e.Referred pain
c.Adequate stimuli
39
40.What is the typical time required to take a basic evaluation and treatment plan in a physical therapy setting? a.9 minutes b.15 minutes c.13 minutes d.11 minutes e.30 minutes
e.30 minutes
40
41.Which p-value would typically indicate a statistically significant conclusion in a research study? a.O.5 b.0.1 c.1.0 d.0.005 e.0.01
d.0.005
41
42.A patient is post-surgery for a rotator cuff repair. The therapist should avoid which of the following motions during the early stages of rehabilitation? a.Shoulder flexion b.Shoulder abduction c.Shoulder external rotation d.Shoulder internal rotation e.None of these
c.Shoulder external rotation
42
43.Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of a stress fracture of the foot? a.Swelling b.Pain on toes c.Severe bruising d.Localized tenderness e.Pain that worsens with activity
c.Severe bruising
43
44.Which type of splint uses a rubber band to allow motion after flexor tendon repair? a.Static progressive splint b.Dynamic splint c.Dynamic progressive splint d.Static splint e.Static dynamic splint
b.Dynamic splint
44
45.A 23-year-old postpartum patient is complaining of irritating pain over the mid-pubic area, especially when stepping down from a stair or curb. What is a likely cause of this pain? a. Urinary tract infection b. None of the answers c. Vaginal tear d. Symphysis pubis dysfunction
d. Symphysis pubis dysfunction
45
46.Which of the following is not considered a deformity? a.When feet together and knees apart b. When knees together and feet apart c. Curve of knee is slightly backwards d. Legs and feet are always straight e. Knock knees
d. Legs and feet are always straight
46
47.What is the mechanism of injury (MOI) for a medial meniscus injury? a. Internal rotation (IR) of femur, internal rotation (IR) of tibia b. Internal rotation (IR) of femur, external rotation (ER) of tibia c. External rotation (ER) of femur, internal rotation (IR) of tibia d. External rotation (ER) of femur, external rotation (ER) of tibia e. Flexion and rotation of the knee
e. Flexion and rotation of the knee
47
48.Which of the following developmental milestones is typical for an 18-month-old child? a.Parallel play b.Follow two-step commands c.Pincer grasp d.Walk independently e.Use a spoon with little help
d.Walk independently
48
49.Refers to one or more metatarsals that are abnormally short. a.Dudley’ s b.Morton’s c.Kohler’s d.Pfister’s e.Brachymetatarsia
e.Brachymetatarsia
49
50.Which type of muscle fiber is predominant in sustained, gross actions/movements? a.IA and IB b.IA c.IB d.I e.IIB
d.I
50
51.Which of the following is NOT a function of the soleus muscle? a.It is concerned with the stability of the ankle b.It is not related to forced plantarflexion c.It is a postural muscle d.It is concerned with the stability of the ankle more than the gastrocnemius e.It is involved in high-intensity running
e.It is involved in high-intensity running
51
52.When does the first fetal movement typically occur? a.12 weeks b.16 weeks c.20 weeks d.24 weeks e.18 weeks
c.20 weeks
52
53.Bulimia nervosa is characterized as: a.Binge eating disorder b.Lack of appetite c.Eating small amounts of food d.Recurrent episodes of purging after binge eating e.Food avoidance due to fear of weight gain
d.Recurrent episodes of purging after binge eating
53
54.Which term describes a feeling of unfamiliarity with a situation or person that is actually familiar? a.Déjà vu b.Jamais vu c.Presque vu d.Cognizance e.Familiarity paradox
b.Jamais vu
54
55.Lewy bodies are associated in which of the following conditions? a.Parkinson’s disease b.Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c.Alzheimer’s disease d.Multiple sclerosis e.Dementia
a.Parkinson’s disease
55
56.Which artery is occluded in locked-in syndrome? a.Middle cerebral artery b.Anterior cerebral artery c.Vertebrobasilar artery d.Posterior cerebral artery e.Internal carotid artery
c.Vertebrobasilar artery
56
57.Which of the following is considered the best exercise for individuals with Huntington’s disease? a.Tai Chi b.High-intensity interval training (HIIT) c.Yoga d.Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling e.Resistance training
d.Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling
57
58.Which of the following conditions could most likely to lead to involuntary movements? a.Quadriplegia b.Hemiplegia c.Dystonia d.Dyskinesia e.TBI
d.Dyskinesia
58
59.Which of the following should be the first focus of management for traumatic brain injury (TBI)? a.Cognitive function b. Memory c. Social interaction d. Functional skills e. Behavioral management
d. Functional skills
59
60.You are treating a patient for low back pain. You have established a good relationship and even joked around with him. However, a few weeks later, the patient has shown only slight improvement and suddenly starts yelling at you unprovoked. What behavior is he exhibiting? a.Projection b.Displacement c.Compensation d.Substitution Regression
b.Displacement
60
61.What is the most common type of personality disorder seen in physical therapy? a.Panic disorder b.Social anxiety disorder c.Generalized anxiety disorder d.Borderline personality disorder e.Narcissistic personality disorder
d.Borderline personality disorder
61
62.What does the term “psychoneurosis” refer to in a patient? a.The patient has anxiety b.The patient has depression c.The patient experiences emotional or psychological distress without a clear physical cause d.The patient has hallucinations e.The patient has delusions
c.The patient experiences emotional or psychological distress without a clear physical cause
62
63.Which of the following is the most common type of anxiety seen in physical therapy rehab settings? a.Social anxiety b.Generalized anxiety disorder c.Obsessive-compulsive disorder d.Panic disorder e.Post-traumatic stress disorder
b.Generalized anxiety disorder
63
64.Which of the following is NOT a factor of festinating gait that can be seen in Parkinson's disease? a.Increased short steps b.Increased cadence c.Increased arm sway d.Decreased stride length e.Decreased trunk rotation
c.Increased arm sway
64
65.Which of the following exercises would be MOST effective for improving postural control in a patient with Parkinson’s disease? a.Upper body stretching b.Standing on one leg with eyes closed c.Rhythmic rocking or walking d.Running on a treadmill
c.Rhythmic rocking or walking
65
66.Which of the following would be the best way to assess postural control in a patient with Parkinson’s disease? a.Berg balance scale b.Timed up and go test c.Functional reach test d.Romberg test
a.Berg balance scale
66
67.The mitochondria synthesize which of the following neurotransmitter at the end-plate of the motor neuron? a.Acetylcholine b.Serotonin c.Calcium d.Glutamate e.Norepinephrine
a.Acetylcholine
67
68.Which of the following types of cancer primarily occurs in the intracellular space? a.Leukemia b.Lymphoma c.Sarcoma d.Carcinoma e.neuroblastoma
a.Leukemia
68
69.Which of the following is the most common characteristic symptom of osteomyelitis? a.Muscle weakness b.Bone pain c.Neuropathy d.Swelling e.Fever
b.Bone pain
69
70.Which of the following modalities is characterized by a strength of raw current of 4000 Hz? a.Interferential current (IFC) b.Russian stimulus c.Electrical stimulus d.TENS e.Biphasic pulse current
a.Interferential current (IFC)
70
71.What is the galvanic-tetanus ratio of normal muscle? a. 10-12 to 1 b. 1 to 1 c. Applicable only to denervated muscle d. None of these
a. 10-12 to 1
71
72.Which of the following is NOT part of the Treppe phenomenon? a.Staircase phenomenon b.Bowditch effect c.Muscle fatigue d.Increased contractile force with repeated stimuli e.Positive inotropic effect
c.Muscle fatigue
72
73.Which of the following inhibits the synthesis of angiotensin II in the bloodstream and various tissues, decreasing angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction and vascular structural changes? a.Alpha adrenergic blockers b.Diuretics c.Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors d.Beta blockers e.Calcium channel blockers
c.Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
73
74.Bending of the stereocilia towards the kinocilium of the hair cells results in: a.Release of less excitatory transmitters b.Release of more excitatory transmitters c.Transmission of sound d.Muffling of sound e.Inhibition of cochlear nerve
b.Release of more excitatory transmitters
74
75.A patient with lateral epicondylitis is undergoing iontophoresis. What type of current will be used? a.Circumferential b.Pulsed c.Alternating d.Direct e.Continuous
d.Direct
75
76.Which of the following bacteria are most commonly associated with meningitis? a.Streptococcus aureus b.Streptococcus pneumoniae c.Neisseria gonorrhea d.Haemophilus influenzae e.Listeria monocytogenes
b.Streptococcus pneumoniae
76
77.First line of defense against bacterial infection a.Phagocytes b.Macrophages c.Neutrophils d.Basophils e.Skin and mucous membranes
b.Macrophages
77
78.Which of the following is the only movable bone in the skull? a.Zygomatic b.Mandible c.Ethmoid d.Vomer e.Maxilla
b.Mandible
78
79.What substances are released in the body following acupuncture? I.Opiates II.Endorphins III.Serotonin IV.Norepinephrine V.Cortisol a.All of the above b.I, II, III c.I, II, III, IV d.Only I e.Only V
c.I, II, III, IV
79
80.What is the smallest organism considered to cause illness? a.Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa e. Prion
a.Virus
80
81.A wheelbarrow is represented by what type of lever? a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th
b. 2nd
81
82.What is the most common complication in a patient with diabetes mellitus (DM)? a. Diabetic neuropathy b. Diabetic retinopathy c. Diabetic nephropathy d. Cardiovascular disease e. Diabetic foot ulcers
d. Cardiovascular disease
82
83.The lymphatic system best absorbs which of the following? a. Proteins b. Amino acids c. Triglycerides d. Fat-soluble vitamins (e.g., vitamins A, D, E, K) e. Carbohydrates
c. Triglycerides
83
84.Which of the following is the first physiologic reaction to burns? a.Hypovolemia b.Hypervolemia c.Hypotension d.Tachycardia e.Systemic inflammatory response
a.Hypovolemia
84
85.Where are norepinephrine receptors located in the body? a.Cytoplasm b.Plasma membrane c.Cytosol d.Nucleus e.Mitochondria
b.Plasma membrane
85
86.A patient who is status post CVA with right hemiparesis attends physical therapy on an outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, the PT applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The therapist notes mass flexion on the right lower extremity as the resistance is applied. How should the therapist document this? a.Soque’s phenomenon b.Raimiste’s phenomenon c.Homolateral synkinesis d.Associated reactions e.Contralateral synkinesis
c.Homolateral synkinesis
86
87.Dandy-Walker syndrome is associated with: a.Cerebellar problem b.Spinal cord injury c.Frontal lobe dysfunction d.Basal ganglia dysfunction e.Parietal lobe dysfunction
a.Cerebellar problem
87
88.A 40-year-old patient presents with increased lumbar lordosis and a forward head posture. Which muscle is most likely shortened? a.Upper trapezius b.Erector spinae c.Hip flexors d.Rectus abdominis
c.Hip flexors
88
89.The ASIA scale, developed by the American Spinal Injury Association, is primarily used for assessing which of the following? a.Sensory function only b.Motor function only c.Both sensory and motor function d.Cognitive function e.Reflex activity
c.Both sensory and motor function
89
90.Your patient has experienced a traumatic brain injury (TBI) and has lost his appetite. This loss of appetite may be caused by dysfunction in which cranial nerve? a.CN 1 b.CN 2 c.CN 3 d.CN 4 e.CN 6
a.CN 1
90
91.Which of the following statements is true regarding an acquired hip dislocation? a.Anterior dislocation is also called dashboard injury of the hip b.Posterior dislocation is most common c.Anterior dislocation is most common d.Posterior dislocation is caused by flexion, adduction, and external rotation e.Anterior dislocation is often associated with trauma from sports activities
b.Posterior dislocation is most common
91
92.Which type of receptor demonstrates after discharge? a.Vision b.Phasic c.Golgi tendon organ d.Olfactory e.Tonic
e.Tonic
92
93.A female patient with complete paraplegia at the T10 level will most likely present with which of the following symptoms? a.Have normal orgasm b.Experience labor pain c.No psychogenic lubrication during sex d.Not able to bear children e.Have decreased libido
c.No psychogenic lubrication during sex
93
94.Which of the following is the most abundant nerve root contributing to the lower extremity as it descends? a.Iliofemoral b. Obturator c. Femoral d. Sciatic e. Tibial
d. Sciatic
94
95.The substantia gelatinosa is located in which part of the spinal cord? a.Anterior horn b.Posterior horn c.Lateral column d.Dorsal root ganglion e.White matter
b.Posterior horn
95
96.The mental status examination (MSE) primarily assesses which type of brain function? a.Executive function b.Cognitive function c.Emotional function d.Cerebral function e.Cerebellar function
b.Cognitive function
96
97.This tiny ophthalmic artery, which accompanies the optic nerve and supplies parts of the cerebral hemisphere, is a branch of which artery? a.Occipital artery b.Optic artery c.Internal carotid artery d.Middle cerebral artery e.Anterior cerebral artery
c.Internal carotid artery
97
98.A 40-year-old patient presents with difficulty rising from a chair, ascending stairs, and squatting. Upon examination, the therapist notes weakness in hip extensors and knee extensors. Which muscle group is most likely affected? a.Gluteus maximus and quadriceps b.Hamstrings and gastrocnemius c.Adductors and flexors d.Iliopsoas and hamstrings
a.Gluteus maximus and quadriceps
98
99.What structure separates the cerebral cortex and the cerebellum? a.Falx cerebri b.Tentorium cerebelli c.Dura mater d.Pia mater e.Arachnoid mater
b.Tentorium cerebelli
99
100.Which of the following is the primary mechanism underlying fasciculations in patients with motor neuron disease (e.g., ALS)? a.Increased sensitivity of the muscle spindle b.Increased release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction c.Loss of motor neuron inhibition and spontaneous firing of motor units d.Compression of peripheral nerves
c.Loss of motor neuron inhibition and spontaneous firing of motor units

MISC (6 decks)

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