Brand Name Drugs and New Drugs

Question 1

Vyvanse

Answer 1

Lisdexamfetamine (Rx ADHD and binge eating)

Question 2

Symbicort

Answer 2

Budesonide/Formoterol

Question 3

Diovan

Answer 3

Valsartan

Question 4

Levaquin

Answer 4

Levofloxacin

Question 5

Prilosec

Answer 5

Omeprazole

Question 6

Synthroid

Answer 6

Levothyroxine

Question 7

Benicar

Answer 7

Olmesartan

Question 8

Abilify

Answer 8

Aripiprazole

Question 9

Mobic

Answer 9

Meloxicam (NSAID)

Question 10

Namenda

Answer 10

Memantine

Question 11

NovoLog

Answer 11

Insulin Aspart

Question 12

Yaz

Answer 12

Ethinyl estradiol/Drospirenone (contraceptive)

Question 13

Actos

Answer 13

Pioglitazone

Question 14

Vytorin

Answer 14

Ezetimibe/Simvastatin

Question 15

Aricept

Answer 15

Donepezil

Question 16

Celebrex

Answer 16

Celecoxib

Question 17

Xalatan

Answer 17

Latanoprost (control glaucoma)

Question 18

OxyContin

Answer 18

Oxycodone

Question 19

Effexor XR

Answer 19

Venlafaxine

Question 20

Spiriva

Answer 20

Tiotropium

Question 21

Cialis

Answer 21

Tadalafil

Question 22

Lyrica

Answer 22

Pregabalin

Question 23

Lexapro

Answer 23

Escitalopram

Question 24

Concerta

Answer 24

Methylphenidate

Question 25

Wellbutrin

Answer 25

Bupropion

Question 26

Pravachol

Answer 26

Pravastatin

Question 27

Suboxone

Answer 27

Buprenorphine/Naloxone

Question 28

Prozac

Answer 28

Fluoxetine

Question 29

Ambien

Answer 29

Zolpidem

Question 30

Coreg

Answer 30

Carvedilol

Question 31

Zetia

Answer 31

Ezetimibe

Question 32

Lipitor

Answer 32

Atorvastatin

Question 33

Tamiflu

Answer 33

Oseltamivir

Question 34

Advair Diskus

Answer 34

Fluticasone/Salmeterol

Question 35

Diflucan

Answer 35

Fluconazole

Question 36

Cozaar

Answer 36

Losartan

Question 37

Adderall

Answer 37

Amphetamine/Dextroamphetamine

Question 38

TriCor

Answer 38

Fenofibrate

Question 39

Nexium

Answer 39

Esomeprazole

Question 40

Lantus

Answer 40

Insulin Glargine

Question 41

Viagra

Answer 41

Sildenafil

Question 42

Zyprexa

Answer 42

Olanzapine

Question 43

Seroquel

Answer 43

Quetiapine

Question 44

Cymbalta

Answer 44

Duloxetine

Question 45

Januvia

Answer 45

Sitagliptin

Question 46

Crestor

Answer 46

Rosuvastatin

Question 47

Plavix

Answer 47

Clopidogrel

Question 48

Protonix

Answer 48

Pantoprazole

Question 49

Singulair

Answer 49

Montelukast

Question 50

Duoneb/Combivent Respimat

Answer 50

Ipratropium/Albuterol

Question 51

Pataday

Answer 51

Olopatadine (antihistamine for eye itching)

Question 52

Victoza

Answer 52

Liraglutide

Question 53

Lasix

Answer 53

Furosemide

Question 54

Strattera

Answer 54

Atomoxetine (ADHD)

Question 55

Xanax

Answer 55

Alprazolam

Question 56

Dulera

Answer 56

Mometasone/Formoterol

Question 57

Coumadin

Answer 57

Warfarin

Question 58

Ultram

Answer 58

Tramadol (opioid)

Question 59

Zocor

Answer 59

Simvastatin

Question 60

Xarelto

Answer 60

Rivaroxaban

Question 61

Chantix

Answer 61

Varenicline

Question 62

Flexeril

Answer 62

Cyclobenzaprine (muscle spasms)

Question 63

Invokana

Answer 63

Canagliflozin

Question 64

Latuda

Answer 64

Lurasidone

Question 65

Boniva

Answer 65

Ibandronate (post menopausal osteoporosis)

Question 66

Levemir

Answer 66

Insulin Detemir

Question 67

Actonel

Answer 67

Risedronate

Question 68

Desyrel

Answer 68

Trazodone (MDD)

Question 69

Humalog

Answer 69

Insulin lispro

Question 70

Zestril

Answer 70

Lisinopril

Question 71

Enbrel

Answer 71

Etanercept

Question 72

Tenormin

Answer 72

Atenolol

Question 73

Bystolic

Answer 73

Nebivolol

Question 74

Focalin XR

Answer 74

Dexmethylphenidate (ADHD, narcolepsy)

Question 75

Glucophage

Answer 75

Metformin

Question 76

Flomax

Answer 76

Tamsulosin

Question 77

Percocet

Answer 77

Oxycodone/Acetaminophen

Question 78

Avodart

Answer 78

Dutasteride

Question 79

NuvaRing

Answer 79

Etonogestrel/Ethinyl estradiol

Question 80

Dexilant

Answer 80

Dexlansoprazole

Question 81

Lopressor

Answer 81

Metoprolol

Question 82

Norvasc

Answer 82

Amlodipine

Question 83

Zantac

Answer 83

Ranitidine

Question 84

Humira

Answer 84

Adalimumab

Question 85

Toprol XL

Answer 85

Metoprolol

Question 86

Proventil

Answer 86

Albuterol

Question 87

Pradaxa + drug class + reversal agent

Answer 87

Dabigatran, direct thrombin inhibitor, idarucizumab

Question 88

Lotensin

Answer 88

Benazepril

Question 89

Flovent

Answer 89

Fluticasone

Question 90

Combigan

Answer 90

Brimonidine/Timolol (glaucoma)

Question 91

Eliquis

Answer 91

Apixaban

Question 92

Zithromax

Answer 92

Azithromycin

Question 93

Vesicare + MOA

Answer 93

Solifenacin (overactive bladder, M3 antagonist)

Question 94

Celexa

Answer 94

Citalopram

Question 95

Exelon

Answer 95

Rivastigmine

Question 96

Restasis

Answer 96

Cyclosporine

Question 97

Vicodin

Answer 97

Hydrocodone/Acetominophen

Question 98

Diphenhydramine

Answer 98

Benadryl (1st gen H1)

Question 99

Doxylamine

Answer 99

Vicks NyQuil, Tylenol Cold and Cough (1st gen H1)

Question 100

Cetirizine

Answer 100

Zyrtec (2nd gen H1)

Question 101

Desloratadine

Answer 101

Clarinex (2nd gen H1)

Question 102

Fexofenadine

Answer 102

Allegra (2nd gen H1)

Question 103

Loratadine

Answer 103

Claritin (2nd gen H1)

Question 104

Lovenox

Answer 104

Enoxaparin

Question 105

Zofran

Answer 105

Ondansetron

Question 106

Entresto

Answer 106

Sacubutril/Valsartan

Question 107

Flagyl

Answer 107

Metronidazole

Question 108

Farxiga

Answer 108

Dapagliflozin

Question 109

Jardiance

Answer 109

Empagliflozin

Question 110

Macrobid

Answer 110

Nitrofurantoin

Question 111

Depakote

Answer 111

Valproate

Question 112

ZoSyn

Answer 112

Piperaciilin/Tazobactam

Question 113

Mepolizumab, Reslizumab

Answer 113

Monoclonal Ab against IL5 for Asthma

Question 114

Benralizumab

Answer 114

Monoclonal Ab against IL5 receptor for Asthma

Question 115

Dupilumab

Answer 115

Monoclonal Ab against IL4 receptor for Asthma

Question 116

Triamterene MOA

Answer 116

K+ sparing diuretic

Question 117

Amiloride MOA and Use

Answer 117

K+ sparing diuretic; Tx nephrogenic DI 2/2 lithium

Question 118

Metolazone MOA

Answer 118

Thiazide diuretic

Question 119

Kayexalate

Answer 119

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Tx hyperkalemia by K+ binding in GIT

Question 120

Zoledronic acid MOA

Answer 120

Bisphosphanate (can be used for hypercalcemia)

Question 121

Erlotinib MOA & Use

Answer 121

EGFR Inhibitor; non-small cell lung cancer

Question 122

Versed

Answer 122

Midazolam

Question 123

Ethacrynic acid

Answer 123

Loop diuretic (non-sulfa)

Question 124

Ustekinumab & Secukinumab uses and target

Answer 124

Severe psoriasis (IL12/23) and (IL17)

Question 125

Sevelamer

Answer 125

Phosphate binder used in CKD

Question 126

Eplerenone MOA

Answer 126

K+ sparing diuretic

Question 127

Mucinex

Answer 127

Guaifenesin

Question 128

Decadron

Answer 128

Dexamethasone

Question 129

Dimethyl fumarate use

Answer 129

Anti-inflammatory Tx of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (MS)

Question 130

Rocephin

Answer 130

Ceftriaxone

Question 131

Ocrelizumab use and MOA

Answer 131

Multiple Sclerosis; Anti CD20 monoclonal antibody

Question 132

Baclofen MOA and Use

Answer 132

GABA-B agonist for muscle spasms in MS

Question 133

Adriamycin

Answer 133

Doxorubicin

Question 134

Spironolactone & Eplerenone

Answer 134

Aldosterone antagonists

Question 135

Librium

Answer 135

Chlordiazepoxide

Question 136

Suvorexant, lemborexant MOA & Use

Answer 136

Orexin-receptor antagonist; Sleep onset/maintenance

Question 137

Ruxolitinib MOA and Use

Answer 137

JAK1/2 inhibitor; Myelofibrosis Tx

Question 138

Mecasermin MOA & Use

Answer 138

Recombinant IGF1 used in Laron Syndrome

Question 139

Pegvisomant MOA & Use

Answer 139

GH receptor antagonist used for acromegaly/gigantism

Question 140

Name the three direct thrombin inhibitors

Answer 140

Bivalirudin, Argatroban, Dabigatran

Question 141

Dalteparin and Enoxaparin class & MOA

Answer 141

Low molecular weight heparin; inhibits thrombin (IIa)

Question 142

Name the 3 direct Xa inhibitors

Answer 142

Apixaban, Rivaroxaban, Fondaparinux

Question 143

Name the 3 Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

Answer 143

Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

Question 144

Ticlodipine, Clopidogrel, Prasugrel, Ticagrelor, Cangrelo MOA & Use

Answer 144

ADP receptor blocker (P2Y12), prevent platelet aggregation in acute coronary syndrome

Question 145

What is the treatment for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Answer 145

Eculizumab *Can also be used for atypical HUS

Question 146

Reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors

Answer 146

Andexanet Alfa

Question 147

Reversal agent to Dabigatran

Answer 147

Idarucizumab

Question 148

Drug used in Huntingtons & Tourette’s (plus MOA)

Answer 148

Tetrabenazine - Vesicular monoamine transporter 2 inhibitor (VMAT2 inhibitor)

Question 149

First line and alternative Tx for restless legs syndrome

Answer 149

First line: dopamine agonist (pramipexole, ropinirole) Second: Alpha2delta calcium ligands (gabapentin)

Question 150

ALS drug Tx and MOA

Answer 150

Riluzole - Glutamate inhibitor

Question 151

Romiplostim, Eltrombopag drug type

Answer 151

Thrombopoietin (TPO) receptor agonist

Question 152

Epoetin Alfa, Darbepoetin MOA + Use

Answer 152

Recombinant EPO for ESRD

Question 153

Atomoxetine MOA and Use

Answer 153

Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor; 2nd line ADHD

Question 154

Drug for anorexic pt who struggles to gain weight

Answer 154

Olanzapine

Question 155

Tardive Dyskinesia drug Tx + MOA

Answer 155

Valbenazine, inhibits VMAT2

Question 156

Piperacillin-tazobactam

Answer 156

ZoSyn

Question 157

1st gen cephalosporins (2)

Answer 157

Cephalexin & Cefazolin (surgical prophylaxis)

Question 158

2nd gen cephalosporins (4)

Answer 158

Cefoxitin, cefuroxime, cefaclor, cefotetan *2nd gen has anaerobic coverage (used for intraabdominal/pelvic infection)

Question 159

3rd gen cephalosporins (3), which one covers pseudomonas

Answer 159

Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime *excellent G- coverage (ceftazidme covers pseudomonas)

Question 160

4th gen cephalosporins (1)

Answer 160

Cefepime *G- coverage including pseudomonas

Question 161

5th gen cephalosporin (1)

Answer 161

Ceftaroline *only ceph that covers MRSA

Question 162

Name the 3 carbapenems, which does NOT cover pseudomonas

Answer 162

Imipenem-Cilastatin, Meropenem, Ertapenem (Ertapenem does not cover)

Question 163

Fluoroquinolone: which covers anaerobe, and pyelonephritis/UTI. Cardiac ADR?

Answer 163

Moxifloxacin (anaerobe), ciprofloxacin/levofloxacin (pyelo/UTI); QT prolongation

Question 164

Treatment of Doxorubicin toxicity

Answer 164

Dexrazoxane

Question 165

Which opioid does NOT cause miosis

Answer 165

Meperidine (also relieves shivering)

Question 166

Drug treatment of PBC

Answer 166

Ursodeoxycholic acid (Ursodiol)

Question 167

Antibiotic treatments options for Ascending Cholangitis (2)

Answer 167

Ampicillin-Sulbactam (unasyn); Cipro-Metronidazole

Question 168

DOC for hypertensive peristalsis & Diffuse esophageal spasm

Answer 168

Diltiazem

Question 169

Terlipressin MOA & Use

Answer 169

Vasopressin analogue used for splanchnic vasoconstriction in Hepatorenal syndrome

Question 170

CLL treatment

Answer 170

Ibrutinib/Rituximab

Question 171

CML treatment

Answer 171

Imatinib OR dasatinib

Question 172

Multiple myeloma Tx (4)

Answer 172

Bortezomib, melphalan, lenalinomide, bisphosphate

Question 173

Drug for Lambert Eaton

Answer 173

3,4-diaminopyridine (34DAP) + Pyridostigmine “3,4DAP got my muscles back”

Question 174

Drug used for neutropenia

Answer 174

Filgrastim

Question 175

Alemtuzumab use and MOA

Answer 175

Hypereosinophilia ; Anti-CD52 antibody

Question 176

Anti-BCL2 drug for CLL

Answer 176

Venetoclax

Question 177

Hairy cell leukemia primary treatment (1) and alternative (3)

Answer 177

Primary: Cladribine; Secondary: Pentostatin, rituximab, IFN-a

Question 178

Chemo regiment for Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Answer 178

“R-CHOP”: Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin (Hydroxydaunorubicin), vincristine (Oncovin), and prednisone

Question 179

Chemo regiment for Hodgkins Lymphoma

Answer 179

“ABVD”: Adriamycin (doxorubicin), bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine

Question 180

Squalene Epoxidase inhibitors (2)

Answer 180

Terbinafine + Tolnaftate

Question 181

Tinea Capitus Treatment and Most common pathogen

Answer 181

Griseofulvin. Trichophyton tonsurans

Question 182

Cobicistat MOA/Use

Answer 182

Inhibit CYP3A -> increased HIV drug levels -> lower dose needed -> decreased adverse effects

Question 183

Protease inhibitor A/E (2)

Answer 183

Insulin resistance, Nephropathy (indinavir)

Question 184

Antimicrobial for burns (2)

Answer 184

Mafenide acetate or Silver sulfadiazine

Question 185

Prolixin

Answer 185

Fluphenazine

Question 186

Secondary & Tertiary TCAS (w/ brand names)

Answer 186

Secondary: Desipramine (Norpramin), Nortriptyline (Pamelor) Tertiary: Amitriptyline (Elavil), Clomipramine (Anafranil) *tertiary has more a/e; clomipramine for OCD

Question 187

Parnate

Answer 187

Tranylcypromine (MAOI)

Question 188

Remeron

Answer 188

Mirtazapine

Question 189

Ketalar

Answer 189

Ketamine (NMDA antagonist)

Question 190

SSRIs to avoid during pregnancy

Answer 190

Paroxetine (Paxil) & Sertraline (Zoloft)

Question 191

SNRI used for fibromyalgia & diabetic peripheral neuropathy

Answer 191

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Question 192

DOC for postpartum depression (2)

Answer 192

Brexanolone (Zulresso), Zuranolone (Zurzuvae)

Question 193

Invega

Answer 193

Paliperidone

Question 194

Latuda

Answer 194

Lurasidone

Question 195

Geodon

Answer 195

Ziprasidone

Question 196

Austedo & Ingrezza generic name, MOA, and use/s

Answer 196

Deutetrabenazine (Austedo), Valbenazine (Ingrezza); VMAT2 inhibitors; both used for pediatric Tourette’s, Austedo for huntingtons

Question 197

Eskalith

Answer 197

Lithium (N levels 0.6-1.2)

Question 198

Tegretol

Answer 198

Carbamazepine

Question 199

Trileptal

Answer 199

Oxcarbazepine

Question 200

Lamictal

Answer 200

Lamotrigine

Question 201

Atrovent

Answer 201

Ipratropium

Question 202

Atrovent

Answer 202

Ipratropium

Question 203

Luvox

Answer 203

Fluvoxamine

Question 204

Myrbetriq

Answer 204

Mirabegron (Tx overactive bladder, beta3 agonist)

Question 205

DOC algorithm orthostatic hypotension

Answer 205

Fludrocortisone (if uncorrected with salt/H2O intake) -> midrodine (norepinephrine <220), atomoxetine (>200)

Question 206

First line Tx Cataplexy

Answer 206

Sodium Oxybate

Question 207

Metabolite screened on UDS for cocaine use

Answer 207

Benzoylecgonine (ben-zoy-lek-guh-neen)

Question 208

Lunesta

Answer 208

Eszopiclone

Question 209

Sonata

Answer 209

Zaleplon

Question 210

Halcion

Answer 210

Triazolam

Question 211

Compazine

Answer 211

Prochlorperazine

Question 212

Demerol

Answer 212

Meperidine

Question 213

PCSK9 inhibitors (2)

Answer 213

Alirocumab & Evolocumab

Question 214

Ranolazine use & brand name

Answer 214

Anti-anginal, Ranexa

Question 215

Milrinone MOA & brand name

Answer 215

PDE3 inhibitor causing increased contractility & decreased PVR ; Primacor

Question 216

Lubiprostone MOA, Use, and brand name

Answer 216

Chloride channel activator, relieve constipation, Amitiza

Question 217

Avycaz

Answer 217

Ceftazidime/Avibactam

Question 218

Vimpat

Answer 218

Lacosamide

Question 219

Vimpat

Answer 219

Lacosamide

Question 220

Carafate

Answer 220

Sucralfate

Question 221

Palivizumab use

Answer 221

RSV in preterm <29wks

Question 222

Atarax/Vistaril

Answer 222

Hydroxyzine

Question 223

Velcade name and use

Answer 223

Bortezomib, Multiple Myeloma/Mantle cell (proteasome inhibitor)

Question 224

Tocilizumab MOA and Use

Answer 224

IL-6R antibody used for Coronavirus

Question 225

Sulfasalazine a/e (2)

Answer 225

GI upset, oligospermia in men; can switch to mesalamine to avoid this

Question 226

Hypertensive Emergency Tx (7)

Answer 226

Clevidipine, Labetalol, Esmolol, Nifedipine, Nitroprusside, Nitroglycerin, Fenaldopam

Question 227

Luspatercept MOA and Use

Answer 227

Improved RBC maturation, B-Thalassemia

Question 228

Drugs to reduce mortality in HFpEF

Answer 228

Empagliflozin, Dapagliflozin

Question 229

Drugs to reduce mortality in HFrEF

Answer 229

ACE inhibitors/ARBs, ARNIs (Entresto), b-blockers, spironolactone, hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate (in black pts)

Question 230

Aspergillosis Tx

Answer 230

Voriconazole

Question 231

Amiloride MOA

Answer 231

Potassium sparing diuretic, blocking ENaC channel

Question 232

What is Stanozolol?

Answer 232

Synthetic androgen

Question 233

Name of aromatase inhibitors (3)

Answer 233

Anastrazole, Letrozole, Exemestane

Question 234

List of 2nd gen H1 antihistamines (7)

Answer 234

-Loratadine -Desloratadine -Cetirizine -Levocetirizine -Azelastine -Fexofenadine -Ketotifen

Question 235

Mirabegron MOA and use

Answer 235

Beta-3 agonist for urge incontinence

Question 236

What is Mupirocin?

Answer 236

Topical antibiotic used to treat superficial community acquired MRSA

Question 237

Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate

Answer 237

Lokelma; Cation-exchange medication to treat hyperkalemia

Question 238

Diprivan

Answer 238

Propofol

Question 239

Dilaudid

Answer 239

Hydromorphone

Question 240

Toradol

Answer 240

Ketorolac

Question 241

Hurricaine

Answer 241

Benzocaine spray

Question 242

Marcaine

Answer 242

Bupivicaine

Question 243

Zemuron

Answer 243

Rocuronium

Question 244

Nimbex

Answer 244

Cisatracurium

Question 245

Nurtec + Ubrelvy + Aimovig, MOA?

Answer 245

Rimegepant (Nurtec), Ubrogepant (Ubrelvy), Erunumab (Aimovig); CGRP antagonist for migraine *Aimovig is used prophylactically