A 65-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer is worried about her odds of developing breast cancer. Which of the following would also increase her risk?
Early onset of menarche
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 0.5-cm invasive carcinoma of the breast, detected on mammography. What would be the appropriate local therapy for the tumor?
Local excision and axillary dissection followed by radiation therapy
A 15-year-old black girl has her left breast removed because of a large mass. The tumor weighs 1350 g and has a bulging, very firm, lobulated surface with a whorl-like pattern. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
A 60-year-old woman who has a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy for carcinoma of the breast one year previously develops polyuria, nocturia, and excessive thirst. Laboratory values are as follows:
Serum electrolytes: Na: 1 149 meq/L; K: 3.6 meq/L
Serum calcium: 9.5 mg/dL
Blood glucose: 110 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen: 30 mg/dL
Urine osmolality: 150 mOsm/kg
A 54-year-old woman with a history of left mastectomy and subsequent radiation therapy for breast cancer two years ago presents with a 3-cm mass along the edge of the surgical suture line. She denies fever, chills, weight loss, and night sweats. Physical examination reveals some generalized induration and a tanned appearance of the skin overlying the mastectomy secondary to radiation therapy. There is a nonmobile nontender mass along the suture line that is not warm or fluctuant. She has no axillary lymphadenopathy. A biopsy specimen of the breast mass is most likely to show which of the following?
Which of the following side effects is relatively common immediately after isosulfan blue dye injection for mapping and sentinel node identification?
Spurious pulse oximeter reading
Which of the following statements best describes the long thoracic nerve?
If damaged, Causes winged scapula
Axillary lymph nodes are classified according to their relationship with which muscle?
Which of the following best describes the Breast Cancer Type 2 gene (BRCA2)?
It is associated with a 40% lifetime risk of ovarian cancer
A 40-year old female presents to the clinic with a palpable mass. On physical examination, the mass is a 1 cm, mobile, firm nodule at 2:00 position. What is the next best step in management for this new mass?
Which of the following statements best describes breast MRIs?
They allow for easy acquisition of tissue for pathologic diagnosis
What is the most common cause of a bloody nipple discharge?
Which of the following statements is most characteristic of phylloides tumors?
They tend to recur
A 34-year old woman is referred for evaluation of breast pain. It is described as burning, occasionally sharp and located in the subareolar area. It is always present and unilateral. On physical exam, she has dense tissue in both breasts, but no discrete nodules. What is the best working diagnosis?
Noncyclic breast pain (If they ask treatment for this, it is just reassurance)
Following a needle localized excisional biopsy for microcalcifications, pathology is found to be fibrocystic changes associated with sclerosing adenosis and ductal hyperplasia. There was no atypia, but lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) was present. What is the next best step in management?
Tell the patient that she has future cancer risk of 1% per year.
A woman had a mastectomy and sentinel node biopsy for a diagnosed invasive breast cancer. Her sentinel node was positive and she had an axillary dissection. The final pathology showed a 4cm invasive lobular carcinoma. Five of thirteen lymph nodes were positive. Additional therapy would include which of the following?
A young patient had a mass removed from her breast that was thought to be a fibroadenoma. On the final pathology, it was found to be a malignant phylloides tumor with margins less than 1 mm. Which of the following should be included in additional therapy?
Appropriate management of a patient with a positive sentinel lymph node might include which of the following actions?
Systemic chemotherapy and axillary lymph node dissection
A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-cm painless subareolar mass of his left breast with nipple retraction. Physical examination shows no lymph node involvement. A biopsy revealed infiltrating ductal carcinoma with positive hormone receptors. There is no evidence of metastatic disease. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?
Modified radical mastectomy
A 22-year-old woman in her 9th week of pregnancy presents with a painless lump of her left breast. On physical examination, there is a 3 cm mass in the left breast with no palpable lymph nodes. What imaging study should be performed first?
A 22-year-old woman in her 9th week of pregnancy presents with a painless lump of her left breast. On physical exam there is a 3 cm mass in the left breast with no palpable lymph nodes. The mass is found to be solid and a biopsy is performed. It returns as infiltrating ductal carcinoma. Around what topic should the treatment discussion center?
Mastectomy with axillary sampling
What is an acceptable treatment for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)?
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) may be treated by which of the following methods?
A 45-year-old woman is referred for an abnormal mammogram. It shows a cluster of calcifications in the central left breast for a span of 1.5 cm read by the radiologist as a BIRADS 4. There is no associated mass and nothing is palpable on physical examination. What is the next best step in management?
A woman has a core needle stereotactic biopsy that shows fibrocystic condition and adenosis. There was evidence of atypical ductal hyperplasia. What is the next best step in management?
Wire localized excisional biopsy
BRCA 2 gene mutation is associated with a higher risk of developing which cancer?
A 65-year-old woman presents with a large mass encompassing her whole right breast with peu d’orange, redness and thickened skin. There are palpable lymph nodes in the right axilla. She has no fever and the breast itself is not painful. What is the working diagnosis?
Inflammatory breast cancer
A 65-year-old woman presents with a large mass encompassing her whole right breast with peu d’orange, redness and thickened skin. There are palpable lymph nodes in the right axilla. She has no fever and the breast itself is not painful. What is the next step in the evaluation of this patient?
A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 cm mass in her right breast detected by mammogram. Core biopsy shows infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no palpable axillary lymph nodes. Appropriate therapy for the patient would include which of the following?
Sentinel lymph node biopsy, radiation therapy, and lumpectomy
A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 cm mass in her right breast detected by mammogram. Core biopsy shows infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no palpable axillary lymph nodes. The patient has a negative sentinel node biopsy and no evidence of metastatic disease. In what stage is the patient?
A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 cm mass in her right breast detected by mammogram. Core biopsy shows infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no palpable axillary lymph nodes. If the patient had a positive sentinel node biopsy and no evidence of metastatic disease, what would her stage be?
25 yo with 2.5 cm mass anechoic and no internal echos.
A fibroadenoma and do an aspiration.
Young person with mass and mother who died of breast CA at 40.
Work it up.
BRCA, metastatic workup and MRI
Loss of posterior sensation of arm after partial mastectomy from damage to which nerve?
Pregnant female needs workup.
Ultrasound and excision
Dense breast with subareolar constant sharp burning pain. Non-Cyclic breast pain. Management?
Abscess with smoking history. Management?
ABX and drainage/cut nipple