Broad notes Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The process whereby cells, tissues and organisms maintain an internal balance despite external changes

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2
Q

What is the average blood pH? What is it in veins and what is it in arteries?

A

Average blood pH = 7.4
Arteries = 7.45
Veins = 7.35

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3
Q

Describe the long term control of pH control, short term is done by the lungs

A

Long term is done by the kidney excreting and retaining either H+ or bicarbonate (HCO3-)

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4
Q
haemotoxylin stains blue 
eosin stains pink
gram positive stain purple 
gram negative stain red 
Check this
A

T

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5
Q

What is meant by ‘transitional epithelium’

A

More than one layer thick and can expand under distension e.g. bladder has umbrella cells

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6
Q
What kind of epithelial cels are:
bowmans capsule/lung serosa
stomach lining 
thyroid follicles
upper respiratory tract (trachea and bronchi)
vagina
skin
bladdder
A
simple squamous 
simple columnar epithelium
simple cuboidal (glands)
pseudostratified
non-keratinised stratified squamous 
ketainised stratified squamous
transitional
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7
Q

order these steps - compaction, implantation, fertilisation, hatching, cleavage
(all occur in week 1)

A

Fertilisation - in ampulla of fallopian tubes
Cleavage - series of mitotic divisions to form a morula
compaction - to form a blastocyst
hatching - blastocyst needs to interact with the maternal tissues so ‘hatches; from the zona pellucida
implantation - ideally in the posterior body of the uterine wall - gives the zygote access to maternal blood supply

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8
Q

When does the zona pellucida form and what is its function?

A

after fertilisation, to prevent another sperm fertilising the same egg

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9
Q

The blastocyst which forms after compaction is the formation of the first cavity, what are the names of the masses that are present at this stage?

A

Outer cell mass - trophoblast - will give us foetal membranes such as the placenta
Inner cell mass - embryoblast - willl give us the body

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10
Q

Explain what happens in week 2 - the week of two’s

A

Trophoblast becomes the
yncytiotrophoblast - a multinucleate sheet of epithelium across which transport of stuff between Mother and foetus can occur AND the…
Cytotrophoblast - a stem cell layer which will keep adding to the syncytiotrophoblast enlarging it

Embryoblast becomes the bilaminar disk - epiblast and hypoblast

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11
Q

Give two implantation defects

A

Ectopic pregnancy - implantation occurs outside the uterine body commonly in the fallopian tubes
Placenta praevia is implanation in the lower uterine segment - can cause placenta to grow over the uterus opening meaning a C section will be required, also risk of haemorrhage

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12
Q

What is the primitive yolk sac

A

When the hypoblast lines the blastocoele

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13
Q

If teratogenesis occurs in the following periods, what will be the result?
pre-embryonic
embryonic
foetal

A

pre-embryonic - lethal
embryonic - structural abnormalitie
Foetal - growth wil be fine except CNS -> CNS abnormalities

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14
Q

Order the following:

Gastrulation, segmentation, embryonic folding, neurulation, fertilisation

A
Fertlisation 
Gastrulation
Neurulation
Segmentation
Embryonic folding
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15
Q

If two primitive streaks occur in the third week what does it indicate?

A

conjoined twins

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16
Q

Describe gastrulation

A

Cells of the epiblast proliferate and migrate towards the primitive streak where they invaginate and replace the hypoblast layer. They differentiate to form three discrete layers, the mesoderm, endoderm and ectoderm. Apart from two bits where there’s no mesoderm - future mouth and anus

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17
Q

What creates left/right asymmetry?

A

Ciliated cells at the primitive node beat left sided and right sided signals to their correct poles prior to gastrulation

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18
Q

Describe neurulation

A

Notochord forms and releases signals that are picked up by the local ectoderm (neuroectoderm) - this thickens to form the neural plate and the edges curl inward to form the neural tube. Mesoderm differentiates into it’s specific regions

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19
Q

What are the derivatives of the somatic and splanchnic mesoderm?

A

Somatic - bones, ligaments etc.

Splanchnic - viscera

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20
Q

What is the functino of the intraembryonic coelom?

A

Provides space for the viscera to be built in

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21
Q

What mesodermal derivative becomes the somites?

A

Paraxial mesoderm (31 pairs - 31 pairs of spinal nerves)

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22
Q

Segmentation describes the formation of the somites and the followin…Somites degenerate into the dermomyotome (dorsal) and sclerotome (ventral) - what do these become?

A

Dermomyotome - dermatomes (deep layer of skin) and myotomes (muscle precursor cells)

Sclerotome - bones

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23
Q

Give an example of some of the derivatives of the endoderm

A

Tracts such as the respiratory tract, urinary tract etc.

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24
Q

What specific collagen is in loose connective tissue? What is the function of loose connective tissue?

A

Holds organs and tissues in place

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25
What makes up the ECM?
Water, proteoglycans bound to GAG's like hyaluronic acid and collagen fibres
26
Give an example of regular dense connective tissue
LIgaments and tnedons (resist stress in one direction because of parallel fibres of collagen)
27
How can a vitamin C defiicency cause scurvy?
Vitamin C is required for intracellular production of procollagen -> without collagen fibres have a kink in them meaning they can't aggregate sufficiently to form fibrils
28
Give some symptoms of scurvy
poor wound healing/ gum disease/ bruising of the sin
29
Marfans syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder of a mutation in the fibrillin 1 gene. Fibrillin cross links elastin fibres to form elastic fibres with elastic recoil. Give some symptoms of marfans syndrome
arachnodacyly (long hands and slender fingers) abnormally tall risk of aortic rupture scoliosis
30
Mutation in the Col1A gene can cause osteogenesis imperfecta. Give some symptoms
Recurrent fractures Hearing loss Poor teeth development blue sclera
31
What is cancellous bone?
A network of fine plates that are filled with bone marrrow
32
Distinguish between yellow marrow and red marrow
Red marrow - Haemopoietic centres where the blood cels are generated. Full of blood cells hence the red appearance Yellow marrow - full of adipocytes, poor blood supply. Acts as a schock absorber and an energy supply for the red marrow. But can convert to red marrow in times of anaemia
33
Where are bone marrow samples taken?
The superior ilian crest
34
How do blood cells enter the circulation?
Via sinusoids
35
What are the functions of precapillary sphincters which allow blood to flow into the capillary bed or if they're closed bypass the bed?
Open to control fluid and nutrient exchange between the capillaries and the bodies tissues
36
Descibe some differences between the structure of veins and arteries
Veins have bigger lumens, thinner tunica media (less muscle), arteries have double membraned tunica media, thicker tunica externa and a smaller lumen
37
Haemopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow in the adult. Give two regions it occurs in the foetus
Liver/spleen/yolk sac
38
What types of fibres exist in: hyaline cartilage elastic cartilage fibrocartilage
Hyaline - type 2 collagen elastic - elastic fibres and type 2 collagen Fibrocartilage - mainly type 1 but some type 2
39
What is the only cell that exists in mature hyaline cartilage?
Chondrocytes
40
Chondrocytes lay down the matrix of the cartilage. In early foetal development hyaline cartilage is the precursor model for bones, the bones develop from this by a process called _____ _______
Endochondral ossification
41
Where does hyaline cartilage remain after endochondral ossification?
At the articular surfaces and at the epiphysis' (growth plates)
42
Chondrocytes grow in depressions called _____ until they burst - releasing the ECM contents
Lacunae
43
Describe appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage
Appositional - Chondroblasts at the perichondrium divide and secrete matrix thus increasing cartilage width Interstitial - Chondrocytes within lacunae receive growth signals -> they revert back to chondroblasts, divide and secrete matric thus increasing cartilage length
44
Give two examples of where you'd find hyaline cartilage
Articular surfaces/ trachea - cricoid cartilage - keeps airway open
45
Elastic cartilage is only found in three points in the body, give one
Pinna of the ear Eustachian tube Epiglottis (flap over trachea that prevents food from entering)
46
Describe the strucutre of fibrocartilage and give some places where it exists in the body
Fibroblasts and chondrocytes (hyaline cartilage and densre regular connective tissue). Acts as a shock absorber in intervertebral discs.
47
Describe endochondral ossification
Ossification beings at diaphysis -> nutrient artery penetrates and forms a primary ossification centre in the middle of the shaft -> Medulla becomes cancellous bone and secondary ossification centres form at the epiphyses -> Growth plates move until finished and then cortical ossification occurs af the periosteum -> growth plates replaced by bone cartilage remains at articular surfaces
48
In the cancellous bone osteoblasts are proliferating and making matrix laying down collagen type I which is then mineralised (calcified) to bone, the osteoblasts then become trapped (in osteon) and are now called _____
Osteocytes
49
What are the function of osteocytes?
Maintain the bone by extending filipodia to get nutrients from neighoburs
50
Define haverisan and volkmann's canals
Haversian - exist in the centre of osteons in cortical bone, they penetrate to the cancellous bone to get a blood supply Volkmann's - Run at right angles to haversian canals connecting them and distributing the bloody supply
51
Whilst long bones undergo endochondral ossification, what do all other bones undergo?
Intramembranous ossification
52
Give two functions of bone
Mechanical - act to protect organs and provide a framework for the body Haemopoiesis via bone marrow Metabolic - mineral storage, fat storage (yellow marrow), acid-base homeostasis - absorbs and releases salts to regulate blood pH
53
Intramembranous ossification is the formation of bone from xlusters of MSC's in the centre of the bone that grow via interstitial growth. Describe the process in detail - it thickens adult bones as well
``` MSC's aggegate to form a tight cluster MSC's differentiate into osteoblasts Osteoblasts lay down osteoid Osteoid is mineralised to bone spicules Spicules joint to form trabeculae (cancelous bone) which merges to form woven bone Trabeculae remodelled to cortical bone ```
54
What stimulates the activity of osteoclasts?
PTH
55
Why is vitamin D vital for bone development?
Processed to calcitriol which is necessary for calcium absorption
56
Describe the stages of fracture repair
1) haematoma formation 2) inflammation 3) Formation of granulation tissue 4) Soft callus formation 5) hard callus formation 6) Bone remodelling
57
What happens in osteoporosis
Loss of cancellous bone mass resulting in weaker centres and higher chance of fracture
58
Rickets (and osteomalacia in adults) is the result of a citamin D deficiency meaning there is poor calcium absorption from the diet. What are the symptoms?
Soft bones/ bowed legs/shortened height and stature/pain when walking
59
Give a cause of osteomalacia
Kidney disease (activation of vitamin D happens here)/phenytoin (reduces vitamin D absorption)
60
Differentiate between type 1 and type 2 PRIMARY osteoporosis
Type 1 - Postmenopausal due to an increase in osteoclast number Type 2 - occurs in older men and women - loss of osteoblast function as a result of loss of both oestrogen and androgens
61
What is secondary osteoporosis
Result of drug therapy or hyperparathyroidism
62
endochondral ossification is a form of _____ growth whilst intramembranous is a form of _____ growth
appositional/interstitial
63
Name two factors that affect bone stability
Activity of osteoblasts/activity of osteoclasts/exercise/vitamins
64
Explain the pathophysiology of rickets
vitamin D deficiency -> not enough calcitriol -> poor calcium absorption -> bone isn't mineralised -> soft bones
65
Give som risk factors for osteoporosis
Smoking in women/insufficient calcium intake/lack of exercise/anti-epileptic drugs like phenytoin
66
What is achondraplasia?
Short stature but normal breadth body, so a mutation that affects endochondral ossification but not intramembranous
67
What is the process whereby x-rays are absorbed by bone and dense tissues giving the x-ray appearance
Attenuation
68
Explain PET scanning
Inject a radioactively labelled substance (normally glucose) which shows highly metabolic areas often for tumour imaging
69
Is oxygen released more readily at low or high pH?
Low
70
Describe some differences between myoglobin and haemoglobin
Myoglobin has one subunit and one haemo group. Has no affinity for carbon dioxide
71
In a sarcomere, define - Z lines, I band, A bands, H zone and M line
M - Midline of sarcomere H zone - region within the A band that contains just myosin filaments A band - contains both filaments I band - just actin filaments Z band - superimposed to show the ends of the sarcomere, these are anchoring points for actin
72
In which kind of muscle is myoglobin absent?
smooth muscle
73
Which filaments are the thick filaments?
myosin. Actin are thin filaments
74
Each dascicle contains fast and slow twitch fibres. Give an example comprised of mainly slow and one of mainly fast
Slow - soleus | fast - eye
75
Slow twitch fibres have a high amount of myoglobin, mitochondria, cytochrome and a good blood supply. What colour are both types of fibre?
Slow - red | Fast - white
76
Communication between cardiomyocytes occurs by calcium moving through what?
Gap junctions called intercalated discs.
77
Describe some defining features of smooth muscle
Not striated, No sacromeres, no T tubules, slower but more sustaied contraction, lots of caveolae (small invaginations, dense bodies (focal adhesions) where the actin/myosin complexes assemble
78
Explain the steps in the power stroke
1) actin-myosin are bound with no ATP in the rigor conformation 2) ATP binding causes dissociation of the myosin head 3) Myosin head moves along through hydrolysis of ATP 4) Actin rebinds and the power stroke occurs
79
Name some differences between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
in cardiac - Z bands overlap/no T tubules/ presence of ANP granules/nucelu are central presence of intercalated disks
80
Give some examples of lymphatic tissues and lymphatic organs
Lymphatic tissues - tonsils, peyers patches, veniform appendix Lymphatic organs - lymph nodes, thymus, spleen
81
Why are there no lymphatic vessels in the CNS?
To prevent cerebral oedema
82
What is the cisterna chyli?
Largest lymph vessel in the body, drains chyle from the gut. Alsom arks the modline of which side of the bodies lymph vessels drain into left or right subclavian vein
83
RUQ and right limb drain into right subclavian vein, rest drains into _____ _____ ____
left subclavian vein
84
What encapsulated bacteria does splenectomy leave you vulnerable to?
Neisseria (meningitidis)/haemophilius/streptococci (pyogenes)
85
Give three of the four functions of the lymphatic system
FLuid balance in interstitial fluid/transport of fat soluble vitamins/Filtering of lymph to remove pathogens/Destruction of old erythrocytes (spleen)
86
What are the treatments for lymphoedema?
Compression hosiery/exercise whilst wearing hosiery/manual lymphatic drainage
87
What are the three major layers of the skin?
Epidermis , Dermis, hypodermis
88
Give the major functions of the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
Hypodermis - Provides an energy store for heat generation/acts as a shock absorber/insulates underlying muscles/makes leptin Dermis - contains hair and sweat glands fo rthermoregulation/contains special sensory structures for touch/contains elastin giving the skin its elastic nature Epithelium - contains dendritic cells for antigen presentation/contains merkel mechanosensory cells/contains melanocytes for melanin production/protection via keratin
89
What are the three layers of the dermis?
Papillary - upper Interdigitating dermal papillae (top of papillary) Reticular - lower
90
Give the layers of the epidermis from the top down and explain a bit about them
Stratum corneum (dead keratinocytes) Stratum lucidum Stratum granulosum - contains keratin and lamellar bodies which make keratin Straum spinosum - contains some Lamellar bodies which make keratin Stratum basal - Melanocytes here and renewal of keratinocytes (no golgi in this layer)
91
What is happening in psoriasis?
Increased transit time of keratin so no protection thus the skin is easily damaged.
92
What muscle rasies hair follicles for thermoregulation?
arrector pili muscles
93
What are the functions of nails?
protect end of finger/enhances sensitivity of fingertip/enhances delicate movements/used as a tool
94
Give three functions of skin
Vitamin D synthesis/absorption of water and oxygen/sensation/lubrication via sebaceous glands/temperature regulation via sweat glands/protection from UV via melanin
95
Give some constituents of grey matter | Give some of white matter
Nerve cell bodies/dendrites/non-myelinated axons/glial cells/axon terminals Myelinated material
96
What cells is myelin produced by in the a) PNS b) CNS
PNS - schwann cells | CNS - oligodendrocytes
97
Explain the steps in neurotransmitter synthesis
1) Synthesis of neurotransmitter in cell body/NT moves to axon hillock via microtubules/action potential stimulates the release of the NT into the synapse/empty vesicles reutrn to the soma
98
What complexes are needed for exocytosis of the NT vesicles?
SNARE
99
_____ conudction occurs in myelinated neurons across the _____ __ ______
Saltatory | Nodes of ranvier
100
What are astrocytes and what is their function?
star-shaped glial cells They contol the flow of nutrients in the CNS/their feet contribute to the BB/regulate nervous imuplses by releasing inhibitory glutamate
101
What cells synthesise and secrete CSF?
Ependymal cells
102
What causes MS and what are the symptoms?
Autoimmune degradation of myelin Symptoms are -Fatigue/vision problems/slurred speech/muscle spasms
103
Preganglionic neurones are myelinated, post-ganglionic ones are _____
Not
104
Which system has thoracolumbar originas and which has brain stem and sacral origins?
Thoracolumbar - SYM | Brainstem and sacral - PARA
105
What is contrast media? Give an example?
Something we inject into the body to make structures clearer in imaging techniques/ barium sulphate Needs to be biologically inert, low osmolality and stable
106
What is myasthenia gravis
An autoimmune condition where AChR are blocked resulting in intermittent muscle weakness, characterised by skeletal muscle weakness and ptosis
107
Give some symptoms of compartment sutndrome
Parasthesia/pain/prolonged capillary refill time
108
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder where the dystrophin gene is mutated. Excess calcium enters the cell and water follows causing mitochondria to burse, muscle is replaced by fat. Give some symptoms
Bent knees to take weight/foot drop/poor balance/belly sticks out due to weak muscles
109
organophosphate poisoning leads to SLUDGE syndrome. What is this?
``` Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defectaion GI cramping Emesis ```
110
below which temperature is considered hypothermia?
35 degrees
111
Whats the functino of the ito cell?
Storage of vitamin A
112
confocal microscopy is not light microscopy it uses lasers they are capable of live cell imaging
T