BRS Physio Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

Characteristics of simple diffusion

A

Not carrier mediated
down an electrochemical gradient
Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

down electrochemical gradient
passive no metabolic energy
Carrier mediated
Example: Glucose transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Primary Active Transport

A

agasint electrochemical gradient
needs ATP and is active
carrier mediated
Example: Na-K-ATPas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Voltate gated channels

A

Opened or close by changes in membrane potential

Example: Na/K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ligand gated channels

A

Open or close by hormones, second messengers or neurotransmitters
Example: Nicotinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At rest the membrane potential is far more permeable to

A

K over Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Depolarization

A

Makes the membrane potential less negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

Makes the membrane potential more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inward current

A

Flow of positive current into the cell and depolarizes the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outward current

A

Flow of positive current outside of the cell, hyperpolarizes the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens during the upstroke of the action potential? And what drug can block this?

A

Depolarization casues rapid openeing of the activation gates of the Na channels. Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two steps happen during depolarization

A

inactivation gates close of NA

K+ gates slowly open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During what condition does acommodation happen? And what is the result in the body?

A

hyperkalemia and muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What two things increase conductance?

A

Increased fiber size

Myelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In chemical synapses which ion enters the presynaptic terminal causing neurotransmitter release

A

Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At the neuromuscular junction what neurotransmiter is released from the presynaptic terminal? What about the post?

A

Pre: AcH
Post: Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What catalyzes the formation of ACH from CoA and choline?

A

Choline acetyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Botulinum toxin do?

A

Blocks release of ACh from presynaptic terminals causing a total blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Neostigmine do?

A

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase which prolonges and enhances action of AcH at muscle end plate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Examples of excitatory postsynaptic potentials and waht do they do?

A

Depolzarie cell by opening Na and K, include AcH, norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine, glutamate and serotonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Examples of inhibatory postsynaptic potentials and what they do?

A

hyperpolarize , open Cl- channels, GABA, glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Noreepinephrine

A

Primary transmiter from postganglionic sympathetic neurons, binds with alpha or beta receptors, removed by MAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Epinephrine

A

Synthesized from NE by the action of phenylethanolamine in the adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dopamine

A

Midbrain neurons, inhibits prolatin sectrtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Serotonin
High concetrations in brain stem from tryptophan and is converted to melatonin in the pineal gland
26
Histamine
From hypothalamus
27
Glutamate
most prevalant excitatory neurotransmisiter
28
GABA/ Glycine
Inhibatory neurotransmiter
29
Nitric Oxide
short acting inhibatory neurotransmitter in GI. blood vessels and central nervous system.
30
Thick filaments in skeletal muscle
present in A band in center of sarcomere and contain myosin.
31
thin filaments in skeletal muscle
anchored in the Z lines are present in I bands and contain actin, tropomyosin and troponin
32
Troponin
Complex of T-I, T, C
33
4 steps in excitation/contraction of skeletal muscle
1. Action potential 2. Depolarization of T tubules 3. Intracellular Ca increase 4. Ca binds to troponin C which starts cross bridge cycling
34
What is the mechanism of Tetanus
Single action potential causes Ca release from CA from the SR and produced a single twitch. The muscle is then stimulated repeadly causing an increase in CA, which extends the time for cross bridge cycling resulting in no relaxation.
35
Primary difference in smooth and skeletal muscle structure?
Smooth has thick and thin filaments that are not arranged in sarcomeres, therefore they appear homogenous rather than striated.
36
Multiunit smooth muscle
densly innervated, contraction controlled by neural inneration and behaves as a separate motor unit
37
Unitary smooth muscle
spontaneously active, exhibits slow waves and exhibits pacemaker activity which is modulated by hormones and neurotransmitters
38
2 major differences in skeletal muscle vs smooth muscle contraction?
1. No troponin in smooth muscle | 2. In smooth, hormones and neurotransmitters can also directly release Ca from the SR through IP3 gated channels.
39
In the ANS where are parasympathetic ganglia located?
Near effector organs
40
In the ANS where are sympathetic ganglia located?
Paravertebral chain
41
Where are the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system?
T1-L3 aka Thoracolumbar region
42
Where are the preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system?
Nuclei of cranial nerves and S2-S4
43
Adrenergic neurons release what as the neurotransmitter?
Norepinephrine
44
Cholinergic neurons release what as the neurotransmitter?
ACh
45
Nonadrenergic/NonCholinergic release what?
Substance P, VIP or NO
46
Structure of parasympathetic nerves
Long preganglionic releases ACH onto Nicotonic receptor on short postganglionic which releases ACH onto muscarinic receptor
47
Structure of sympathetic nerves
Short preganglionic rleases ACh on nicotonic receptor on long postganglionic which releases NE onto adrenergic receptor
48
Alpha 1 : location, G protein, receptor
Smooth muscle, Gq, Increases IP3/Ca, excitation via NE
49
Alpha 2: location, G protein, Receptor
GI, Gi, decreases CAMP, inhibtion,
50
Beta 1: location, G protein, Mechanism
Heart(SA,AV,Ventr), Gs, increases CAMP, excitation
51
Beta 2
Smooth muscle,Gs, increaes CAMP, relaxation, most sensitive to epi
52
Nicotinic receptors
Autonomic ganglia, activated by ACH or nictoine, excitation,
53
Muscarinic receptors
inhibatory on the heart, activated by ACh and muscarine
54
Systolic pressure
highest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle, measured after contraction
55
Diastolic pressure
lowest arterial pressure, measured during relaxation
56
P wave of ECG
atrial depolarization
57
PR interval of ECG
Initial depolarization of the ventricle, length depends on conduction velocity through AV node. Decreased by stimulation of sympathetic, increased by stimulation of parasympthathetic
58
QRS ECG
Depolarization of ventricles
59
QT of ECG
Entire period of depolarizatiopn and repolarization of the ventricles
60
ST of ECG
isoelectric, period when ventricles are depolarized
61
T of ECG
ventricular repolarization
62
Phase 0 of cardiac action potential
upstroke, transient increase in Na conductance which depolarizes the membrane
63
Phase 1 of cardiac action potential
Brief period of initial repolarization caused by an outward current in part because of the movement of K ions out of the cell
64
Phase 2 of cardiac action potential
The plateau of the action potential, caused by a transient increase in Ca conductance.
65
Phase 3 of cardiac action potential
The repolarization, CA conductance decreaes and K conductance increases and predominates
66
Phase 4 of cardiac action potential
Resting membrane potential, period during which inward and outward currents are equal.
67
When is the absolute refractory period in the heart?
begins with upstroke of action potential and ends after plateau
68
Cardiac Cycle (A) Atrial systole
``` Atrial vs Vent pressure: > Arterial vs Vent pressure: > AV: Open SLV: Closed EKG: P wave Heart Sounds: 4th heart sound ```
69
Cardiac Cycle (B) Isovolumetric Ventricular Contraction
``` Atrial vs Vent pressure: < Arterial vs Vent pressure > AV: Closed SLV: Closed EKG: QRS Heart Sounds: First heart sound ```
70
Cardiac Cylce (C) Rapid Ventricular Ejection
``` Atrial vs Vent pressure: < Arterial vs Vent pressure: < AV: Closed SLV: Open EKG: QRS onset of T wave Heart Sounds: Most of stroke volume is ejected ```
71
Cardiac Cycle (E) Isovolumetric Relaxation
``` Atrial vs Vent pressure: < Arterial vs Vent pressure: > AV: Closed SLV: Closed EKG: T wave Heart Sounds: Second heart sound ```
72
Cardiac Cycle (F) Rapid Ventricular Filling
``` Atrial vs Vent pressure: > Arterial vs Vent pressure AV: Open SLV: EKG: Heart Sounds: third ```
73
Cardiac Cycle (G) Reduced Ventricular Filling
Longest phase