BS respiratory strand Flashcards

(457 cards)

1
Q

what is the main function of the respiratory system?

A

gas exchange

O2 from air to blood and CO2 from blood to air

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2
Q

what are the other functions of the respiratory system?

A

speech - exhalation and vibration of vocal chords

smell - inspiration through nasal cavity - in roof specialised epithelium detect small particles in the air

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3
Q

what are the two functional divisions of the respiratory system?

A

conducting and respiratory portion

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4
Q

what is the role of the conducting portion?

A
  • transports air from external environment to exchange surfaces
  • conditions the air (warms, moistens and filters as exchange structures are v delicate
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5
Q

what is the role of the respiratory portion?

A

where the actual gas exchange occurs

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6
Q

what makes up the conducting portion?

A

nasal cavity to the terminal bronchi

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7
Q

what are conchae?

A

3 inundations in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for conditioning of air

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8
Q

what are meatuses?

A

the 4 pathways for air to flow created by the conchae, flow is disrupted creating a turbulent flow and conditioning it

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9
Q

why do we need turbulent flow?

A

viruses and bacteria in the air can be passed into the sinuses and immune response can be mounted –> prevents infection

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10
Q

what is the hard pallate?

A

roof of mouth

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11
Q

what is the soft palate?

A

the uvula is part of it

pushes food to back of throat and can almost seal of nasal cavity to prevent food going up nose

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12
Q

what barrier is there between nasal cavity and brain?

A

ethmoid bone

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13
Q

what is the role of the epiglottis?

A
  • stop food going into respiratory system by sealing it

- swallowing pushes food posterior

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14
Q

what is the nasopharynx?

A

upper part of the pharynx posterior to nasal cavity - only air

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15
Q

what is the oropharynx?

A

middle part of the pharynx posterior to mouth, uvula can be line of demarcation - air and food

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16
Q

what is the langopharynx?

A

most inferior portion of the pharynx

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17
Q

What is the upper airway composed of?

A

The nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx and associated structures

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18
Q

What muscle is important in nasal breathing?

A

The genioglossus

  • the muscle that makes up most of the tongue
  • it prevents posterior tongue displacement and upper airway closure
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19
Q

What muscle is important in mouth breathing?

A

The tensor palati

  • it acts to tense and elevate the soft in order to prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing
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20
Q

Describe the pharyngeal dilator reflex

A

Pressure receptors > brain stem > pharyngeal muscle contraction

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21
Q

What is the afferent nerve of the pharyngeal dilator reflex?

A

The trigeminal nerve

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22
Q

What is the efferent nerve of the pharyngeal dilator reflex?

A

The vagus nerve

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23
Q

What percentage of people are affected by sleep disorder breathing and sleep apnoea?

A

Sleep disordered breathing - 25%

Sleep apnoea - 10%

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24
Q

What are clinical features of sleep disordered breathing?

A

Snoring and daytime somnolence

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25
What features is sleep disordered breathing associated with?
Obesity and hypertension
26
How is sleep disordered breathing treated?
Weight loss and CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure)
27
Airway lining fluid is produced by...
Ciliated epithelial cells | Goblet cells
28
In the nose and pharynx the ciliated epithelial cells are classified as...
Pseudostratified
29
In the trachea and bronchi the ciliated epithelial cells are classified as...
Columnar
30
In the bronchioles the ciliated epithelial cells are classified as...
Cuboidal
31
Goblet cells produce...
Mucin granules
32
What are mucin granules produced in response to?
- airway irritation - tobacco smoke - infection
33
How do the cilia move mucus along?
Recovery and effective stroke
34
What are the two layers of airway lining fluid?
Mucous layer and periciliary
35
What inhibits the cilia?
- tobacco smoke - inhaled anaesthetics - air pollution - infection
36
What are the functions of the airway?
Humidification and airway defence
37
How is humidification by airway lining fluid made more efficient?
Heat and moisture exchanger The moisture and heat added to air during inhalation is returned in exhalation
38
How does the airway lining fluid aid airway defence?
The muco-ciliary escalator works alongside expectoration to remove pathogens from the body
39
What is cystic fibrosis?
Disease in which there is an abnormal transmembrane regulator protein. It leads to progressive lung infection and destruction
40
What is the size, deposition site and mechanism of very large particles?
>8um Nose and pharynx Inertial impaction
41
Why is the size of inhaled particles important?
It impacts the part of the airway on which they act
42
What is the size, deposition site and mechanism of large particles?
3-8um Large airways Inertial impaction
43
What is the size, deposition site and mechanism of small particles?
0.5-3um Deposited in the bronchioles Sedimentation
44
What is the size, deposition site and mechanism of very small particles?
<0.5um Exhaled Diffusion
45
What are large particles in inhaled drug delivery used to treat?
Hay fever
46
What are medium particles in inhaled drug delivery used to treat?
Asthma and COPD
47
What is the function small particles in inhaled drug delivery?
Absorption into the blood
48
What are the non-immunological pulmonary defences?
- physical barrier and removal - chemical barrier inactivation by lysozymes, protease enzymes and anti microbial peptides - alveolar macrophages
49
What are the humoral pulmonary defences?
IgA (nose and large airways) IgG (small airways) IgE (allergic responses)
50
What are the cell-mediated pulmonary defences?
Epithelial cells Macrophages - neutrophils (infection) - eosinophils (allergy)
51
How does CO affect airway physiology?
Decreased O2 carriage
52
How does NO affect airway physiology?
Airway irritation and asthma
53
How does ozone affect airway physiology?
Airway irritation and cough
54
How does particulate matter affect airway physiology?
Lung and systemic inflammatory response
55
what are the 2 pieces of equipment we use to measure compliance and what are they used to measure exactly?
- sprirometry --> measures changes in lung volume | - oesophageal balloon --> measures inter pleural pressure
56
what is barometric pressure
pressure of atmosphere | usually assume is 0
57
what is recoil pressure
tendency for alveoli or lungs to collapse
58
is inter pleural pressure always negative or positive in comparison to atmospheric pressure
negative
59
what does the lung compliance curve measure
difference between alveolar pressure and inter pleural pressure
60
what does opening the glottis do during breathing?
stops air flow and allows alveolar pressure to equilibrate and equal atmospheric pressure (usually 0)
61
lung compliance curve: during maximal expiration with the glottis open what are the Palv, Ppl values and recoil pressure?
Palv = 0 Pb = +3 recoil pressure = +3 NB- compliance wants your lungs to expand
62
lung compliance curve: during end expiration with the glottis open what are the Palv, Ppl values and recoil pressure?
Palv = 0 Pb = -5 recoil pressure = +5
63
lung compliance curve: during peak inspiration with the glottis open what are the Palv, Ppl values and recoil pressure?
Palv = 0 ppl = -30 recoil pressure = +30
64
chest wall compliance: during maximal expiration, closed glottis and relaxed muscles what are the values fro Pbs, Ppl and recoil pressure?
Pbs = 0 Ppl = -30 recoil pressure of chest Wall = -30
65
chest wall compliance: during maximal expiration, open glottis and relaxed muscles what are the values fro Pbs, Ppl and recoil pressure?
Pbs= 0 Ppl = -5 recoil pressure = -5
66
chest wall compliance: during maximal inspiration, closed glottis and relaxed muscles what are the values fro Pbs, Ppl and recoil pressure?
Pbs= 0 Ppl = +3 recoil pressure = +3
67
what is the significance of FRC
relaxation point of respiratory system | point when compliance of lung and chest wall cancel each other out
68
name 3 diseases associated with reduced compliance
pulmonary fibrosis kyphoscoliosis circumferential burn
69
what kind of pulmonary disease is emphysema and how does it affect compliance
- Obstructive pulmonary disease | - increases compliance
70
why does emphysema cause increased compliance ?
increases elastic = less resistance to stretching = increasing compliance
71
how does emphysema effect energy store?
reduces the amount of energy needed to stretch the lung so reduces the amount of energy stored when we breathe out
72
what is closing capacity
where alveoli begin to collapse | alveoli at base of lung more prone to collapse as don't always open as purely ventilated
73
what does surface tension do?
minimises surface area of liquid gas interface, pulls water molcules together - tension directed to centre
74
what is the affect of the phospholipid surfactant in the alveoli
- reduces the surface tension so increases compliance - prevents collapse of alveolar in smaller airways - increases the number of active alveoli in inspiration (surfactant reduces pressure needed to open alveolar at bottom)
75
what are the 2 types of cell in alveoli and what are their functions
type1 - specialised, gas exchange | type2 - produce surfactant
76
why can we get respiratory distress syndrome in neonatal
type 2 alveoli cells not matures as mature between 24-28 weeks or later
77
do smaller or larger alveoli have a larger collapsing pressure
smaller
78
how is pressure equalised between alveoli of different size?
the same amount of surfactant used thinner and more spread in larger alveoli so neither collapses
79
what is hysteresis
the different paths in one cycle compared to another | more pressure is required to inflate the lungs than to deflate them
80
what are the causes of hysteresis
- reduced compliance of the lung | - airway calibers
81
in what way does airway calibre have a major impact on laminar flow?
size of the radius is inversely proportional to resistance | as lung expands less pressure needed to change volume = change in resistance causes hysteresis
82
describe the 2 types of airflow that affect change in pressure
- laminar flow | - turbulent flow
83
what is laminar flow
gas particles moving down parallel to each other
84
what is tubular flow
smaller more branching and air not moving parallel and consistently = lots of collisions - needs more driving pressure than L flow
85
what is the relationship between flow resistance and cross sectional area
promotional
86
is the total cross sectional area larger in the larger or smaller airways
smaller airways | more of the despite being narrower
87
in the larger airways, what are the features of the bronchiole breathe sounds
``` hollow tubular higher pitch louder distinct pause between inspiration and expiration (if this heard in periphery = abnormal) ```
88
in the periphery, what are the features of vesicular breathe sounds?
``` less turbulent flow =more laminar flow slower less harsh soft low pitch ```
89
what 2 things does a vitalograph measure
FVC | FEV1
90
what is FVC
forced vital capacity | volume of air that can be expelled from max inspiration to max expiration
91
what is FEV1
forced expiratory volume in one second | volume of air that can be expelled from max inspiration in the first one second
92
how does obstructive disease effect FVC and FEV1
takes longer to achieve FVC | FEV1 = much less
93
how can we distinguish between OPD and RPD
FEV1/FVC ratio should be <0.7 for obstructive and normal or >0.7 for restrictive
94
what is a Peak Expiratory Flow Rate -PEFR
Way of measuring obstruction only measures expiratory flow rate patients can use at home for asthma or COPD
95
how do we distinguish between asthma and COPD
- measurements of FEV1 and PEFR made before and after inhalation of bronchodilator/salbutamol - airway constriction =reversible in asthma = improves impressively - irreversible airway restriction in COPD = no/little improvement
96
what's dynamic airway collapse
collapse and narrowing of airway during expiration - no matter hoe hard you expire flow occurs at a predictable expiratory Flow rate
97
during what 3 points are the airways not collapsed
pre-inspiration during inspiration end inspiration
98
how are the airways kept open and not collapsed in pre inspiration
Pb = 0 from alveolus Ppl = -5 Palv = 0 pressure gradient out of airway of +5 keeping airway open
99
how are the airways kept open and not collapsed in inspiration
Pb = 0 Ppl = falls to -7 Palv = -2 outward pressure of +6
100
how are the airways kept open and not collapsed in end inspiration
Pb=0 Ppl = -8 outward pressure of +8
101
which one does dynamic airway collapse happen and why
``` forced expiration Pb = 0 thoracic pressure = +30 Palv = +38 midpoint of airway = +19 outward pressure. = - 11 causes dynamic airway collapse ```
102
what is work of breathing
- work needed to overcome resistive forces - the energy used in inspiration used to overcome elastic forces as stored in potential energy which is dissipated in expiration
103
what 2 forces must we overcome for inspiration
- our chest wall has to overcome force of inertia from elastic forces of tissues - frictional/resistive forces of narrow passages - resistance reduces as we expand lungs
104
why does expiration have low/no energy expenditure?
all through natural recoil of elastic tissue of lungs
105
how does the work of breathing change in severe airway narrowing
- huge amount of energy needed for inspiration and expiration - for expiration lungs and chest wall utilise stored energy from inspiration and require additional energy to conclude
106
how does the work of breathing change in lung stiffness
increased work of breathing | reduced compliance so more work needed to overcome elastic forces
107
how is work of breathing reduced in RPD
small rapid breaths in RPD as work very hard for each breath - when there respiratory rate goes up, cant maintain large volumes and can become exhausted
108
how is work of breathing reduced in COPD
large volumes and slow breathes
109
What is rate of diffusion proportional to?
surface area | pressure gradient
110
what layers does gas have to cross in the alveoli
- capillary endothelium - alveolar epithelium - basement layer - surfactant layer
111
what is the pressure gradient of gas exchange dependent on?
partial pressures of respective gases in the alveolus and blood
112
what is the partial pressure of a gas
the pressure it would exert if it was the only gas in the container dependent on the fraction of gas it occupies
113
what is the % fractional concentration of oxygen,CO2, and nitrogen in the air?
``` oxygen = 21% CO2 = 0% nitrogen = 79% ```
114
what is the pp of oxygen,CO2, and nitrogen at sea level?
``` oxygen = 21.3 CO2= 0 nitrogen = 80 ```
115
what is the pp of oxygen,CO2, and nitrogen at 5000m altitude?
``` oxygen = 11.8 CO2 = 0 nitrogen = 44.2 ```
116
how can low partial pressures of oxygen at high altitudes affect us?
- can run out of breathe faster as less oxygen transported around the body
117
why is the partial pressure of oxygen lower in the alveoli than in room air
- inspired air is humidified at in upper airway - CO2 dilutes gas coming in in alveoli - body consumes more oxygen than produces co2 (typically 1.25x)
118
why is it important to humidify air?
as tissues are very moist and we don't want them to dry up as crisp lungs would perform badly
119
why do mouth breather often have a dry mouth
because air is meant to be humidified in nose , so when humidified through mouth leaves mouth dry
120
why does the body consume more oxygen than it produces C02
- we need more oxygen to respire fats and proteins compared to carbs = respiratory quotion - negative pressure build in body, pulling more oxygen in
121
what is the pp of water vapour and how does this change the pp of oxygen in fully humidified air ?
water vapour = 6.3kPa 101.3(total pp of all gases)-6.3kPa x 0.21(% oxygen in air) = 19.95kPa
122
what is the typical value of alveolar pp of CO2
5 kPa
123
if one CO2 molecule was produced for every O2 molecule consumed what would the pp of oxygen be? why is this not the case?
19.95(pp O2) - 5 (pp CO2)= 14.95 kPa | because due to respiratory quotation 1.25x O2 molecules consumed for every CO2 = 19.95-6.25 = 13.7 kPa
124
why does thickening of the diffusion pathway cause major problems?
reduces the rate of gas exchange and so oxygen consumption which has a big impact as through normal physiological process we have already reduced the amount of oxygen significantly
125
does a more soluble gas have a higher or lower PP and why?
lower: dissolves quicker and takes longer to form dynamic equilibrium: more commutable being there so doesnt exert as much pressure to get out
126
does a less soluble gas have a higher or lower PP and why?
higher: | gets to equilibrium faster as wants to get out of solution quicker
127
why is equilibrium important in pp of gases in solution?
once gas gets to equilibrium can exert a pp on the air above solution
128
does greater or lower solubility mean more molecules can be accommodated for for a given pp?
lower solubility
129
do we use lower or higher solubility gases for anaesthesia and why?
lower solubility gases as rapidly equilibrate in lungs and get out of blood to have its effect in the lungs
130
is CO2 more or less soluble than oxygen?
more (x24)
131
what effect does increased solubility of CO2 have?
solution can take more CO2 and release it slower | need a lot more CO2 to exert pp so (that's why gets into blood more and oxygen gets into tissue faster )
132
what is the pp gradient of oxygen and CO2 in the lungs?
oxygen - 8.3 kPa | CO2 - 6.1 kPa
133
why does CO2 equilibrate faster in a healthy person at rest?
O2 has a much larger diffusion gradient as for the same number of molecules Oxygen has to drop by 8kPa whereas CO2 only needs to drop by 0.8 kPa so oxygen takes longer to equilibrate
134
what type of respiratory failure is more common in a healthy person at rest and why
type 1 as blood only needs 0.8kP of CO2 to release enough molecules to counteract oxygen coming in because its far more soluble
135
what is type 1 respiratory failure?
hypoxia | normal CO2
136
what is type 2 respiratory failure?
hypoxia | hypocarbia
137
during exercise does CO2 take more or less time to equilibrate?
less time as blood moving past capillaries faster and the oxygen diffusion gradient increases to 9kPa
138
what type of respiratory failure is more common in someone with pulmonary fibrosis and why
type 1 as even though gas exchange is slower due to the ticketing of the alveoli, still have enough time to equilibrate CO2 as more soluble
139
how can we measure the amount of oxygen in capillaries and why do we use this?
use Carbon monoxide diffusing capacity - Co binds avidly to Hb and not very soluble - so can calc how much going in and out of blood cell and diffusion gradient - so can work out amount of oxygen taken up by single breathe
140
what happens to the alveoli in atelectasis and why?
alveolar collapse as wall thickens so gas cant get to bottom of alveoli
141
why do we get alveolar consolidation in pneumonia ?
alveolar filled with pus and fuss do gas coming in cannot get to the bottom of the alveoli and so increases diffusion time and gas exchange
142
what happens to the alveoli pulmonary edema?
frothy secretions | longer gas exchange
143
what happens to the alveoli in interstitial Edema and why?
lots of fluid accumulates between alveoli and capillary due to leaking membrane
144
what happens to the alveoli in emphysema?
alveolar -capillary destruction = bad gas exchange
145
what happens to the alveoli in alveolar fibrosis?
thickening of alveolar wall
146
what happens to the lungs in atelectasis and what is the major cause for this?
lungs collapsed and lungs compressed and pushed closed due to fat on chest wall heavy, obesity
147
what are the 4 paranasal sinuses?
frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoidal and maxillary
148
what are the role of the sinuses?
with turbulent flow viruses and bacteria can be passed into sinuses and immune response ammounted -> runny nose as they empty into nasal cavity
149
what is the mediastinum?
midline region that encloses heart, major vessels and nerves, trachea, oesophagus
150
how many lobes doe each lung have?
right - 3 | left - 2
151
what are the names for the lobes of the lungs?
superior, inferior and middle (only in right)
152
why does the left lung only have two lobes?
position of heart means it is taller and narrower
153
what is the hilum?
where the arteries, veins and bronchi enter the lungs
154
outline the pathway of the conducting portion
``` trachea primary bronchi lobar (secondary) bronchi segmental (tertiary) bronchi terminal bronchi ```
155
what is the respiratory portion?
branching of terminal bronchioles to to respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs
156
how do pulmonary vessels branch?
like the bronchi - to lungs, to lobes, to segments
157
what are the anatomical divisions of the respiratory system?
upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract
158
what is the demarcation point of URT and LRT?
larynx
159
what are the functions of the thoracic cage?
protection - bony cage around vital organs | respiratory movements - changes in thoracic volume underlie movement of fresh air into lungs and stale air out
160
how many bones are in the sternum?
3
161
how many planes of movement are there for breathing?
3 - vertical, antero-posterior and transvers
162
what is the function of the diaphragm?
- muscular sheet that closes off thoracic outlet (has apertures to allow passage of structures) - comprises radial muscle fibres inserted into central tendon - major role in breathing
163
what is a typical residual volume?
70kg male = 1000ml
164
what is innervation?
nerve provides a stimulus to a muscle
165
what nerves innervate the diaphragm?
phrenic nerves - C3,4,5 in neck region
166
how many muscle layers are in each intercostal space?
3 - external, internal and innermost
167
what comprises the neurovascular bundle?
intercostal nerve, intercostal artery and intercostal vein (VAN)
168
what are pleura?
- 2 membranous sacs that surround each lung | - pleural cavity contains a thin film of liquid to help lungs slide and create surface tension
169
what is the visceral pleura?
membrane in contact with the lungs
170
what is the parietal pleura?
membrane in contact with the thoracic cavity
171
how can we divide the parietal pleura?
cervical - towards the neck costal - ribs diaphragmatic - over the diaphragm mediastinal - towards mediastinum
172
why is the division of the parietal pleura important?
receive sensory innervation from different nerves
173
what is breathing?
the bodily function that leads to ventilation of the lungs
174
what is ventilation?
the process of moving gases in and out of the lungs
175
what is the mechanics of breathing?
describes the structural and physiological bases of ventialtion
176
what are obstructive conditions?
obstruction to flow in airways | - asthma, COPD, lung cancer
177
what are restrictive conditions?
loss of elasticity of lung tissue or thoracic cavity intrinsic - pulmonary fibrosis extrinsic - pneumothorax, thoracic skeleton disorders
178
during inspiration which pressure is larger?
atmospheric>alveolar | but atmosphere always = 0 so need to reduce alveolar
179
during expiration which pressure is larger?
alveolar>atmospheric | need to increase alveolar
180
what is deltaP dependent on?
cycle of pressure changes in the chest
181
what is the relationship between alveolar pressure and thoracic volume?
pressure is inversely proportional to volume
182
during quiet inspiratory breathing what muscles are working?
diaphragm (most important) | external intercostals stabilise rib cage
183
during increased effort inspiratory breathing what muscles are working?
diaphragm external intercostals lift anf expand rib cage accessory muscles - neck and shoulder girdle
184
during quiet expiratory breathing what muscles are working?
elastic recoil of muscles reliant on energy stored by stretching the muscles
185
during increased effort expiratory breathing what muscles are working?
internal intercostals | abdominal wall muscles
186
what nerves innervate the intercostal muscles?
segmental thoracic nerves
187
What is tonic activity?
When a muscle is contracted all the time to maintain muscle tone
188
What is phasic activity?
When a muscle contracts at different stages of the respiratory cycle
189
what is the relationship between thoracic cage expansion and pressure on the intrapleaural space?
increasing negative pressure exerted | - draws lungs with it and need surface tension of liquid
190
which is higher - alveolar or intrapleural pressure?
alveolar
191
what is a pneumothorax?
air in pleural space - lung collapses as loss of surface tension in pleural membrane means lung does not move with thoracic wall
192
what is a pleural effusion?
fluid forms between pleura and thoracic wall
193
how can we measure the volume of air moving in and out during ventilation?
spirometer
194
what is tidal volume?
volume fo air moved in or out of the lungs during normal breathing
195
what is a typical tidal volume at rest?
6-7 ml/kG
196
what is a typical tidal volume during exercise?
15 ml/kg
197
what is inspiratory reserve volume?
maximal inspiratory effort from end expiration (ie after a normal expiration take as deep a breath as possible)
198
what is typical inspiratory reserve volume?
70 kg male = 3000 ml
199
what is expiratory reserve volume?
maximal expiratory effort (after normal inspiration breath out as deeply as possible)
200
what is typical expiratory reserve volume?
70 kg male = 1500 ml
201
why does air remain in the lungs after maximal expiration?
rigid nature of thorax and the pleural attachments of lungs to chest wall prevent complete emptying
202
what is residual volume and can it be measured by spirometry?
volume of air in lungs after maximal expiration
203
what is a typical residual volume?
70kg male = 1000ml
204
how many lung volumes are there?
4 - tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve and residual
205
what is a lung capacity?
combination of volumes
206
what is total lung capacity?
TV+IRV+ERV+RV
207
what is vital capacity?
volume that can be shifted in and out (after maximal inspiration make a maximal expiration) TV+IRV+ERV
208
what is functional residual capacity?
volume of air in lungs after normal breathing | ERV+RV
209
what is a typical vital capacity?
70 kg male = 5000ml
210
how do restrictive lung diseases affect lung volumes?
reduced RV, FRC, VC and TLC
211
how do obstructive lung diseases affect lung volumes?
increased RV COPD = reduced TLC emphysema = increased TLC and FRC
212
How is oxygen carried in the blood?
Dissolved in blood | Bound to haemoglobin
213
How is the volume of oxygen carried in the blood at 37 degrees calculated?
0.0232 x partial pressure of oxygen
214
How many molecules of oxygen can one molecule of haemoglobin carry?
4
215
How is the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin calculated?
(HbO2) / (HHb + HbO2) ``` HbO2 = oxygenated haemoglobin HHb = deoxygenated haemoglobin ```
216
How is the volume of O2 bound to haemoglobin calculated?
SO2 x [Hb] x 1.39 ``` SO2 = oxygen saturation 1.39 = Hüfner constant ```
217
what are the basic units that control respiratory function ?
medulla | pons
218
what feeds into the medulla and pons to act on respiratory function?
cerebellum pituitary thalamus
219
what are the 4 major centres in the medulla that control breathing ?
dorsal respiratory group ventral respiratory group Apneustic center pneuomotaxic center
220
what is the basic respiratory group that is needed to ventilate the lungs?
dorsal respiratory group | all the others input into DRG
221
what does the DRG (Dorsal respiratory group) do
contains neurones which fire during inspiration
222
what does the VRG (ventral respiratory group) do
contains mixed neurones- some which fire during inspiration, some which fire during expiration
223
does the inspiratory nerve activity change during breathing?
yes goes up and down
224
does the expiratory nerve activity change during breathing at rest?
no as its a passive process at rest
225
does the expiratory nerve activity change during breathing in exercise ?
yes as it involves active expiration sue to harder and faster breathing - VRG involved
226
do the VRG and DRG influence each other?
yes - negative feedback each other - as VRG fires = inhibits DRG and visa versa
227
how is VRG involved in expiration
- activation of internal intercostal muscles on expiration = increased rate of expiration = shrinks thoracic wall = air out faster
228
what does the apneustic centre do?
stimulates inspiratory neurones - kicks in when you need to. breathe harder
229
what does the pneuomotaxic centre do?
inhibits inspiratory neurones
230
how can inspiratory activity be depressed?
hypoxia therapeutic drugs inhibition of blood supply
231
what has voluntary control over breathing and where is this located?
higher brain centres | in cerebral cortex
232
what kind of stimuli act through hypothalamus?
pain and emotional stimuli
233
where are stretch receptors located ?
in the lungs
234
where are irritant and cough receptors located
- lungs - throughout airways - upper airways - nose
235
what do chemo receptors do?
stimulate breathing
236
what are the 2 higher brain centre influences ?
cortical and hypothalamic
237
what does the cortical centre of the higher brain centre influence control ?
- voluntary hyperventilation > hypocapnia > alkalosis | - voluntary breath holding > hypoxia > unsustainable
238
what does the hypothalamic centre of the higher brain centre influence control ?
- emotions >anger, anxiety >hyperventilation | - sensory reflexes > pain, cold > gasping (use up oxygen reserves in lungs), hyperventilation
239
why does alkalosis happen in hyperventilation?
breathe off more CO2 | = drop in carbonic acid
240
what is the function of the pulmonary stretch receptor?
prevents over expansion of lungs and so damage
241
how do pulmonary stretch receptors communicate info to medulla?
afferent fibres fro smooth muscle of bronchi and trachea run in vagus nerve to respiratory centre in medulla
242
do the lungs ever expand to their full potential?
no - confounded by thoracic wall = prevents damage
243
when inspiration progresses what impulse do we get from VRG, DRG?
more impulses from VRG | less impulse from drug
244
what is the hering-Breuer lung inflation reflex?
limits breathing frequency (f) x tidal volume (VT)
245
how do irritant and cough receptors send information to medulla?
afferent fibres from these receptors run in vagus nerve and into repository centre - parasympathetic pathway (not much control over this)
246
what do stimulation of these irritant receptors result in?
leads to hyperpnoea/deep inhalation and airway constriction = explosive cough and may contribute to sneeze
247
where muscles are rich in muscle fibres?
diaphragm | intercostals
248
how are muscle/joint receptors and proprioreceptors activated?
by stretch associated with contraction of breathing | NB- increased activation in excersise to
249
how can proprioreceptors influence ventilation?
relay info about activity induced motion which can influence ventilation - feedback from excersise = breathe harder
250
what stimulus do baroreceptors respond to?
BP
251
what influence do baroreceptors have?
can influence ventilation | - increase BP= decrease ventilation- visa era
252
why may we get a drop in BP during moderate exercise?
veins and arteries open up for more blood flow | may increase ventilation
253
what are J receptors and where are they located?
juxtacapillary | lie close to capillaries around alveolar walls
254
what activates J receptors?
traumas: - pulmonary oedema - inflammatory agents - pneumonia
255
what does the activation of J receptors cause?
increases ventilation - breathe harder
256
what are the 2 types of chemoreceptors?
central and peripheral chemoreceptors
257
where are central chemoreceptors found ?
specialised regions close to medulla respiratory centres | also close to rich blood supply
258
what are central chemoreceptors sensitive to?
CO2 and H+ | pick up from ventral surface of medulla
259
is the CO2 sensor of the central chemoreceptor a direct or indirect sensor and why
indirect | CO2 dissolves out of capillary into CSF and combines with water = carbonic acid = dissociated into H+ and bicarb
260
what affect does H+ ions on the central surface of medulla have on the chemorecpetor?
feeds this into medullary respiratory centre and increase respiratory rate/ventialtion and tidal volume
261
what does a rise in CO2 or [H+] cause
fall in pH= acidosis stimulates the central chemoreceptors increases ventilation
262
can both H+ and CO2 cross blood brain barrier?
no only CO2 not acid
263
does the central chemoreceptor respond to metabolic acidosis and if not what does?
no as this is will be a lactate or bacterial event, not CO2 related this will be picked up by peripheral chemoreceptors
264
where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?
carotid and aortic bodies
265
what are peripheral chemoreceptors sensitive to?
hypoxia, hypercarbia and acidosis
266
how do peripheral chemoreceptors send information to respiratory center in the medulla?
sensation at peripheral chemo receptor feeds in from sensory afferent (glossopharyngeal nerve or vagus nerve) and into respiratory centre
267
what stimulus does the gloms cell respond to and how does it send this info to the respiratory centre in the medulla
po2 or CO2 or acidity to signal which then goes along afferent nerve and stimulates medullary centre for respiratory control
268
what is the primary sensor for hypoxia
glomus cell
269
how does hypoxia trigger the gloms cell and how does this cause excitation of the nerve ?
- triggers Ca2+ influx into glomus cells via depolarization | - Ca2+ triggers release of transmitters which initiate action potentials in the afferent nerve
270
which NTs are released from glomus cella= and which ones causing w e excitation of the nerve
dopamine, ATP, acetylcholine | ATP and acetylcholine cause excitation of the nerve
271
In the lung what structure does the endoderm form
Epithelial linning of lungs | ‘C’ shape trachea
272
In the lung what structure does the mesoderm form
Connective structures, eg. Trachea, cartilage smooth muscle
273
What is the respiratory divaticulum, where does it appear and what will it form
Apouchlikestructurethat appears in ventral wall of foregut and will form respiratory system- the lung buds-trachea and larynx
274
At what stage does the respiratory divaticulum start growing and in what direction
Day 22 | Grows venterocaudally
275
How does the respiratory divaticulum Seperate from the foregut and what structure is exempt from this separation
Tracheosophageal ridges develop and meet and so Seperate | Laryngeal inlet is exempt
276
What do the lung buds go onto form
Develop centrally + causally to form bronchioles
277
What is a fistula
Abnormal communication between trachea toesophagus
278
Why do we get fistula's
Incomplete division of foregut into oesophageal and respiratory portions
279
What is the main abnormality associated with tracheoosophageal fistuals
Esophageal atresia (closed /absent)
280
What are the main problems with an oesopnageal fistula
Abdomen distension as stomach can fill with air | Stomach contents can go back up into the trachea-enzymes and acid respiratory not adapted to or food
281
What are the signs associated with oesophageal fistula
Baby choking | Infection from food in trachea
282
What is a h-type traceoospnageal fistula
Abnormal connection between desopnagous and | Trachea
283
In a h-type TOF what is a common problem and why
Infection as due to the force of gravity breast milk more likely end up in respiratory system than oesophagus
284
What other congenital malformations are associated with TOF (acronym)
``` V- vertebral defects A-anal atresia C-cardiac defects T-tracheosophageal fistula E-Eosophageal atresia R-renal abnormalities L- limb defects ```
285
What lines the respiratory divaticulum as it matures
Overlying mesoderm
286
What tissue forms the capillaries
Visceral mesoderm
287
What drives branching of respiratory divaticulum
Signalling between mesoderm + endoderm
288
During week 5 and 6 what do the primary bronchiole form.
Main bronchi secondary bronchi (3r, 2l) | 6th week-ternary bronchi
289
What do the tertiary bronchi supply
Bronchopulmonary segment
290
What is the final branching of respiratory system
Terminal bronchiole and respiratory bronchiole in week 16
291
When do the first alveoli develop
36 weeks
292
What is pulmonary agenesis
Longs fail to form as lung buds fail to Seperate
293
What are the 2 types of pulmonary agenesis
Unilateral (one lung missing) or bilateral
294
What pulmonary agenesis Is incompatible with life
Bilateral
295
What are the problems caused by unilateral pulmonary agenesis
Respiratory distress | lower respiratory tract infection
296
What is pulmonary hypoplasia
All components present but not developed properly
297
What is pulmonary hypoplasia found in association with and what does it cause
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia | Intestinal contents petruded into thorax
298
What are the 4 stages of lung maturation
Pseudoglandular Canalicular Saccular / terminal sac Alveolar
299
What point does Pseudoglandular stage a take place and what happens
5-7 weeks-branching of respiratory tree to form terminal bronchiole
300
Is respiration possible in Pseudoglandular phase
No only connective tissues formed
301
What point does Canalicuiar stage take place and what happens
16-25 weeks Respiratory bronchiole formed and give rise to alveolar ducts Mesodermal tissue becomes highly specialised
302
What point does terminal sac stage take place and what happens
``` 26-birth weeks further development of alveoli Epithelium thins Capillaries come into contact with epithelium Blood air-barrier formed ```
303
What 2 types of cell do the epithelium give rise to
Type 1 pneumocytes - for gases exchange | Type 2 pneumocytes - recreate surfactants
304
Can a premature feotus of befor 25 weeks survive
Given intensive care Dependent on amount of surfactant May suffer respiratory distress
305
When does the alveolar period stop
Age 10 | 95% develop after birth
306
What are the treatments used for insufficient surfactant of baby
Glococortitoid - to mother | surfactant therapy temporary to baby
307
What are the two states of haemoglobin?
Relaxed state - the oxygen binding sites in a crevice are easier to access Tense state - the oxygen binding site is harder to access and oxygen molecules are pushed out
308
Why is haemoglobin described as being cooperative?
When one molecule of haemoglobin it alters the tertiary structure of the protein, making it easier for further molecules of oxygen to bind. Ie once one molecule of oxygen binds, the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen increases.
309
What is the structure of haemoglobin?
4 protein chains - 2 alpha and 2 beta 4 haem groups based around an iron ion (Fe2+). This means one molecule of haemoglobin can bind 4 molecules of oxygen. 141-146 amino acids per chain
310
How can the cooperativity of haemoglobin be demonstrated?
Oxygen dissociation curve has a sigmoid (S) shape
311
What factors affect the oxygen dissociation curve?
pH Temperature Level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate
312
How does pH affect the oxygen dissociation curve?
``` Increased = shifts left Decreased = shifts right ```
313
How does temperature affect the oxygen dissociation curve?
``` Increased = shifts left Decreased = shifts right ```
314
How does 2,3 diphosphoglycerate affect the oxygen dissociation curve?
``` Decreased = left shift Increased = right shift ```
315
What is P50?
When the oxygen saturation is 50%.
316
What is the PO2 and SO2 of arterial blood?
PO2: 12.5 kPa SO2: 97%
317
What is the PO2 and SO2 of venous blood?
``` PO2 = 6.3 kPa SO2 = 75% ```
318
What is the PO2 and SO2 at P50?
``` PO2 = 3.5 kPa (normally) SO2 = 50% ```
319
What are examples of haemoglobin abnormalities?
- absent globin chain in thalassemia - defective globin chain in HbS (sickle cell disease) - defective Fe atom in methaemoglobin - wrong ligand in CO Hb
320
Why are buffers important?
Proteins in the body’s cells are extremely pH sensitive. If the cell is not at the correct pH, it will stop functioning. Therefore, buffers exist to compensate for any change in pH.
321
What is a buffer?
A buffer is a solution that can minimise changes in the free H+ conc and so the pH They are usually weak acids dissolved in solution.
322
How do you calculate pH?
pH = -log10[H+]
323
What are examples of buffers in the blood?
Proteins (carboxyl and amine groups on end of the chain) Basic/acidic side chains of amino acids Specific examples include plasma proteins, haemoglobin, bicarbonate and phosphate
324
what is present within the lamina propria of the olfactory mucosa?
- lymphatic vessels - unmyelinated olfactory nerves - myelinated nerves - olfactory glands
325
When is haemoglobin a more effective buffer?
When it loses oxygen
326
How is carbon dioxide carried in the blood?
- dissolved in blood - as carboamino compounds - as carbonic acid/bicarbonate
327
What is the concentration of CO2 in the blood at 37 degrees?
3 ml per dl of blood
328
How is CO2 carried in the blood as carboamino compounds?
Bound to R-NH2 groups on proteins eg terminal amino acids and side chains of lysine and arginine
329
What concentration of CO2 does carriage by carboamino compounds account for?
4ml per dl of blood
330
What concentration of CO2 in blood does the carriage as carbonic acid/bicarbonate account for?
45 ml of per dl of blood
331
How is carbon dioxide converted into carbonic acid?
Reaction with water catalysed by carbonic anhydrase
332
What is the hamburger shift?
A HCO3- ion is pumped out of the red cell in exchange of a chloride ion
333
What is the Haldane effect?
The ability of deoxygenated blood to carry more CO2 than oxygenated blood
334
What is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?
pH = pK + log10([HCO3-]/[CO2])
335
How does the respiratory system compensate to maintain the acid base balance?
The blood pH regulates ventilation and so controls PCO2 This is a rapid response
336
How does the renal system compensate to maintain the acid base balance?
Excretion of H+ in urine controlled by pH This is a slow response
337
What is alkalosis?
An increased pH
338
What happens in respiratory alkalosis?
Decreased PCO2 | Normal [HCO3-]
339
What is respiratory alkalosis a result of?
Hyperventilation eg due to allergy or iatrogenesis
340
What happens in metabolic alkalosis?
Normal PCO2 | Increased [HCO3-]
341
What causes metabolic alkalosis?
Abuse of antacid remedies which causes the body to rid itself of H+ by vomiting
342
What is acidosis?
A decrease in pH
343
What happens in respiratory acidosis?
Increased PCO2 | Increased [HCO3-]
344
What causes respiratory acidosis?
Ventilatory failure
345
What happens in metabolic acidosis?
Decreased PCO2 | Decreased [HCO3-]
346
What causes metabolic acidosis?
Renal failure such as diabetes, ketoacidosis or shock (tissue perfusion)
347
why is it important to cough
- protective mechanism
348
what is the most common symptom of respiratory disease?
cough
349
what is a useless cough? in what diseases do we see them? should it be suppressed?
- persistant and unproductive - dry cough - asthma, oesophageal reflux, sinusitis - yes - use suppressants = antitussives
350
what is a useful cough? in what diseases do we see them? should it be suppressed?
- expels secretions, produce sputum - chest infections - shouldn't be suppressed
351
is there an exception where a useful cough can be suppressed
yes if its exhausting and dangerous
352
highlight the steps in the stimulation of a cough
- cough receptors or lung irritant receptors respond to chemical and mechanical stimulation/forgein bodies in upper airways - send info via afferent pathways to cough centre in medulla - vagal stimulation initiates cough reflex to muscles involved
353
how do dry cough- cough suppressants effect the afferent side?
reduce the stimuli - stimulate tracheal epithelium to produce more mucous and form a protective layer around the larynx
354
how do dry cough- cough suppressants effect the efferent side?
- suppress it through the medullary cough centre | - use antitussives
355
which dry cough- cough suppressants do we use for: above larynx and below larynx?
- above the larynx- Linctuses (cough syrup) | - below the larynx - steam inhalation (increase mucous secretion)
356
what antitussives do we use, how effective are they? give examples of some of the drugs for these
- opiods: very effective- in cough syrups --> codeine, methadone, pholcodeine - non opiods: less respiratory depression compared to codeine--> dextromethorphan sedatives: dont effect cough, make secretions thicker --> diphenhydramine
357
for a productive cough what are the 2 categories of drugs we use and what are there effects ?
- expectorants --> increase volume of secretion (remove mucous more often) - mucolutics --> decrease viscosity so easier for cilia to clear ( break disulphide bonds in mucous
358
what is the most common symptom complaint in OPD?
chronic cough
359
what are the common causes for a chronic cough?
- upper airways cough syndrome (post nasal drip/ nasal decongestiers) - bronchial asthma (most in morning) - COPD - gastroesophageal reflux disease
360
what are the 3 main factors associated with chronic lung disease and what are their effects ?
- inflammation of airway lining = swelling of airway = narrowing of lumen - bronchoconstriction = constriction of smooth muscle lining airway = further narrowing - secretions = form mucus plugs, decreasing diameter of lumen
361
what are the 4 different types of bronchial asthma?
- asthma associated with allergies reactions (type 1 hypersensitivity) - asthma not associated with specific allergen (intrinsic asthma) - exercise induced asthma - asthma associated with COPD
362
highlight the steps involved in allergen mediated asthma which leads to bronchoconstriction
- exposure of antigen to APC - IgE production from B cell - Mast cell activation -release of mediators = bronchoconstriction
363
what are the main things we can target to treat asthma?
- prevention of Ag:Ab reaction (avoidance of antigen) - dilation of narrowed bronchi - prevention of release of transmitter (mast cell stabilisers) - antagonism of released transmitter (leukotriene receptor antagnosis's) - non specific reduction of bronchial hypersensitivity (when antigen arrives at bronchial epithelium does not reach with antigen same way)
364
what are the main ways we prevent AG:Ab reaction?
- avoidance of allergen | - avoidance of tobacco/ weight reduction
365
what are the 2 main ways we reduce bronchial hypersensitivity non specifically?
1) corticosteroids --> anti-inflammatory | 2) reduced bronchial reactivity
366
how do anti inflammatory's work?
- inhibition of influx of inflammatory cells after exposure - reduced micro vascular leakage: decreased oedema inhibition of release of mediators. ie. cytokines/APC - inhibition of cycloxygenase enzyme = decrease production of prostaglandins
367
does non specific mechanism of reduced bronchial reactivity relax bronchiole smooth muscle?
no as it is has already been constricted therefore has no role in asthmatic attack and just decreases exasperation's
368
what drug is contained in the brown inhaler
inhaled corticosteroids
369
what kind of asthma severity are the inhaled corticosteroids useful for?
- first line regular therapy: mild to moderate asthma | - not useful in severe asthma/asthma attack
370
what kind of asthma severity are the oral corticosteroids useful for?
severe asthma
371
what are the adverse side effects of corticosteroids
- iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (diabetes, hypertension, peptic ulcer, psychosis, delayed puberty) - inhibition of hypothalamic pituitary axis - oropharyngeal candidiasis (fungal infection of mucous membrane of mouth) - hoarseness- direct effect on vocal chords
372
how are the risks of corticosteroids reduced?
- inhalation route - administration in early morning - gargle and spit after every treatment: reduce oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness - cyclesonide: prodrug (only activated in bronchial epithelium)+ when absorbed tightly bound to proteins and so little effect elsewhere/side effects
373
what are mast cell stabilisers, how are they admitted and what are their effects on bronchial smooth muscle?
- inhibit release of mast cell mediators - inhalation (poorly absorbed)- only valuable if taken prophylactically - no effect on bronchial smooth muscle = no use in acute bronchospasm as cant do anything against mediators already released
374
what are the main uses of mast cell stabilisers?
allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis
375
what are the side effects of mast cell stabilisers?
throat irritation, cough (due to left over drugs in mouth), dermatitis, myositis, gastroenteritis
376
what are the 2 leukotriene pathway inhibitors and what do they inhibit?
1) leukotriene synthesis inhibitors --> inhibit enzyme 5 lipoxygenase cycloxygenase 2) leukotriene receptor antagonists --> impair binding of already formed leukor=trine
377
give and example of leukotriene synthesis inhibitor and receptor inhibitor drugs. which has been discontinued and why?
- inhibitors of leukotriene synthesis- Zileuton: discontinued due to liver toxicity - inhibitors of leukotriene receptors - montelukast, zafirlukast
378
how are leukotriene receptor antagonists administered and what are they effective in?
- given orally - allergen induced asthma and exercise ionic asthma -= reduce frequency of exacerbations - not effective in acute asthma
379
what are the side effects of leukotriene receptor antagonists?
headaches, gastritis, flu-like symptoms
380
what is control of bronchial tone dependent on?
muscle tone of smooth muscle present in walls of bronchi
381
what are the 3 drugs that promote bronchodilator and what do they act on?
- beta agonists --> increase adenylcylase = increase cAMP - Theophyline --> inhibit PDE enzyme AND inhibit Adenosine action - Muscarinic antagonists --> acetylcholine inhibition
382
What do the blue inhalers consist of ?
sympathomimetic agents
383
how do sympathomimetic agents act and what are the 2 classes?
via B2 adrenoreceptors - selective B2 agonist agents - non selective
384
what are the 2 different types of selective B2 agonist agents? give examples of some of these 2 types of drugs
- short acting (3-6hrs)- SABA: salbutamol, terbutaline | - long acting (12-24hrs)- LABA: salmetrol, foametrol
385
give an example of a non selective B2 agonist agent drug
adrenaline - used in emergency (as given as subcutaneous injection)
386
what is the most commonly used sympathomimetic agent? how is it administered?
salbutamol | inhalation, nebulisation, oral or intravenous
387
are selective or non selective B2 agonists considered 1st line of therapy? what does this mean?
selective | have direct affect on smooth muscle-immeidate onset
388
what are the side effects of using selective B2 agonists ? why do we get these side effects?
- heart palpitations, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias - muscle tremor restlessness - nervousness = due to there being B2 receptors in the heart, muscle and other tissues
389
how do methylxanthines work (what do they inhibit)?
inhibit action of: - PDE- phosphodiesterase - Adenosine
390
how are methylxanthines administered?
orally | intravenously
391
what are the adverse effects of methylxanthines?
- palpitations - cardiac arthymias - hypotension - gastrointestinal irritation ( increased acid production) - diuresis - anxiety - headaches - seizures
392
what are the two different types of methylxanthines, how are they administered and how are they activated in the body?
- theophylline --> oral, metabolised (saturable metabolism- plasma conc rises rapidly after metabolised), rapid and complete absorption - aminophylline --> intravenous, loading dose then leads to infusion
393
how do anticholinergic agents act and what does this cause?
inhibiting muscarinic receptors -M3 (subtype of acetylcholine receptors) inhibit effects of vagus nerve stimulation
394
what are the 2 catogories of muscarinic antagonist agents? give an example of a drug for these
- LAMA- long acting Muscarinic Antagonists - selective muscarinic antagonist agents - tiotropium - both selective and LAMA
395
what colour inhaler are anticholinergics in what a what are they used for?
blue inhaler | - acute severe asthma (COPD)
396
what are the adverse effects of anticholingerics?
- airway irritation - anticholingeric effects - GI upset - urinary retention
397
what can we use to inhibit binding of IgE to mast cells? what is the downside to this method?
Anti IgE monoclonal antibody - Omalizumab | V expensive
398
what kind of therapy we use to reduce the production and survival eosinophils? what is the downside to this method?
Anti-IL-5 monoclonal antibody | V expensive
399
why do we use Mg in patients who fail to respond to inhaled bronchodilators? why does this work? how do we administer this?
intravenous infusion - Mg has direct action - not specific to bronchi smooth muscle, effects all of the muscles
400
in what severity of asthma do we use ketamine and why?
sevre life threatening asthma | has bronchodilator properties
401
in newly diagnosed asthmatic patients what are the drug recommendations? what do we use if this method does not control?
- newly diagnosed: short acting B2 agonist- SABA - then... low dose Inhaled corticosteroid/ICS - if still uncontrolled... LABA and ICS inhaler therapy
402
how does a tension pneumothorax form?
- tissue where the injury is forms sort of valve, allowing air to enter pleural space but prevents its escape
403
what happens in a tension pneumothorax
valve created = progressive build up of air within pleural space = air can escape into pleural space but not return back = progressive build up of pressure in pleural space = pushes mediastinum to opposite side = results in obstruction to venous return to heart = affects BP and CO2 = life threatening
404
symptoms of tension pneumothorax
- chest pain - chest wall tenderness - breathlessness - dizzy/ lightheaded (as bP low)
405
signs of tension pneumothorax
- tachypnoea = breathing fast - localised bruising - tenderness over ribs (some may be broken) - trachea deviated away from pneumothorax - to left - surgical emphysema - decreased expansion - increased percussion note (empty drum sounds) - decreased breathe sounds - raised central venous pressure
406
what is surgical emphysema ?
- air traps under skin in connective tissue = swelling
407
procedure for tension pneumothorax?
- put chest drain in ( relives pressure = lung expands) | - if no chest drain = use needle
408
in who does the risk of a tension pneumothorax recurrence increase? when does this risk of recurrence normally go down in an average person?
- those with co -existing lung conditions | - risk doesn't significantly decrease until one year later
409
what are the risk factors for a primary spontaneous pneumothorax?
- smoking | - fam history
410
what are the risk factors for a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?
- COPD - CF ect.
411
what do spontaneous pneumothorax's arise from?
rupture of small sub-pleural bebs = weaknesses in actual lung
412
what is the risk of recurrence after 1st and 2nd spontaneous pneumothorax?
- after 1st = 10% | - after 2nd + 40%
413
what 2 regions is the nasal cavity divided into?
respiratory region | olfactory region
414
what type of mucosa lines the respiratory and olfactory regions of the nasal cavity?
respiratory mucosa | olfactory mucosa
415
what does the olfactory mucosa consist of?
lamina propria | olfactory epithelium
416
what type of epithelial cells are the olfactory epithelium
pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
417
what do the olfactory epithelium consist of?
- olfactory receptor cells - sustentacular (supporting) cells - basal cells
418
what are bowman's glands and what do they secrete ? why is this secretion useful
branched tubulalveolar serous glands which secrete protein rich mucous onto olfactory surface via ducts - acting as solvent for scent molecules in inspired air
419
what kind of epithelium is the nasopharynx lined with?
pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
420
what kind of epithelium is the oropharynx and laryngopharynx lined with? why is this type of epithelium advantageous?
- non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium - as oro and laryngopharyx ahem are shared passages for air, food and water multiple layers of flat cells means the epithelium can withstand the loss of the superficial layer without damage to the integrity of the epithelial layer
421
what 2 types of epithelium line the larynx ? where are these epithelium in the larynx and does the location explain their structure?
- stratified squamous epithelium - overlying vocal folds = subject to extreme vibrations = adapted to cope with attrition of its surface - pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium= above vocal folds = not have to cope with attrition to surface
422
what is ventilation?
movement of gases in and out of the lungs through the airways (L/min)
423
what is perfusion?
blood flow through blood vessels through any organ (mL/min)
424
in which area of the lung are the alveoli largest?
apical alveoli 4 times larger than basal due to gravity
425
which alveoli can expand more?
basal alveoli (think of slinky)
426
which region of the lung has better ventilation?
basal
427
what is the functional supply of pulmonary circulation?
oxygenation of venous blood - main blood supply to the lungs
428
what is the structural supply of pulmonary circulation?
nutrition to the lung (also bronchial circulation) bronchial artery from thoracic aorta 2% of cardiac output
429
is pulmonary circulation at lower of higher pressure compared to systemic circulation?
very low pressure | walls are thinner with less elastic tissue and muscles but can stretch to hold lots of blood
430
what are extra-alveolar vessels?
pulmonary artery splits into smaller branches following division of airway - extra-alveolar are in the lung parenchyma
431
where does gas exchange start?
smaller arterioles/ bronchioles
432
how many pulmonary veins are formed from the pulmonary venules?
4
433
how is perfusion in the lungs affected by emphysema?
widespread destruction and dilation of distal airway regional destruction of vascular beds poor gas exchange and hypoxia
434
where is the highest hydrostatic pressure in the lungs?
basal - fastest flow
435
how is the diameter of extra-alveolar vessels controlled?
affected by lung volume and pull of lung parenchyma
436
what is starlings resistor?
a sealed box with a rigid tube entering (P us) and exiting it (P ds), with a collapsible segment inside (P out)
437
would there be flow when Pout>Pus>Pds?
no as P us < P out so the collapsable segment is compressed
438
would there be flow when Pus>Pout>Pds?
yes as Pus>Pout, but still a little bit of compression of collapsable segment
439
would there be flow when Pus>Pout
yes as Pus>Pout - less compression of collapsible segment due to larger Pds
440
when applying starlings resistor to the lungs, what would each bit represent?
Upstream tube = P aterial (hydrostatic pressure at end of capillary) Pressure in box = P alveolar (gaseous pressure inside) Downstream tube = P venous Collapsible segment = alveolar vessel
441
what happens in zone 1 of the lungs?
towards the top (very small area in healthy people) - alveolar dead space - good ventilation but no perfusion as blood vessels collapse
442
what are the differences in pressure in zone 1?
P alveolar> P arterial> P venous
443
what happens in zone 2 of the lungs?
recruitment zone - lower down the lung - higher P arterial due to higher hydrostatic pressure - recruitment of more alveolar unit especially in systole
444
what are the differences in pressure in zone 2?
P arterial> P alveolar> P venous
445
what change in pressure does a haemorrhage cause?
drop in P arterial --> lower than P alveolar
446
what change in pressure does positive pressure ventilation cause?
rise in P alveolar --> higher than P arterial
447
what happens in zone 3 of the lungs?
distension zone - lung bases - hydrostatic forces raise P arterial and P venous above P alveolar - continuous blood flow, determines by difference in P arterial and P venous
448
what is the differences in pressure in zone 3?
P arterial> P venous> P alveolar
449
what is the ventilation perfusion mismatch?
V/Q ratio - ideally would be 1 as ventilation and perfusion are equal varies from 3.3 at apex to 0.6 at base
450
what is a normal average V/Q ratio?
0.8
451
what is dead space and its V/Q?
Part of each breath that does not participate in gas exchange - good ventilation - no/ poor perfusion - V/Q is infinite or very high
452
what is physiological dead space equal to?
anatomic dead space + alveolar dead space
453
what is anatomic dead space?
conducting airways where no gas exchange takes place
454
what is alveolar dead space?
unperfused or poorly perfused alveoli
455
what is a pulmonary embolism and its effect on dead space?
blood clot from deep veins travels to pulmonary arteries - causes severe hypoxia - lack of blood supply to that part of lung - enlarged alveolar dead space
456
what is a shunt?
deoxygentaed blood reaching left side of the heart by bypassing lungs or failing to get oxygenated - eg in pneumothorax or with age
457
what is the V/Q of a shunt?
no/poor ventilation good perfusion V/Q = 0 or very low