BSC + CCS: WK1-2 Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
the CNS ischaemic response:
a) increases cardiac output
b) increases peripheral vasoconstriction
c) activates the sympathetic nervous system
d) all of the above
A
d
2
Q
pleuritic pain is felt often in all but:
a) costal pleura to chest (T2-6)
b) mediastinal pleura to shoulder tip (C4)
c) diaphragmatic pleura central to shoulder tip and peripheral to anterior abdominal wall
d) felt in all of the above
A
d
3
Q
what is the primary difference between regurgitation and stenosis of valves?
A
regurgitation –> valve is leaking and not shutting properly and enabling backflow
stenosis –> narrow so little blood is getting through
4
Q
which of these regarding shock is false?
a) failure of circulatory system
b) insufficient tissue perfusion
c) insufficient oxygen and nutrients to sustain aerobic metabolism
d) none of the above
A
d
5
Q
true or false: decrease in blood pressure causes a decrease in the baroreceptor flex and thus an increase in SNS response and MAP
A
true
6
Q
normal pH is around:
a) 7
b) 7.2
c) 7.4
d) 7.6
A
c
7
Q
the easiest way to distinguish between the internal and external carotid arteries are:
A
external artery will have lots of branches coming off it
8
Q
anastomoses is:
a) a connection or opening between mulitple things that are normally diverging, with an intervening capillary bed
b) a connection or opening between two things that are normally diverging, with an intervening capillary bed
c) a connection or opening between multiple things that are normally diverging, without an intervening capillary bed
d) a connection or opening between two things that are normally diverging, without an intervening capillary bed
A
d
9
Q
The three branches of the left coronary artery are:
A
circumflex, marginal, left anterior descending (interventricular) artery
10
Q
the coeliac trunk is found at __, the superior mesentery artery is found at ___ ,the inferior mesenteric artery is at ___ and the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is at ___
A
T12, L1, L3, L4
11
Q
deep cardiac pain is:
a) dull and poorly localised
b) dull and well localised
c) sharp and poorly localised
d) sharp and well localised
A
a
12
Q
true or false: flow autoregulation is the local regulation of vessel daimeter, indepenent of signals from the CNS or hormones. this response prevents too much blood flowing through a region
A
true
13
Q
True or false: mycobacterium tuberculosis is bacillus shaped and requires acid-fast staining to visualise
A
true
14
Q
apart from blood loss, what is another cause of low stroke volume shock?
A
shift of plasma into the tissues –> loss of interstitial fluid (burns)
15
Q
true or false: the right atrium is smooth
A
true
16
Q
how many pulmonary veins drain into the left atrium?
A
4
17
Q
true or false: in response to shock, the endocrine system predominates over the nervous system
A
false
18
Q
fossa ovalis is found in the:
a) right atrium
b) right ventricle
c) left atrium
d) left ventricle
A
a)
19
Q
which statement is false?
a) the longer the vessel, the slower the blood flow
b) blood closest to the vessel wall will experience the most resistance and thus the velocity at those points is lower
c) the smaller the the diameter of the vessel, the greater the proportion of the blood that experiences the most resistance and thus there is a reduced flow rate
d) none of the above are false
A
d
20
Q
The lub sound is caused by:
a) semilunar valves opening
b) semilunar valves closing
c) AV valves opening
d) AV valves closing
A
d) (isovolumetric contraction)
21
Q
during ventricular filling (mid-to-late diastole), the semilunar valves are open/closed
A
closed
22
Q
which two organs have a local buffering response to autoregulate blood flow?
A
kidneys and brain
23
Q
septic shock is caused by:
a) either low stroke volume or reduced total peripheral resistance due to sepsis
b) low stroke volume due to sepsis
c) increased system-wide vasodilation and reduced total peripheral resistance
d) loss of interstitial fluid and reduced total peripheral resistance
A
c
24
Q
the common carotid artery splits into the internal and external carotid arteries at:
a) superior to clavicle
b) approximately 2cm under the manidibular
c) origin of laryngeal nerve (C2)
d) thyroid cartilage (C4)
A
d
25
true or false: anti-diuretic hormone stimulates secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex which causes the renal tubules to increase reabsorption of sodium and thus water, whilst at the same time causing excretion of potassium (electrolyte balance).
false: angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone
26
Which of these is FALSE regarding staphylococcus aureus?
a) systemic infections
b) grape-like cocci clusters
c) gram positive
d) airborne
d) requires direct contact
27
ventricular ejection (mid-to-late systole) is identified by:
a) AV valves shutting
b) semilunar valves opening
c) ventricular pressure \> aortic and pulmonary arterial pressure
d) B & C
e) all of the above
d
28
true or false: vasomotor activity of the sympathetic nervous system reaches all parts of the body and therefore controls smooth muscle contraction of the vessels to increase heart rate
true
29
true or false: the marginal artery is a weak link at the junction of the foregut and midgut, 2/3 along the transverse colon
false: its between the midgut and hindgut
30
pulse pressure is:
difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
31
if the ductus arterosus fails to become the ligamentum arterosum, what happens?
a) oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins will directly connect to the aorta
b) narrowing of the aorta with hypertension
c) deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary arteries will directly enter the aorta
d) oxygenated blood in the left atrium will mix with deoxygenated blood in the right atrium
c
32
true or false: when arteries divide into terminal branches, the larger branch tends to eb more directly in line with the main trunk adn teh smaller branch is at a smaller angle
false: smaller branch is at a larger angle
33
in the early stages of shock (minutes to hours), what dominates?
secretion of soluble agents to increase vasomotor tone and increase blood volume
- angiotensin RAAS system
- ADH
34
True or false: Chronic infection requires a specific agent of substantial virulence exposed toa susceptible host in an appropriate dose
false: this is true of ALL infectious disease
35
The tricuspid valve is between the
right atrum and ventricle
36
Why are portal systems different to other veins?
capillary beds pool into another capillary bed, instead of going to the heart
37
true or false: an anatomical end artery has no true anastomoses with another artery other than potential anastomoses via arterioles
false: this is functional
38
inotropic factors affect muscle contraction by:
a) blocking calcium and magnesium exchange channels
b) increasing or impeding calcium flow into cells
c) blocking cell-cell electrical signallling
d) dampening sympathetic nervous system
b
39
true or false: the right aurcile is smooth
false
40
normally [Na] is around:
a) 80mM
b) 150mM
c) 120mM
d) 200mM
b
41
true or false: standard precautions are a basic practice that you assume any body, fluid, or blood is potentially contaminated
true
42
Does the heart go lub dub or dub lub?
lub dub
lub (blood into ventricles)
dub (blood leaving ventricles)
43
cardiogenic shock is:
a) a failure of the pump activity of the heart
b) blockage of a coronary artery
c) physical damage to the heart
d) all of the above
a
44
True or false: chronic infections have a long duration
true
45
true or false: the majority of crystalloid solution administered remains in the intravascular space
false: only 1/3 does
46
the right atrium lies:
a) anteriorly
b) posterolaterally
c) anterolaterally
d) posteriorly
c
47
which of these is false regarding colloids:
a) risk of renal injury
b) less likely to cause oedema
c) expands plasma volume
d) lower risk of hypoercloremia and acidosis
d
48
superficial cardiac pain is:
a) dull and well-localised
b) dull and poorly localised
c) sharp and well-localised
d) sharp but poorly localised
c
49
Match the correct definitions with their names: Coccus, Bacillus, Vibrio, Coccobacillus, Spirillum, Spirochete
a) short rod
b) spiral
c) round
d) long, loose, helical spiral
e) curved rod
f) rod
Coccus (c)
Bacillus (f)
Vibrio (e)
Coccobacillus (a)
Spirillum (b)
Spirochete (d)
50
a fall in pO2 and a rise in arterial pCO2 leads to:
a) increase in the rate and depth of respiration
b) increase stroke volume
c) increase in total peripheral resistance
d) all of the above
a
51
isometric relaxation is identified by:
a) no change in total blood volume
b) semilunar valves opening
c) AV valves opening
d) ventricular pressure \< atrial pressure
a)
ventricular pressure \< arterial pressure
AV valves will open when when atrial pressure is greater than ventricular again (mid-to-late diastole)
52
True or false: Acute infections have a rapid onset that lasts for a relatively short time
true
53
true or false: inotropic drugs alter the end diastolic volume but not the stroke volume
false: EDV stays the same but stroke volume increases
54
which of these is not a factor of venous valve incomptence:
a) collection of blood in superficial vein
b) damaged valve cusp
c) reversed venous flow
d) all are a factor
d
55
True or false: hand hygiene is one of the standard precautions
true
56
true or false: ventricular pressure has large changes, unlike atrial pressure
true
57
Deoxygenated blood from the brain is principally transmitted by which vessel(s)?
1. Carotid sinus
2. Greater cardiac vein
3. Subclavian veins
4. Azygous vein
5. Internal jugular veins
e
58
which of these has the largest ratio of thickness to lumen?
a) muscular arteries
b) arterioles
c) elastic arteries
d) all are the same
b
59
what happens during the later stages of shock?
a) capillary fluid shifts causing net increase in fluid retention
b) SNS system is activated
c) soluble agents are released
d) all of the above
a
60
the _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_ are found in the inner wall of teh aurcicular appendage of the right atria
musculi pectinate
61
when will you start noticing a fall in blood pH and haemostasis (sludge blood)?
a) reversible
b) progressive
c) irreversible
d) any of the above stages
b
62
Myocardial referred pain is often felt in all except:
a) retrosteral (T2-5)
b) shoulder tip (C4)
c) inner aspect of arm (T1)
d) atypical pain e.g. jaw or neck
b
63
The crista terminalis are a smooth surface of the heart muscle attached to the _____ pectinate. It is externally noted by the ______ \_\_\_\_\_
musculi, termina sulcus
64
the carotid sinus/body is a cluster of chemoreceptor cells on the adventitia of the birfurcation of the common carotid artery. It detects changes in pH of blood/blood pressure and is also sensitive to decreases in partial pressure of O2.
body, pH of blood
65
the two main branches of the right coronary artery are:
marginal artery, posterior descending (interventricular) artery
66
trabecular carnae are rounded and irregular muscles that increase contractility and stroke work. Where are they found?
ventricles
67
true or false: the greatest drop in blood pressure occurs across arterioles. Blood pressure is regulated here by the parasympathetic system
false: first half true, second half is sympathetic not parasympathetic
68
central venous pressure is equivalent to:
a) preload
b) MAP
c) pressure in the right atrium
d) total peripheral resistance
c
69
True or false: the aortic valve can be ausculated on the right side of the chest between the 2nd and 3rd rib and the pulmonary valve can be ausculated on the left side
true
70
cardiac output (L/min) is:
a) volume of blood that enters the aorta each minute
b) the same as stroke volume
c) equivalent to end diastolic volume
d) all of the above
a) CO = Heart Rate x Stroke volume
71
the common hepatic artery breaks up into which two major arteries?
gastroduodenal artery, proper hepatic artery
72
which arteries primarily supply the brain?
internal carotid
73
true or false: both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves send signals to the atria and ventricles
false: sympathetic sends to both, pararsympathetic only to atria
74
match the definitions and names: foregut, midgut, hindgut
a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) super mesenteric artery
c) coeliac trunk
foregut (a)
midgut (b)
hindgut (a)
75
true or false: during ventricular filling (mid-to-late diastole), the atria contract and the ventricles relax
false: both are completely relaxed
76
In capillaries, fluid exits the arteriole/venous end because pressure is greater here and thus fluid comes in at the arteriole/venous end because pressure is lower here.
arteriole, venous
77
what are the three branches of the coeliac trunk and main areas they supply?
a) left gastric artery (oesophagus and upper stomach)
b) splenic artery (spleen, lower portion of stomach, pancreas)
c) common hepatic (liver)
78
which anatomical landmark does the transition from the external iliac artery to teh femoral artery occur?
a) head of femur
b) inguinal ligament
c) pelvic outlet
d) anterior superior iliac spine
e) pubic ramus
b
79
is a N95 respiratory mask required for droplet infections?
no, only for airborne. surgical mask is fine
80
true or false: pressure variation becomes larger closer to the end of the systemic circuit
false: the variation gets smaller
initially large gap between systolic and diastolic, but it gets smaller the further away from the left ventricle you get
81
which of these statements is true?
a) flow rate is proportional to pressure gradient
b) flow rate is inversely proportional to length of the vessel
c) vessel radius4 is inversely proportional to flow rate
d) all are true
d
82
Gram positive bacteria stain purple/pink and have a thick/thin peptidoglycan layer with/without an outer membrane
purple, thick, without
83
which of these is false regarding sinusoids:
a) modified endothelium with macrophages
b) increased permeability
c) wide lumen and sluggish flow
d) no basement membrane
a) its phagocytes
84
which coronary artery side is most dominant?
right in about 80% of people
85
hyperaemia is increased blood flow to a region. Which of these definitions is functional hyperaemia and which is reactive hyperaemia
a) due to the increased activity of the organ e.g. gut after a meal, there is an increase consumption of oxygen and increased production of carbon dioxide. The drop and rise in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels respectively trigger local vasodilation.
b) where there is a temporary cessation in blood flow to a site. This means there is no replenishment of oxygen and carbon dioxide accumulates. These trigger local vasodilation when blood flow is restored e.g. capillary refill like when you push on your hand.
a) functional
b) reactive
86
Gram negative bacteria stain purple/pink and have a thick/thin peptidoglycan layer with/without an outer membrane
pink, thin, with
87
afterload is:
arterial pressure that the ventricles work against during the ejection period (resistance from the arterial vessels)
88
what are the three clinical stages of shock?
compensated/reversible
progressive
irreversible
89
the main purpose of the moderator band in the right ventricle is:
a) required for conduction purposes
b) carries bundle of His
c) connect to anterior papillary muscles
d) all of the above
d
90
what are the five features required for infectious disease to occur?
1. Agent
2. Exposure
3. Virulence
4. Dose
5. Susceptibility
91
what arteries supply the legs?
external iliac arteries
92
Which of these is false?
a) larger arteries do not have venae comitantes
b) pulsations of arteris aid venous return
c) valve cusps of venous valves help prevent backflow
d) tensing of the muscles reduces venous return
d) increases it
93
the superficial palmar arch is formed by the radial/ulnar artery and the deep branch of the radial/ulnar artery
ulnar, radial
94
true or false: the volume of blood during isometric contraction doesn't change, but the ventricles are contracting
true
95
Where is the moderator band located?
a) left atrium
b) left ventricle
c) right atrium
d) right ventricle
d
96
what is the role of chordae tendinae?
connects to papillary muscles to prevent backflow into atrium
97
where do you pierce to relieve a pneumothorax?
above the rib below (avoid neurovascular bundle)
98
change in pressure gradient is equivalent to:
a) mean arterial pressure - central venous pressure
b) systolic - diastolic pressure
c) pressure in the right atrium
d) mean arterial pressure - total peripheral resistance
a
99
colonisation is:
a) growth of an organism wihtout a host reaction
b) growth of an organism accompanied by a host reaction
c) growth of an organism with potential for host reaction
d) none of the above
a
100
the femoral artery turns into the popliteal artery at:
popliteal fossa (back of knee)
101
Arteries have ____ main layers. The ____ is the deepest and made of connective tissue lined with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The media is the middle layer and made of _____ muscle. The _______ is the most superficial layer and is made of fibrous tissues.
three, intima, endothelium, smooth, adventitia
102
true or false: the internal carotid arteries have no branches in the neck
true
103
during late diastole:
a) the atria relax
b) the atria contract
c) the ventricles contract
d) the ventricles relax
b
104
which system regulates the atria?
a) sympathetic
b) parasympathetic
b - reduces rate of action potential to the atria and thus lowers CO
105
the axillary artery turns into the brachial artery at:
a) lateral border of first rib
b) upper border of teres major
c) lower border of teres major
d) just above the elbow joint
c
106
true or false: pressure falls along the arterial system due to loss of energy due to the resistance of flow
true
107
true or false: superficial pain can be referred according to the surface map due to convergence of afferent fibres on the same spinal segment from a dermatome
false: this is deep pain
108
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is:
a) 2/3 diastolic BP + 1/3 systolic BP
b) 2/3 diastolic BP + 1/2 systolic BP
c) 1/3 diastolic BP + 2/3 systolic BP
d) 1/3 diastolic BP + 1/2 systolic BP
b
109
the carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery and is a baroreceptor/chemoreceptor which detects changes in pH of blood/blood pressure.
baroreceptor, blood pressure
- detects changes in arterial wall distention
110
what are the three types of shock due to total peripheral resistance?
1. septic
2. anaphylactic
3. neurogenic
111
true or false: infundibulum in the heart is smooth
true
112
The foramen ovale closes after birth to form the:
a) septum primum and limbus in the left atrium
b) septum primum and limbus in the right atrium
c) fossa ovalis in the left atrium
d) fossa ovalis in the right atrium
d
113
the dorsal pedis artery arises from the _____ artery and begins at the _____ joint
anterior tibial, ankle
114
Q= deltaP/R is equivalent to:
a) EDV-ESV
b) CO= MAP/TRP
c) MAP = 2/3 Diastolic BP - 1/2 Systolic BP
d) MAP = 2/3 Diastolic BP + 1/2 Systolic BP
b
115
what happens if we did not have the Frank-Starling mechanism?
a) excess blood remains in the ventricles
b) cardiac output is reduced
c) aortic regurgitation
d) nothing
a
116
what are the three types of low stroke volume shock?
1. hypovolemic
2. cardiogenic
3. obstructive
117
The mitral valve has how many leaflets? Where is it located?
two leaflets, between the left atrium and ventricle
118
true or false: ringer's lactate solution is appropriate if an acute brain injury is suspected
false
119
true or false: the internal carotid artery mainly supplies the brain, whilst the external carotid artery mainly supplies the face
true
120
true or false: the carotid sinus baroreceptors are responsive to both increases and decreases in arterial presure, while aortic arch baroreceptros are only responsive to increase in arterial pressure
true
121
preload is synoymous with:
a) stroke volume
b) ESV
c) EDV
d) cardiac output
c) degree of distention of the ventricle prior to systole and therefore is the same as end diastolic volume
122
what is the relationship called between stroke volume and end diastolic volume?
Frank-Starling Mechanism
increased filling/EDV \> increase in force of contraction \> increase in stroke volume
123
pericardial referred pain is often felt in:
a) retrosteral (T2-5)
b) shoulder tip (C4)
c) inner aspect of arm (T1)
d) atypical pain e.g. jaw or neck
b
124
true or false: end arteries do not anastomose
true
125
true or false: blood mainly travels through the deep venous veins
false: superficial
126
the CNC ischaemic response occurs when:
a) MAP is decreased
b) arterial pressure is greater than intracranial pressure
c) arterial pressure is less than intracranial pressure
d) MAP is increased
c
127
the subclavian artery turns into the axiallary artery at:
a) lateral border of first rib
b) upper border of teres major
c) lower border of teres major
d) just above the elbow joint
a
128
stroke volume is: (+ formula)
SV =EDV-ESV (~70mL is normal)
volume of blood pumped from the left ventricle per beat.
129
central venous pressure is considered equivalent to:
a) left atrial pressure
b) right atrial pressure
c) SVC
d) IVC
b
130
A 65-year-old patient has been brought into the hospital for a STEMI. The interventional cardiologist wishes to put a stent into the Left Coronary Artery (LCA). The cardiologist asks you to outline the arterial pathway of the guidewire to be inserted (they wish to begin at the femoral artery).
**Femoral artery --\> external iliac artery --\> common iliac artery --\> abdominal aorta --\> thoracic (descending) aorta --\> arch of aorta --\> ascending aorta --\> left coronary artery**
131
how does anti-diuretic hormone work in the case of lowered MAP?
increases water retention in the kidneys (and Na retention) --\> this causes increase in MAP and BP
132
true or false: baroreceptors in the carotid sinus are an example of a buffer reflex. they can decrease SNS output and increase PSNS output to reduce MAP in the case of high blood pressure
true
133
list the sequealae of of hypovolemic shock in order from blood volume drops:
1. reduced end-diastolic volume
2. reduced cardiac output
3. reduced stroke volume
4. reduced venous return
5. reduced MAP
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
134
true or false: the papillar muscles contract shorter after ventricular systole (emptying) to prevent regurgitation of blood
false: contract before
135
The dub sound is caused by:
a) semilunar valves opening
b) semilunar valves closing
c) AV valves opening
d) AV valves closing
b) isometric relaxation
136
the deep palmar arch is formed by the radial/ulnar artery and the deep branch of the radial/ulnar artery
radial, ulnar
137
The hepatic portal vein drains blood from ______ mesenteric, _______ mesenteric and the ______ vein to the liver This blood is nutrient _____ and oxygen \_\_\_\_\_. The veins leaving the liver and forming the IVC are called the _____ veins.
superior, inferior, splenic, rich, poor, hepatic
138
early systole is identified by:
a) ventricular pressure \> atrial pressure
b) All valves shut
c) ventricular pressure \< aortic and puolmonary arterial pressure
d) all of the above
d) artial pressure \< ventricular pressure \< aortic pressure
139
the flow rate is equivalent to:
a) MAP
b) cardiac output
c) arterial pressure
d) change in pressure gradient
b
140
what are the three major ways of infection transmission?
1. droplets
2. contact
3. airborne
141
which type of muscle contains the most anastomoses?
a) skeletal
b) cardiac
c) smooth
d) all contain roughly equal amounts
a
142
isometric relaxation occurs during:
a) mid-to-late diastole
b) early-to-mid diastole
c) early diastole
d) late diastole
c
143
true or false: deep vein thrombosis is due to pooling of blood into venous sinuses when the muscles are inactive (muscle venous pump)
true
144
what are the three features of varicose veins?
elongated, tortuous, dilated
145
What are the two distinct blood systems in the cardiovascular system?
a. systemic
b. pulmonary
146
In capillaries, hydrostatic pressure decreases/increases from arterial to venous end and is opposed by osmotic pressure which draws in/pushes out fluid.
decreases, draws in
147
oeseophageal pain is often felt in:
a) retrosternal (T2-5)
b) shoulder tip (C4)
c) costal pleura to chest (T2-6)
d) none of the above
d) lower sternum T4-6
148
which of these is false regarding end-systolic volume:
a) volume of blood in a ventricle at the end of contraction (systole)
b) lowest volume of blood in a ventricle at any time of the cardiac cycle
c) it a measurement of the adequacy of cardiac emptying
d) all of the above are true
d
149
Which of these is NOT a feature of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a) gram positive
b) cocci clusters
c) airborne
d) causes scarlet fever
b) it is single file cocci lines
150
capillaries are intrinsically present in ________ tissue only
a) ectoderm-derived
b) ectoderm-derived
c) mesoderm-derived
d) present in all
c
151
what is Ohm's law?
Q= deltaP/R
Q = flow rate (L/min)
P = pressure gradient (mmHg)
R = resistance to flow
152
list the four main phases of the heart in order:
1. ventricular ejection
2. isovolumetric contraction
3. isovolumetric relaxation
4. ventricular filling and atrial systole
4, 2, 1, 3
153
which is true regarding angiotensin?
a) increases vasoconstriction and thus MAP
b) is activated by an increase in MAP and increases urinary output
c) activates water retention in the kidneys
d) all of the above
a
angiotensin works on endothelial cells in vessel walls
154
which of these is true regarding end-diastolic volume?
a) it increases the preload of the heart by causing greater distention of the ventricle
b) a large value indicates heart failure
c) it is a measurement of blood left in the ventricle directly after ejection
d) it is equivalent to atrial systolic volume
a)
volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of filling (diastole)
155
obstructive shock is:
a) a failure of the pump activity of the heart
b) blockage in circulation of blood
c) physical damage to the heart
d) all of the above
b
156
which two veins are tributaries of the hepatic portal vein?
a) superior mesenteric vein + inferior mesenteric vein
b) commin iliac vein + superior mesenteric vein
c) splenic vein + superior mesenteric vein
d) splenic vein + inferior mesenteric vein
e) common iliac vein + inferior mesenteric vein
c
the inferior mesenteric vein drains into the splenic vein
157
which stage of shock has a dangerous positive feedback loop?
progressive
158
list the three main branches off the arch of the aorta
brachiocephalic branch splits into right common carotid and right subclavian artery
left common carotid
left subclavian artery
159
Candida albicans is a gram-\_\_\_\_\_\_ fungus
positive
160
Sinusoids are located in:
a) bone marrow
b) spleen
c) liver
d) all of the above
d
161
what are the three branches that come off the subclavian artery?
1. vertebral
2. internal thoracic
3. thyrocervical
162
the vertebral artery occurs lateral/medial to the anterior scalene muscle. it ascends posteriorly/anteriorly through the neck via the holes in the transverse processes of the _______ vertebrae and enters the cranium via the foramen magnum where it converges to form the _____ artery
medial, posteriorly, cervical, basilar
163
true or false: vertebral arteries give off branches that supply the neck
false
164
where do the internal thoracic arteryes and posterior intercostal arteries originate?
internal thoracic - off the subclavian artery
posterior intercostals - directly off thoracic descending aorta to each intercostal space, minus the first two
165
the brachial artery gives off the deep brachial artery which:
a) runs deep to the triceps with radial nerve
b) runs deep to triceps with ulnar nerve
c) runs deep to biceps with radial nerve
d) runs deep to biceps with ulnar nerve
a
166
which artery supplies the thumb?
radial artery
167
which artery gives off the common digital arteries?
ulnar artery.
radial supplies thumb
168
at what landmark does the common carotid artery split?
C4 thyroid cartilage
169
the femoral pulse is found at:
a) midpoint between pubic tubercle and ASIS
b) mid inguinal point (midpoint of ASIS to pubic symphysis)
c) 1/3 between pubic tubercle and ASIS
d) 1/3 between ASIS and pubic symphysis
b
the femoral artery emerges at a
170
which artery supplies the thigh?
deep femoral artery
171
true or false: the deep femoral artery courses between teh adductor magnus via the adductor hiatus and anastomoses with popliteal arteries
true
172
the anterior tibial artery gives off the posterior tibial artery and the peroneal artery. describe the orientation of these two arteries
posterior tibial runs medio-posteriorly
peroneal runs latero-posteriorly
173
list all the veins that drain into the SVC
left + right brachiocephalic veins
azygous vein
174
what are the three main tributaries of the brachiocephalic veins?
internal jugular, external jugular, subclavian
175
the azygous veins drain the postero-laterally left/right side of the thorax and the hemiazygous veins drain the left/right side of the throax
right, left
176
true or false: pressure in the internal jugular veins is equivalent to pressure in the right atrium
true
177
true or false: the internal jugular veins run medial to the common carotid arteries?
false: they run lateral
178
the subclavian veins run in front/behind the anterior scalene muscle and the subclavian arteris run in front/behind it.
in front, behind
179
External jugular vein drains the face and scalp and is composed of two tributaries which combine posterior to the angle of mandible, and inferior to the outer ear. what are the two veins?
posterior auricular vein - drains posterior and superior scalp
retromandibular vein - drains face
180
the external jugular vein runs ______ to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and then ducts behind it to join the brachiocephalic vein. The internal jugular vein runs ______ to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
anterolaterally
posteromedially
181
What artery/vein is this?
begins in the cranial cavity as a continuation of the sigmoid sinus. it has a superior and inferior bulb and exits the skull via the jugular foramen
internal jugular vein
182
true or false: the external jugular vein descends within the carotid sheath, deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and lateral to the common carotid artery
false: this is the internal jugular
183
the internal jugular vein has a superior bulb just as it exits the jugular foramen and an inferior bulb which contains a valve to stop backflow. where is this bulb located?
immedately prior to joining the subclavian vein
184
which vein is an alternative pathway for blood to enter the right atrium if both vena cavas are blocked?
azygous vein (connects to both of them)
185
what drains the front of the chest wall?
internal thoracic vein
186
the subclavian vein goes under the pectoralis minor and then splits into:
a) cephalic and axillary
b) axillary and deep brachial
c) cephalic and brachial
d) brachial and ulnar
a - cephalic is more lateral and axillary is more medial
187
the axillary vein turns into the _____ vein roughly 1/2 way down the upper arm
basilic
188
what is the vein that connects the basilic and cephalic vein in the arm?
antecubital vein
189
true or false: the brachial veins, which run deep, become one vein then join the basilic vein which turns into the axillary vein
true
190
true or false: radial and ulnar veins are superficial
false: deep
191
which is true?
a) dorsal veins mainly drain the hand and drain into basilic
b) dorsal veins mainly drain the hand and drain into cephalic
c) ventral veins mainly drain the hand and drain into the basilic
d) none of the above are true
b
192
the forearm mainly drains into which vein?
basilic vein
193
the inguinal ligament changes the name of what vein?
external iliac above it, femoral vein below it
194
which vein is medial to the ankle and drains into the femoral vein?
great saphenous vein (via the saphenous hiatus)
195
which vein is lateral to the ankle and runs up the back of the calf to join the popliteal vein?
short saphenous vein
196
the deep femoral vein drains:
back of thigh
197
what are the three main tributaries of the common femoral vein?
1. deep femoral vein
2. popliteal vein (small saphenous vein drains into this)
3. great saphenous vein
198
the common femoral vein splits:
a) midpoint of the thigh
b) just below the inguinal ligament
c) just below the hip joint at the top of the thigh
d) just above the knee
c
