Bus. Orgs. "The Last Decks" Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q
  1. The duty of ______ is the duty to act in what the manager believes to be the entity’s best interest.
  2. Action contrary to above belief is a breach of that duty and an act in ___ ___.
A
  1. Duty of Loyalty
  2. Bad faith
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2
Q

T/F) Nearly all directors are actually conflicted through “structural bias.”

A

True. This is why mere conflict itself is not a breach of fiduciary duties if you disclose it.

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3
Q

Outside of the MBCA, DL, and LLC/P sep. analysis models for exculpating conflicts of interest… what other tool can bypass invalidation due to director conflict?

A

BJR if the conflict was disclosed and approved.

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4
Q

DL Corporate Law

  1. _________ = Not having a material financial interest in the transaction, except through the entity.
  2. ________ = Not being controlled by a person who has interest in the transaction.
A
  1. Disinterested
  2. Independent
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5
Q

[DL Corp. Law]
How are director conflicts approved?

A
  1. Disinterested SHs / Directors approve of it.
  2. K is “entirely fair.” P+S fairness.
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6
Q

T/F) Under DL corporate law, conflicted directors may still participate and vote, even when conflicted.

A

True if:
1. Majority D/SH’s who are disinterested approve it
2. Entirely fair S+P

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7
Q

[MBCA]
When does a director have conflict of interest?

A
  1. Aware of material financial interest in transaction or;
  2. Related person has material financial interest in it
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8
Q

How are director conflicts waived in MBCA?

A

Qualified directors approve by majority. “Qualified” means directors who are not conflicted. [At least 2]

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9
Q

[MBCA]
If a director on the board has a “material relationship” with another director are they a qualified director who can approve the transaction?

A

No!!

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10
Q

Under MBCA, a _____ ____ to a conflicted director means a relationship that would reasonably be expected to impair the objectivity of the director’s judgment.

A

Material relationship

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11
Q

DL v. MBCA
When board votes to approve conflicts of interest, under which law set can the conflicted director be present / participate in the vote?

A

DL only

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12
Q

Majority approval of conflicts in the MBCA requires approval by “qualified” directors and the conflicted director may not be present.

Is there a min. number of qualified directors that must approve?

A

No less than 2

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13
Q

[DL]
Here, only a _____ or systematic failure of board oversight will establish lack of GF neccessary for liability. [Stone v. Ritter]

A

lack of SUSTAINED oversight

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14
Q

This case showed that only “sustained” and system failure of board oversight qualifies as lack of GF necessary for liability.

A

Stone v. Ritter

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15
Q

What case in 2009 showed that a board in DL must make GF efforts to put “reasonable system of monitoring” in place for oversight liability issues?

A

Barnhill

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16
Q

Regarding oversight liability in DL, complaint must plead…

A

Particularized facts that board knew of misconduct [red flag] but consciously disregarded. [bad faith]

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17
Q

2 Prongs of oversight liability? [DL & MBCA]

A
  1. Lack of sustained oversight
  2. Conscious disregard of red flags
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18
Q

What’s an additional factor for MBCA oversight liability? [Hint: Inquiry requirement]

A
  1. Lack of sustained oversight [MBCA & DL]
  2. Conscious disregard red flags [MBCA & DL]
  3. Reasonable inquiry requirement = OR failure to devote timely attention to particular facts that would alert reasonable alt. director to inquiry… [MBCA only]
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19
Q

_________ controls = Policies & Procedures that enable ppl at top to:
1. Know what org is doing [detective controls]; and
2. Control what org. is doing [preventive controls]

A

Internal controls

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20
Q

Two types of internal controls?

A
  1. Detective
  2. Preventive
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21
Q

If a lawyer for a organization knows there is internal fraud or violations of law.. lawyer shall proceed in the best interest….

A

of the entity. Do nothing lol

22
Q

________ rule = Directors have no liability for bad decisions.
1. GF
2. Loyalty
3. Care
4. Business related
5. Rational

23
Q

________ rule = Directors are “fully protected” if they relied on ppl around them.
1. GF reliance
2. Reasonably believe in that expert opinion

A

Reliance rule

24
Q

Investor legal actions:
If managers injure the entity and entity doesn’t sue, investors may bring _____ actions.

25
If entity or managers injure the investors, they may bring...
1. Individual action 2. Class action
26
Investor ______ action = Suit by an investor agains the entity to compel the entity to sue a 3rd party. [Often managers]
Derivative
27
Who recovers $$? 1. Direct action 2. Derivative action
1. Investor 2. The entity
28
What is the Q to ask to determine if action is direct OR derivative?
Has plaintiff demonstrated that he can prevail WITHOUT showing injury to the entity? Yes? = Direct No? = Derivative
29
In case of ____ ___ corporations, courts may treat derivative claims as direct and allow direct recovery.
Closely held corporations
30
Derivative or direct? "Action against directors for breach of fiduciary duty. Excessive compensation to retiring executive."
Derivative. Cannot succeed without showing harm to entity.
31
This doctrine requires that SH bringing a derivative suit must have: 1. Owned shares at time of alleged wrong act 2. Holds shares through litigation
Contemporaneous ownership doctrine [majority rule]
32
For class actions, when must investor prove they owned shares?
Only during the alleged wrong act -- reporting period. Need not hold through litigation.
33
Derivative action minority rule for investor holding shares?
From reporting period -- litigation.
34
Derivative action majority rule for investor holding shares?
Wrong act -- litigation. [Contemporaneous ownership doctrine]
35
When do creditors and not investors have standing to bring derivative actions? Can they bring direct?
When the entity is now insolvent. Hell no to direct.
36
When is plaintiff entitled to attorney fees in DERIVATIVE actions?
1. Successful 2. proved "substantial benefit" to corporation
37
____ ____ doctrine: In class actions, plaintiff's are entitled to fee awarded from recovery. No funds, no fees.
Common fund
38
1. ______ managers have right to make decision that the entity will sue. 2. What if they can't decide?
1. Qualified managers / majority of disinterested directors 2. Then investors can sue [derivative action]
39
Can a disqualified board of directs appoint a "qualified committee?"
Yes. How else would anything get done?
40
MGRs are entitled to make corporate decisions if they are ____ and ____. Also known as "qualified."
Disinterested and independent / Qualified
41
What is a manager "interested?"
1. material benefit from transaction 2. On both sides of transaction
42
When is a manager "dependent?" [Kylo Ren is dependent]
When controlled by another
43
Entity managers are biased in favor of who and why? [Law ignores structural bias in favor of other standards]
Other mangers. Why? Because the other managers chose them.. Boards are "self-perpetuating."
44
Instead of structural bias, what theories does the law consider?
1. Bias for managers 2. Bias against being sued
45
Bias for _______ = Can the manager impartially consider the merits without being influenced by improper considerations?
Bias for managrs
46
Bias against ____ ____ = Is there "substantial likelihood" that manger will be held liable?
Bias against being sued
47
2 entity law procedures for derivative actions? Hint: Demand and utility
1. Universal demand 2. Demand futility
48
Derivative action procedure: _________ demand = The P must demand that entity sue. SH can sue [if at all] only after the entity responds.
Universal demand
49
Derivative action procedures: Demand ________ = The P can sue immediately if demand would be futile. [Board not qualified.]
Demand futility
50
_____ test: For allegations of demand futility... courts should look at three Qs director by director. 1. Whether director received material benefit from misconduct 2. Whether director faces liability 3. Whether director lacks independence from someone who gained material ben
Zuck test 2011
51
Universal demands: MBCA A P must serve demand on entity b4 filing derivative action and the entity has XX days to respond. When can investor sue?
1. 90 days 2. Only after if the board is so conflicted the corporation will not pursue the matter.