Butler Questions Flashcards by Rupert Dash

To increase contrast levels you must:

Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%

Half the mAs and increase the kV by 15%

Double the kV and reduce the mAs by 15%

Half the kV and increase the mAs by 15%

Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%

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What is an alternative method if you don’t have a grid to not lose contrast?

Increase your object to film distance

Increase your film to focus distance

Decrease your object to film distance

Decrease your film to focus distance.

Increase your object to film distance

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As from which object width you need to use a grid?

15 cm

20 cm

11 cm

7 cm

11 cm

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Intra-articular gas can remain present radiographically until when?

24 hours

36 hours

48 hours

72 hours

48 hours

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How fast can osteophytes become present?

1 week

2-3 weeks

3-4 weeks

6 weeks

2-3 weeks

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How much decrease of mineralisation is needed before it becomes evident radiographically?

More than 35%

More than 30%

More than 25%

More than 15%

More than 30%

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A normal mineral content of an adult horse is;

35% mineral and 65% matrix and cells

65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells

45% mineral and 55% matrix and cells

55% mineral and 45% matrix and cells

65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells

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Osteopetrosis can not be caused by the following disease:

Hypervitaminosis A

Fluorine poisoning

Pulmonary silicosis

Maries disease

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What is the most commonly affected physis in the horse resulting in physitis?

Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

Distal radius and distal tibia

Distal phalanges and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

Distal tibia and distal phalanges

Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

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Common location for enostosis like lesions are;

Tibia

Radius

Humerus

Femur

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In which case is the dorsolateralpalmaromedial flexed 45 degree view used in a foot radiograph and in which case the 60 degree?

45: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint, 60: focus on the pastern joint
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint
45: focus on the navicular bone, 60: focus on distal phalanx
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on osteophytes/enthesophytes

45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint

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In which case it is usefull to obtain the lateral45proximal-mediodistal oblique image?

To skyline the palmar processes

To skyline the articular margins of the distal interphalangeal joint

To obliquely skyline the navicular bone

To skyline the solar margin

To skyline the palmar processes

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How long does it take for the distal phalanx to completely ossify, model and enlarge?

12 months

18 months

2 years

3 years

18 months

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A fragment seen at the dorsoproximal aspect of the extensor processs can not be;

Dystrophic mineralisation of the common digital extensor tendon

Separate centre of ossification

Fracture

OCD lesion

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Which radiographic signs are not associated with pedal osteitis complex?

Irregular outline and elongation of the palmar processes

Radiolucent zones in the dorsal aspect of the solar margin

Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx

Osseous cyst like lesions of the palmar processes

Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx

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What indicates new bone formation at the middle portion of the dorsal compact bone of the distal phalanx?

Abnormal stress on the flexor tendons

Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus

Laminitis

Long toe, low-heel syndrome

Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus

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Which of the following osseous cyst like lesions of the distal phalanx are sometimes incidentally found and/or clinically less important?

Osseous cyst like lesions at or palmar to the collateral fossa of the distal phalanx

Subchondral bone cysts in the midline of the distal phalanx

Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx

Cystic lesions in the distal aspect of the solar margin

Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx

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Extensive ossification of the ungular cartilages is often associated with?

Enthesophytes of the latero- and mediodistal aspect of the proximal phalanx

Osteophytes of the articular margin of the distal phalanx

Bone trauma of the distal phalanx

Poor demarcation of the compact and spongy bone within the cartilages

All of the above

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An articular mid sagittal fracture of the distal phalanx is categorized as a type;

Type 1

Type 3

Type 4

Type 5

Type 3

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A grade 3 ossification of the collateral cartilages is characterized by;

Ossification up to the level of the lateral or medial margins of the DIPJ

Ossification up to the level of the mid sagittal aspect of the DIPJ

Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone

Ossification up to the level of the midpoint of the middle phalanx

Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone

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Which palmar process is most of the times affected in race horses in Australia?

Left lateral

Left medial

Right lateral

Right medial

All equally

Left lateral, Right medial

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What is the reference value for horses with laminatis for the thickeness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx?

>20 mm, 28%

> 25 mm, 27%

<20 mm, 27%

<25 mm, 28%

>20 mm, 28%

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What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole?

Keratoma

Necrotic laminar tissue

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

Hoof abscess

Necrotic laminar tissue

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

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In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first?

Medial

Lateral

Dorsal

palmar

Medial

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Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram? Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

What is abnormal in the below image? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. nothing

d. nothing

Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal? 5 7 9 No number accounted for

When does the proximal physis of the proximal and middle phalanx close? Both at one year of age Both in between 8-12 months Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months Proximal phalanx; 8-12 months, middle phalanx; 1 year

Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months

In older and larger horses there is often remodelling of the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx. What is the cause for this? Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones A superimposition of the horizontal distal or proximal row of nutrient foramen Insertion of the proximal digital annular ligament Osteophyte formation of the pastern joint

Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones

In larger horses there is often remodelling of the dorsal mid body of the middle phalanx. What is the cause of this? Capsule enthesopathy of the proximal interphalangeal joint Osteophyte formation of the proximal interphalangeal joint Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint Enthesopathy of the abaxial palmar ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint

What may not be an incidental radiographic finding? Oblique sesamoid ligament mineralisation/fracture/fabellae Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint Birkeland fragment (intra vs. extra articular) Spur formation of the middle phalanx pointing distally

Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint

What may not be an incidental radiographic finding? Radiolucent depression between the condyles of the proximal phalanx distally Spur formation dorsally of the proximal interphalangeal joint Subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally

Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally

What can cause a subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint? Injury of the straight sesamoid ligament Injury of the palmar ligaments Very poor foot balance (club foot) Constant contractility of the flexor muscle groups All of the above

All of the above

What is a less guarded prognosis compared to others? OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx Multiple smaller OCCL seen in young horses, front limb worse than hindlimb Eccentric middle and proximal phalanx OCLL in the subchondral bone All of them are equally poor

OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx

Proximal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with; Repetitive trauma Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event Vertical development of affected subchondral bone Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

Repetitive trauma Vertical development of affected subchondral bone

Distal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with; Repetitive trauma Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event Vertical development of affected subchondral bone Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

A normal DP view of the fetlock is differently taken for a front limb and a hind limb, what is the difference?? DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle DP hind limbs: 10 degree angle, DP front limbs: 15 degree angle DP front limbs: 15 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 20 degree angle There is no difference, it is depanding on the position of the legs.

DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle

The dorsal 45 proximal 45 lateral-palmar distal medial oblique view of the fetlock is used to visualise: Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus Medial condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus Lateral palmar/plantar process of the proximal phalanx. Medial palmar/plantar prociess of the proximal phalanx.

Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus

When evaluating a vertical condylar fracture of the third metacarpus or metatarsus or stress related bone injury of its palmar aspect is best visulised in which view? Flexed DP view with 0 degree angle Normal DP vieuw with 10 degree angle proximodistally Flexed DP view with 10 degree angle distoproximally Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally

Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally

The subchondral bone plate of the proximal phalanx and the corresponding condyles of the third metacarpus are sometimes different medially and laterally, what is true? (3X) The medial condyle of MCIII is wider The lateral condyle of MCIII is wider The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker The medial aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 is thicker This is also seen in the hind limbs

The medial condyle of MCIII is wider The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker This is also seen in the hind limbs

What is gas artefact sometimes seen in the fetlock joint? A sign of vacuum phenonomon (OA) Overflexion of the joint during imaging Due to injection of the fetlock joint All of the above

Overflexion of the joint during imaging

Which of the below decriptions/findings are not used in a familiar grading scheme for proximal sesamoid bones? Presence or absence of vascular channels The width of the vascular channels The divergence of the vascular channels The presence of entheseoous new bone Elongation of the bone itself Abaxial radiolucent areas

The presence of entheseoous new bone Elongation of the bone itself Abaxial radiolucent areas

Which of the following ligaments does not insert on the proximal sesamoid bones? Suspensory ligament Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments Palmar annular ligament Sesamoid ligaments

Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments

Periarticular dystrophic mineralisation at the dorsal aspect of the fetlock joint is often seen in association with? Degenerative joint disease Chronic infection Capsulitis Chronic tendinitis of the common digital extensor tendon

Chronic infection

Which side of the fetlock joint is commenly first affected by degenerative joint disease? Dorsolateral Dorsomedial Palmar/plantarlateral Palmar/plantarmedial

Dorsomedial

Which risk factors are associated with dorsal fragments of the proximal aspect of the proximal phalanx and lameness in warmbloods? Age above 7 years More than one fragment Evidence of movement of the fragment Associated cartilage and synovitis seen arthoscopically

Age above 7 years More than one fragment

Which of the below statements are true? Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially Birkenlund fractures are more often seen laterally Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen medially Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally

Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally

Which breed and which lesion is often associated with remodelling or radiolucent areas of the axial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bone (more often seen in hind limbs)? Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament Thoroughbred horses and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments Cob horses and desmitis of the intersesamoideal ligaments Warmbloods and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments

Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament

Which view is best obtained imaging the palmar/plantar aspect of the cortex of the metacarpus/metatarsus? Lateromedial Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one DP Lateral 30 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one

Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one

For which diagnosis would a flexed view of the metacarpus/tarsus be helpful? Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch Fatique stress fractures Visualising the abaxial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bones None of the above

Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch

Which of the below findings is often associated with ill-defined lucent zone in the base of the second metacarpal bone? Mineralisation of the interosseous ligament Presence of the first carpal bone Narrowing of the interosseous space of the third and second metacarpal bone Osteoartritis of the carpometacarpal joint

Presence of the first carpal bone

Splints (syndesmopathy) usually develop within: Second and third metacarpal bone Fourth and third metacarpal bone Second and third metatarsal bone Fourth and third metatarcal bone

Second and third metacarpal bone Second and third metatarsal bone

What do we mean by the involcrum? Central opaque piece of bone The lucent zone surrounding this piece of bone The radiopaque rim surrounding the process The complete abnormality caused by a osteomyolitis and sequestrum formation

The radiopaque rim surrounding the process

Which structure is causing exostosis formation at the palmar/plantar middle to distal one third of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone? The joint capsule of the fetlock joint The cruciate sesamoidean ligaments The intersesamoidean ligament Metacarpointersesamoidean ligament

The intersesamoidean ligament

Above which age does a foal need to be for surgical fixation of the physis in a Salter Harris fracture type 2 of the distal physis of the metacarpus? 16 weeks 6 months 3 months 8 weeks

8 weeks

A lateral condylar fracture (most commenly seen) is often complete if it extends… cm proximally 5-8cm 7. 5 3. 5 8

7.5

The closure distal physis of the radius and the ossification of the carpal bones happens respectively at which age? 18 months and 12 months 20 months and 18 months 18 months and 24 months 24 months and 18 months

20 months and 18 months

What inserts on the transverse ridge of the radius and what on the longitudinal ridge? Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon Accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon and collateral ligament of the carpus Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon Accessory ligament of the lateral digital extensor tendon and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon

Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon

In how many percent of the cases is the ulnar bone vestigial and ossified? 20% 35% 40% 45%

35%

Where are synoviocoeles often seen? Dorsolateral or dorsomedial Palmarolateral or palmaromedial Antebrachialcarpal joint Middle carpal joint

Dorsolateral or dorsomedial

The antebrachiocarpal, middle carpal and carpometacarpal joint are most commently affected in respectively: Sport horses, race horses, older horses Race horses, older horses, sport horses Older horses, sport horses, race horses Sport horses, older horses, race horses

Sport horses, race horses, older horses

Which of the four below mentioned centres of ossification of the scapula are not completely ossified at birth? Scapular cartridge Body of the scapula Supraglenoid tubercle Cranial glenoid cavity

Supraglenoid tubercle Cranial glenoid cavity

When does the physis of the supraglenoid tubercle close? 5 months 12 months 12-18 months 12-24 months Kusje

12-24 months

When do the separate centres of ossification of the proximal humeral epiphysis merge? 3-4 months 6-8 months 12-18 months 24-36 months

3-4 months

What is not associated with mineralisations of the biceps tendon? Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle Degenerative joint disease Tendinitis of the biceps brachii Osteochondrosis

Osteochondrosis

Defect in the cortical bone of the tubercles is seen in the skyline view. Which is of the humeral tubercles is most often affected? Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle Intermediate tubercle All evenly affected

Intermediate tubercle

How many ossifications centres has the distal humerus? 1 2 3 4

When does the physis of the ulna close? 10-12 months 11-24 months 24-36 months 22-42 months

24-36 months

Which aspect of the head of the radius is wider than the other side Medial compared to lateral Lateral compared to medial Caudal compared to cranial Cranial compared to caudal

Medial compared to lateral

There is a separate centre of ossification for the lateral malleus, this represents the… and fuses at … of age. Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 6 months Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 6 months Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 3 months

Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months

Of which bone might the plantar aspect NOT be remodelled because of previous tearing of the plantar ligament? Second and fourth metatarsal bone Fourth tarsal bone First and second tarsal bone Calcaneus

First and second tarsal bone

In Dutch warmbloods OCD lesion are often persistent at which age? 3 months 5 months 7 months 18 months

5 months

Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is NOT associated with avulsion of the attachment of Short medial collateral ligament Long medial collateral ligament Medial talocalaneal ligament Tarsal plantar ligament

Long medial collateral ligament

In which bone are OCLL rarely seen in the tarsus? Talus Third metatarsus Tibia Central tarsal bone

Third metatarsus

OCCL lesion are often seen in combination with the following disease, select the right combination Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis Central tarsal bone – osteochondrosis Lateral trochlea of the talus – degenerative joint disease Distal aspect of the tibia – degenerative joint disease

Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis

From the notch of the junction in between the medial trochlear ridge and the medial condyle there is a radiopaque line extending caudoproximally. This represents: Extensor fossa Intercondylar fossa Distal physis Intertrochlear groove

Extensor fossa

In a normal radiograph there is flattening of the medial and lateral trochlear ridge, where is it considered normal? Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur Flattened area medial trochlea: junction with condyle

Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle

What is shown in the below radiograph? OC lesion of the intertrochlear groove OC lesion of the lateral trochlear ridge OC lesion of the medial trochlear ridge Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge

Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge

In which area of the stifle do we most often see OCLL? And what is there cause? Medial femoral condyle, OC Lateral femoral condyle, trauma Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC Lateral femoral condyle, OC

Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC

Which site of the insertion of the cruciate ligaments is most often affected? Distal insertion cranial cruciate Distal insertion caudal cruciate Proximal insertion cranial cruciate Proximal insertion caudal cruciate

Distal insertion cranial cruciate

Meniscal tears can’t be associated with: Necrosis of the femoral condyles OCCL of the medial femoral condyle OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence) Collateral ligament injury

OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence)

Most common fractures of the tibia in Standardbreds are: Mid-diaphyseal Proximolateral aspect Proximocaudal aspect Distal metaphyseal

Mid-diaphyseal

Which bones are considered to be form the spheno-occipital suture? Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone Presphenoid bone and lateral occipital bone Squamous part of the occipital bone and basisphenoid bone

Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone

When does the frontanelle close in a foal? 2-3 months 3-4 months 4-5 months 5-6 months

3-4 months

The nuchal ligament inserts: Nuchal crest External sagittal crest External occipital protuberances Tentorial process

External occipital protuberances

What is true about a maxillary sinus cyst and a maxillary cyst? A maxillary sinus cyst often involves tooth roots A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses Both cyst can not cause bony distortion Only a maxillary cyst may be multiloculated

A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses

For visualization of the interdental spaces of the caudal maxillary cheek teeth in a oblique view, what should be changed? 10-15 degree caudal rotation 10-15 degree rostral rotation Open mouth technique with a 10 degree angle Open mouth technique with a 15 degree angle

10-15 degree caudal rotation

Periodontal disease is most commonly found in; Mandibular cheek teeth Maxillary cheek teeth Incisors Cheek teeth

Maxillary cheek teeth

Which view is best for accessing diastema? Lateral oblique Open mouth DV or VD Lateral

Open mouth

When is the corrected mean/minimal sagittal diameter used and why? In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation In Thoroughbreds from 5-10 months for ataxia In Warmbloods from 5-10 months for ataxia In Warmblood from 3-7 months from cervical malformation

In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation

When and how do the physes of the vertebral bodies close? !!!!!!! cranial physes close dorsally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 4-5 years of age. cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age. cranial physes close ventrally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 2 years of age. cranial physes close dorsally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 2 years of age.

cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age.

See image below, which transverse process is projected ventrally when the image is taken obliquely lateralventral-laterodorsal oblique from left to right? left right

right

What is the Rooney type II lesion within the articular process joints Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation Malalignment of C2-C3 Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5 Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation

Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5

Small lucent zones in the region of the articular process joints represent: Epidural synovial cysts Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles Asymmetric dysplastic articular process joint None of the above

Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles

How many lumbar and sacral vertebral bodies are normally present in a donkey? 6 lumbar, 5 sacral 5 lumbar, 6 sacral 5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral 6 lumbar, 4-6 sacral

5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral

Which spinous process is the supposed to be the highest point of the withers? T5 T6 T7 T8

From which spinous process on does the supraspinous ligament insert? T9-T10 T10-T11 T11-T12 T12-T13

T10-T11

Which bone can cause superimposition of the articular process joints mimicking the normal anatomy of the process? Mammillary process Transverse process Spinous process The rib

Mammillary process

Which fracture of the vertebral body may not be associated with osteoarthritis of the articular process joint in Thoroughbreds? Articular process joint Spinous process Dorsal lamina Rib

Spinous process

Which physis involving the coxofemoral joint is less consistent in its closure time and most likely closes around two year? Trochanter major Physis of the head of the femur Trochanter minor Physis of the acetabulum

Trochanter minor

Which ligament/muscle is inserting at the tubercle of the pubis? Acetabular ligament Ligamentum of the head of the femur Psoas minor muscle Rectus femoris muscle

Ligamentum of the head of the femur

If the horse is non-weight bearing and you want to obtain a correct lateral dorsal lateral ventral oblique, how do you reposition your camera from the standard orientation? 5-10 degrees more ventral angulation 5-10 degrees more dorsal angulation 15 degrees less ventral angulation 15 degrees less dorsal angulation

5-10 degrees more ventral angulation

How can subluxation be best visualised in a radiograph? Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended Ventrodorsal view under GA leg flexed and abducted laterally Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg extended caudally Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg abducted laterally

Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended

What are the best settings for your x-ray machine taking thoracic images? High mAs – high keV Low mAs – low keV Low mAs – high keV High mAs – low keV

Low mAs – high keV

New born foal often have an abnormal lung pattern, this appears similar to which pattern? Alveolar Interstitial Bronchial Vascular

Bronchial

The normal cardiac size in craniocaudal dimension of a foal is approximately the size of how many mid-thoracic vertebrae? EXAM!!! 5. 6-6.3 times 6. 3-6.7 times 6. 7-7.8 times 7. 8-8.2 times

5.6-6.3 times

Which of the below mentioned diagnosis fits best to this lung patterns seen in the radiograph? Multinodular pulmonary fibrosis Eosinophilic pneumonia Bronchopneumonia Severe RAO

Eosinophilic pneumonia

Congenital diaphragmatic hernias often occur often NOT in…..? Dorsally Left mid-diaphragm Right mid-diaphragm Ventrally

Right mid-diaphragm

When taking a radiograph with an interest on the oesophagus, what is necessary? Plate on the left side of the animal Plate on the right side of the animal Contrast study is always necessary Only overlapping images are important

Plate on the left side of the animal

Which of the following findings is not indictive for gastroduodenal ulcer disease? Mega oesophagus Gastric dilatation Gas in biliary tree Strictures of the oesophagus

Gas in biliary tree

What is a normal measurement for a small bowel loop? The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae The height of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae 1,5 times the craniocaudal size of the first lumbar vertebrae The same length as the spinous process of the first lumbar vertebra

The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae

What is the normal transit time of a gastrointestinal tract of a horse? 6 hours 8 hours 12 hours 24 hours

8 hours

What is the most commonly affected place for cystitis in an urinary bladder? Cranioventral Craniodorsal Caudoventral Caudodorsal

Cranioventral

What is indicating a normal tenogram of a manica flexoria on a lateromedial radiograph? Two lines of contrast medium diverging Two lines of contrast medium parallel One line of contrast medium Pooling of contrast medium dorsal to the deep digital flexor tendon

Two lines of contrast medium parallel

What is an approximate amount of contrast medium used in a common carotid artery angiography? 5ml 10ml 15ml 20ml

20ml

Who put these questions in the system: Oliver Maty Zwelgje

Fucking legend of an Oliver obviously

Butler Questions Flashcards

(116 cards)