Bx Test 27 Flashcards
(40 cards)
As with all other types of occupancies, size-up in private dwellings is essential to a successful operation. Which size-up factor mentioned below is incorrect?
A: Modern three family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design.
B: The main entrance is usually located in front of a PD, but sometimes it is located on the side as seen from the street. Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear.
C: Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction with a sheetrock ceiling will lead to early collapse.
D: One or two offset windows on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling indicates that these are windows at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase. These offset windows should not be entered for VEIS.
C
Explanation:
C. Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction (ABSENCE OF A SHEETROCK CEILING) will lead to early collapse.
Private Dwellings Ch 2: 2.4, 2.6, 2.7
It shall be the responsibility of all Officers to exert every effort toward the prompt and effective relief of personnel who, at the change of tours, are operating at fires, emergencies, or are relocated. Relieving platoons shall be ready to leave quarters immediately after commencement of tour of duty. Such units shall leave promptly upon arrival of transportation. Relieving platoons can proceed on foot if the distance of the operation is within what distance listed below?
A: Within one-third mile of the location of operations
B: No option of proceeding on foot
C: Within two-thirds mile of the location of operations
D: Within one mile of the location of operations
A
Explanation:
Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 09:30 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations or a relocated quarters
AUC 217 sec 2
All chemical agents are heavier than air except?
A: sarin
B: lewisite
C: hydrogen cyanide
D: cyanogen chloride
C
Explanation:
All chemical agents, except hydrogen cyanide, are heavier than air.
ERP Add 2 p18
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding scanner/radio sets for use in quarters?
A: Scanners/radio sets assigned to quarters shall be kept at the housewatch desk to allow housewatch members to be aware of radio traffic in the borough.
B: Two scanner/radio sets shall be issued to each firehouse; one for the housewatch and one for the Company office.
C: FDNY housewatch sets (or substitute models) are issued for use in Battalion and Division offices and these sets are in addition to those located at the housewatch desk. Requests for additional sets in a given quarter may be forwarded via the Chain of Command to the Bureau of Communications.
D: Company Commanders responsible for company quarters may forward requests via the Chain of Command to the Bureau of Communications for a housewatch set for their quarters.
B
Explanation:
One scanner/radio set shall be issued to each firehouse, except where there are two housewatch areas. “FDNY-issue” housewatch scanner/radio sets are NOT permitted in Company offices.
Comm 8 8.10
Initial tactics at vacant building fires usually emphasize Engine Company operations because of an adapted slower, more cautious operation and a decreased emphasis on ventilation, entry, isolation, and search. Engine Companies should apply each of the following general tactics, except those found in which choice?
A:✔Due to heavy reliance on defensive operations at vacant building fires, all hose lines stretched should be considered 2 1/2” regardless of building type or occupancy.
B: Engine Companies shall be alert to the need for a 3 ½” hose line to supply a Tower Ladder, when consistent with operational needs. Whenever possible, a separate Engine shall be dedicated to the sole task of supplying water to a Tower Ladder.
C: Engine Companies may be ordered to stretch 2 ½” hose lines to exposures in order to operate exterior hose streams. Hoselines used from this defensive position shall be 2 ½” because of the need for increased reach and water flow.
D: To the extent that an IC’s size-up and risk assessment allow for an interior “wash down,” hose lines may be advanced within the fire building after a fire has been largely extinguished from the exterior and exterior streams have been shut down. Before committing members, however, the interior of the building shall be surveyed by a Chief Officer in order to assess its structural stability.
A
Explanation:
Members should stretch hose lines CONSISTENT with Department policies for EACH BUILDING TYPE (e.g., stretch a 1 ¾” hose line for a fire in a vacant rowframe building).
Vacant 6.1 A, B, E, F
When operating at a tenement fire, the correct procedure can be found in which choice?
A: When checking for extension in the ceiling, open up the section of the ceiling remote from the fire area and work your way where the fire was most intense.
B: A boxed out protrusion containing a steel column in a OLT or NLT must be examined the entire length if it was involved in fire.
C: If the flooring is charred, the ceiling below should not be examined for fire extension.
D: A smoke condition at the apartment door on the floor above is enough reason to believe that fire has extended to this floor.
B
Explanation:
Ladders 3 p-61-62
A- Start at a point where the fire was most intense and working towards a clean area of ceiling space
C- If the flooring is charred, the ceiling below SHOULD BE examined for fire extension.
D- A smoke condition at the apartment door on the floor above is NOT enough reason to believe that fire has extended to this floor. High temperatures even only at ceiling level or a crackling sound heard within the apartment or a fiery glow seen through the smoke are all indications of fire extension and justify calling for a handline
In various parts of NYC, hydrant pressures can vary significantly, ranging from ________
A: 30 psi to 60 psi.
B: 30 psi to 80 psi.
C: 40 psi to 100 psi.
D: 60 psi to 120 psi.
C
Explanation:
Eng Ops ch 2 add 1 sec 2.4.1 C
Primary markings made by FD units indicate hazardous conditions in vacant buildings. Which description below regarding how these markings are made is incorrect?
A: Markings shall be spray painted using lime-yellow reflective paint.
B: Square to be approximately 8” x 8”.
C: Lines to be 2” wide.
D: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance.
B
Explanation:
Square to be approximately 18” x 18”.
Vacants 3.1
When making a company journal entry, the entry shall be legible, distinct, contain full particulars, and abbreviations used with discretion in each of the following situations except?
A: Injured member in quarters
B: Returning to quarters from a response
C: Discipline of a member
D: Lost property reported
B
Explanation:
Entries relating to injuries, deaths, accidents, medical leaves, disciplinary matters, lost property, complaints or investigations, shall be legible, distinct, contain full particulars, and abbreviations used with discretion consistent with significance of entry and need for full comprehension.
CJ p4
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Tunnel to Tube Transition areas?
A: It is always the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossovers to the other adjacent tube until the other side of the river.
B: Members must recognize this construction feature as the entry/exit point to the tube.
C: This is the location where the square underground tunnel section connects to the round under river tube.
D: Section valves are located throughout under river tubes and are often found at the base of emergency exits.
A
Explanation:
UNDERRIVER RAIL OPERATIONS
A – 2.4 – In most cases
B – 2.4
C – 2.4 figure 3A/B
D – 2.7.1 – Figure 8A/8B
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all of the following units shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene, except?
A: CFR Engine
B: Satellite Unit
C: Communications Unit
D: Decon Engine
A
Explanation:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene (under the supervision of a Staging Area Manager).
MMID Ch 5 3.2
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident. Which suffix is correct for a fireice unit?
A: E287K
B: E287F
C: E287H
D: E287I
D
Explanation:
Comm ch 2 pg 18
Prior to operating, it is imperative that the Lobby Control Unit verify the location of the following. Which of the below posts is not listed?
A: Forward Triage Area
B: SAE Post
C: Forward Staging Area
D: Fire Sector
D
Explanation:
ICS MANUAL – CHAPTER 2 – ADDENDUM 4 – LOBBY CONTROL UNIT
A – 4.2
B – 4.2
C – 4.2
D – 4.2 – Fire Floor not Fire Sector
Ladder 199 is assigned to an all hands box as the fast truck for a fire in a 100x100 warehouse. Upon arrival, the company takes the following actions. Which is the only one that was CORRECT?
A: The officer of the FAST Unit and the IC announced their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie.
B: The Battalion car was positioned near the front of the fire building, so the officer had the untrained EFAS FF monitor the Pak-Tracker & FAST Radio Board.
C: Once the Mayday was given, the untrained EFAS FF assisted the company with the recovery and removal of the downed member.
D: The FAST truck used two-sided approach where the search team made access via the interior and the removal team made access via the exterior of the building.
A
Explanation:
MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS CHAPTER 2
A IS CORRECT – 4.1 – The officer of the FAST Unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP. NOTE – It also says in Chapter 1 section 3.2 - The Incident Commander shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival over the handie- talkie at the scene. On receipt of this announcement, the members performing the duties of the Safety Team shall return to their original assignments.
B – A member other than the member monitoring the EFAS will monitor the Pak-Tracker. SEC 8.
C – Whether EFAS trained or not, the FAST Unit member assigned to monitor EFAS and/or the FAST Radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment, until relieved. 5.1
D – The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings. 7.4
Of the following choices regarding communications policy, which is correct?
A: An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when either one of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with 4 firefighters.
B: Dispatchers shall, when notified of complaints, overcrowding or unusual conditions related to places of public amusement and entertainment such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets or similar occupancies, promptly notify the administrative Company Officer.
C: When notified that a company is responding understaffed (less than four firefighters), the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine, Ladder for Ladder, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit. Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total response of (5) Engine Companies and (5) Ladder Companies.
D: The dispatcher shall dispatch a minimum of two Engines, two Ladders and a Battalion Chief when a report is received for a fire or emergency for a bridge, tunnel, elevated or depressed vehicular highway, parkway or expressway for which there is no special alarm system box. No fewer than two units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other potentially dangerous roadway.
D
Explanation:
A. An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when BOTH of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with 4 firefighters.
Note: The additional Ladder Company shall be the 3rd Ladder Company, and the 4th Ladder Company shall be designated as the Fast Truck.
B. Dispatchers shall, when notified of complaints, overcrowding or unusual conditions related to places of public amusement and entertainment such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets or similar occupancies, promptly notify the administrative BATTALION CHIEF.
Note: If unable to contact the administrative Battalion Chief, the administrative Deputy Chief shall be notified.
C. Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total response of (4) Engine Companies and (4) Ladder Companies.
Comm 6.4.7, 6.8.4, 6.9.1, 6.9.2
At a fire operation, EMS tells you they have one orange-tagged victim. You would be correct to know that this individual would be designated a?
A: 10-45 code 1
B: 10-45 code 2
C: 10-45 code 3
D: 10-45 code 4
C
Explanation:
Deceased - Black - Code 1
Life Threatening Injury - Red - Code 2
Non-Life Threatening Injury - Orange/Yellow - Code 3
Non-Serious Injury/Ambulatory - Green - Code 4
Comm 8 10-45
The First Responder’s Bridge Manual and First Responders Tunnel Manual are comprised of two stand-alone guides, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Executive Guide . What color is the Field Guide?
A: Red
B: White
C: Blue
D: Green
D
Explanation:
*This question was asked on the last Capt exam and many got it wrong because they didn’t finish reading the question.
Used by first responders
Risk Management Executive Guide is red and used by the Command Chief
AUC 344
CFRD certified Officers and firefighters working in ladder companies are only eligible for CFR differential under certain circumstances. Which of the following is not listed as acceptable criteria?
A: Operation of Defibrillation equipment
B: Administration of Oxygen
C: Stabilization of a patient’s spine/neck
D: Performance of a patient assessment or a head to toe survey
C
Explanation:
PA/ID 3-98 CFRD PAY DIFFERENTIAL
A – Correct 2.2.1
B – Incorrect – Administration of CPR 2.2.1
C – Correct – 2.2.1
D – Correct 2.2.1
At a 10-76 third alarm in the borough of Manhattan, due to increased radio traffic, the IC notifies all units that a tertiary tactical channel will be implemented. You would be most correct to know the recommended channel for this is?
A: 2
B: 3
C: 6
D: 8
D
Explanation:
BOROUGH RECOMMENDED SECONDARY COMMAND CHANNEL and RECOMMENDED TERTIARY CHANNEL
Queens 4 5
Brooklyn 5 8
Manhattan 6 8
Bronx 7 6
Staten Island 8 4
Comm 12 7.1 d
Company officers and firefighters, first at the scene, have an excellent opportunity to make observations that a Fire Marshal cannot be expected to make, especially when it comes to flammable accelerants used to start the fire. Flammable accelerant indicators include all of the following except?
A: Charring of the floor
B: High burn marks on the wall or door
C: Char in broken patterns or “puddle-like” circle burns on the floor
D: Heavy body of fire with little contents
B
Explanation:
Low burn marks on the wall or under the door or on the lower part of the door
Training Bulletins Arson 1 sec 3.7
Which level of chemical protective clothing offers “minimal skin and respiratory protection?”
A: Level A
B: Level B
C: Level C
D: Level D
C
Explanation:
Level A: The highest level of skin and respiratory protection; positive pressure SCBA inside vapor-tight chemical clothing.
Level B: The highest level of respiratory protection, but a lower level of skin protection; positive pressure SCBA and a chemical ensemble that provides splash protection.
Level C: Minimal skin and respiratory protection.
Level D: Minimal protection and is used to guard against nuisance contamination only.
Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is NOT classified as chemical protective clothing.
ERP 5.6
The Department-issued Prehospital Care Report (PCR) is a three-part form and contains protected health information, which by law is confidential. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement in regard to documentation and recordkeeping of a Prehospital Care Report?
A: Part Three is the Hospital Patient Record Copy and if completed, is be given to the EMS Unit operating at the scene. If Part Three is not given to the EMS Unit, it shall be secured at Quarters with part Two in the Company files
B: Receiving a patient history from the patient is considered contact and a PCR is required
C: Part One, the original, is to be forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs through the bag by the end of each tour
D: Part two is the Research Copy and is to be retained at Quarters and must be secured by the Company Officer in the Company files at all times
A
Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 Documentation
A. 1.2.2 A
B. 1.1.1
C. 1.1.2
D. If Part Three is not given to the EMS Unit, it shall be forwarded with the original to OMA. 1.1.3
When does “Rollover” occur in a fire?
A: The Growth Stage
B: The Fully Developed Stage
C: The Decay Stage
D: The Incipient Stage
A
Explanation:
Vent Glossary
A test of the intercom system shall be made __ and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation.
A: Each tour
B: Daily
C: Weekly
D: Monthly
A
Explanation:
UPDATED IN NEW BULLETIN RELEASED 10/1/2019
IT IS NOW EACH TOUR NOT DAILY
Tower Ladder Ch 1: 1.5 2nd Bullet
