C TRP GST Prep Flashcards
1
Q
30mm - As range INCREASES, (induced) dispersion _______.
A
30mm - As range INCREASES, (induced) dispersion DECREASES.
2
Q
Rocket dispersion is primarily based on _____ and _______. At greater range, we can expect to have ___ dispersion, and the opposite is true for shorter ranges.
A
Rocket dispersion is primarily based on RANGE and ANGLE OF ATTACK. At greater range, we can expect to have LESS dispersion, and the opposite is true for shorter ranges.
3
Q
Name the four (4) types of ballistics
A
INTERIOR
EXTERIOR
AERIAL
TERMINAL
4
Q
What is the greatest causing error in free flight rockets?
A
Thrust Misalignment
5
Q
What is the minimum time an M257 overt illumination flare will burn for? How much illumination?
A
Minimum of 100 seconds illuminating 1 square kilometer
6
Q
How long will an M278 covert illumination flare burn for?
A
150-210 seconds
7
Q
What are the restrictions associated with firing pairs from outboard launchers? Why?
A
May fire pairs every 3 seconds from outboard launchers, or from one launcher with no restrictions.
To avoid engine surging
8
Q
What does SPLASH indicate during a remote engagement:
Air to Ground
Ground to Ground
Air to Air
A
Air to Ground - IMPACT
Ground to Ground - 5 SEC TO IMPACT
Air to Air - TGT DESTROYED
9
Q
What is the lethality range of an M151 HEDP warhead?
A
Burst - 10m
Lethality - 50m
10
Q
What are the 4 T’s associated with rocket accuracy?
A
TARGET
TORQUE
TRIM
TARGET
11
Q
What are the 30mm danger close ranges:
500m
1000m
1500m
A
500m - 75m
1000m - 95m
1500m - 115m
12
Q
How many TGTs can the FCR detect during a SCAN sequence? DETECT CLASSIFY DISPLAY PRIORITIZE
A
DETECT - 1023
CLASSIFY - 128
DISPLAY - 256
PRIORITIZE - 16
13
Q
MSL - if the launch platform is ____ ft above the target, add __ to the min engagement range. If ____ ft above the target, add ___.
A
MSL - if the launch platform is 50-400 ft above the target, add 0.5km to the min engagement range. If 401-800 ft above the target, add 1.0km.
14
Q
Doppler Beam Sharpening - put the missile center-line left of the TGT, and the missile will DBS to the ____. The opposite is true to DBS to the right.
A
Doppler Beam Sharpening - put the missile center-line left of the TGT, and the missile will DBS to the LEFT. The opposite is true to DBS to the right.
15
Q
What are the 3 methods for adjusting fire?
A
RECOGNITION
MIL-RADIAN
LASER RANGE FINDER
16
Q
What does TPM-R stand for?
A
TECHNIQUE
PATTERN
MUNITIONS
RANGE
17
Q
If JTAC says CLEARED HOT, you may _____
If JTAC says CLEARED TO ENGAGE, you may ____
A
If JTAC says CLEARED HOT, you may MAKE ONE PASS
If JTAC says CLEARED TO ENGAGE, you may MAKE MULTIPLE ATTACK RUNS, UNDER GIVEN PARAMETERS
18
Q
What does DIDEA stand for?
A
DETECT / IDENTIFY / DECIDE / ENGAGE / ASSESS
19
Q
What are examples of situational awareness detractors?
A
Weapons Errors / Inadequate Fire and Maneuver Control / Navigation Failure / Direct Fire Control Failure / Reporting Failure / Combat Identification Failure
20
Q
Do CCAs require Terminal Attack Control?
A
No, it is friendly oriented vs target oriented
21
Q
What pro words indicate sighting the following:
Friendly -
Enemy -
A
Friendly - VISUAL
Enemy - TALLEY
22
Q
What is the maximum recommended designation range for an RQ-7
A
5km slant distance
23
Q
What should be done for any munition using an M439 (time delay) fuse that fails to fire?
A
Remove the rocket and let it sit for 10 days IOT allow the capacitor to bleed down.
24
Q
Define Fratricide
A
Employment of weapons with the intent to kill the enemy, which results in death or injury of friendly forces
25
The aircraft pylons can compensate for up to ____ degrees per second in pitch.
The aircraft pylons can compensate for up to 10 degrees per second in pitch.
26
What does the combination of trajectory shift and projectile drift produce?
Port-Starboard Effect
Shooting to the left compounds the effect
Shooting to the right tends to cancel out effects
27
Spent M257/M278 rocket motors could land how many meters beyond the target?
700-1200 meters
| 4200-4700m from launch
28
In LOAL TADS to RF handover, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than _____ after TARGET DATA? message disappears.
In LOAL TADS to RF handover, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than 5 to 7 SECONDS after TARGET DATA? message disappears.
29
Danger Close ranges for K/M/N/FA/L AGM-114 is ____
| For AGM-144R, it is ____
K/M/N/FA/L AGM-114 is 110m
| For AGM-144R, it is 130m
30
PD Rocket danger close ranges:
300m -
800m -
1500m -
300m - 150m
800m - 210m
1500m - 305m
31
The danger close range for a 2.75in FL rocket at 1000 meters is ___.
170m
32
What type of ballistics address munitions not fired from the ground exclusively?
AERIAL
33
When firing rockets from a hover and assuming the target is at your altitude, at what range would you be required to rock the aircraft backward to get into constraints?
4.5km
34
LOAL HI will clear a ___ obstacle at ____ down range
LOAL HI will clear a 1000' obstacle at 1500m down range
35
When (and only when) should the weapons trigger be depressed to the second detent?
to override a performance inhibit
36
Backscatter is a ____ inhibit. Can it be overridden with weapons trigger pull to second detent?
SAFETY
| No
37
What are the three levels of safing the aircraft?
ARM/SAFE switch
Weapons De-WAS'd
Finger off the trigger
38
What is the 30mm danger close ragne for a 1500 meter shot?
115m
39
Flechette rockets should be fired at ______ from the target.
1-3 km
40
What is the illumination time for a M278 COVERT illumination rocket?
150-210 seconds
41
What is the illumination time for a M257 OVERT illumination rocket?
120 seconds
42
What is the maximum effective range of the 30mm?
1500-1700 meters
43
What is the burst radius of the 30mm M789 HEDP warhead?
4 meters
44
LMC aids the CPG with TGT tracking when ________. It also disables ____.
LMC aids the CPG with TGT tracking when THE TGT AND/OR ACFT IS MOVING. It also disables SCENE TRACK.
45
Missile Status: SF
STATION FAIL
46
Missile Status: MU
MISSILE UNLATCHED
47
What are the laser limiting factors? (9)
| SOAP-EU-BBB
Spot Jitter / Overspill / Attenuation / Podium Effect / Entrapment / Underspill / Backscatter / Boresight Error / Spot Jitter / Beam Divergence
48
What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?
625 rounds per minute
49
What is the gun duty cycle of the 30mm?
Six 50-round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 min cooling period. For burst limits other than 50, no more than 300 rounds in 60 seconds before requiring a 10 minute cooling period.
50
What is the maximum authorized displacement for LOS from center within TADS video?
1/8 FOV
51
```
AGM-114 L Range Capabilities:
Moving LOBL:
Stationary
LOBL
Attempt LOBL:
LOAL:
LOAL TADS or IDM:
```
```
AGM-114 L Range Capabilities:
Moving LOBL: 0.5-8km
Stationary
LOBL: 0.5-1km
Attempt LOBL: 1-2.5km
LOAL: 2.5-6km
LOAL TADS or IDM: 6-8km
```
52
Interpret "PROCEED C 10, ANGELS 6, REPORT ESTABLISHED"
South of ECHO 10NM at 6000' MSL
53
How long is an RFHO valid after sent via IDM?
6 minutes
54
DTED Level 0 -
DTED Level 1 -
DTED Level 2 -
DTED Level 0 - 1000 meters
DTED Level 1 - 100 meters
DTED Level 2 - 30 meters
55
What is the maximum launch altitude above a target a SAL should NOT be fired LOAL? (except R and P+)
>800 feet
56
Missile Launch constraints for a Romeo Missile in LOAL.
+/- 30 degrees
57
What may result if the gun duty cycle is not adhered to?
Catastrophic Failure, Loss of Aircraft, Injury or Death
58
M789 HEDP round will penetrate ___ inches of armor at ______ meters.
M789 HEDP round will penetrate 3 inches of armor at 3000 meters.
59
How many degrees in either direction can you use the 30mm before an AZ limit occurs?
86 degrees
60
What brevity term would indicate you are receiving good video from a UAS? Bad or No Video?
Good - HANDSHAKE
| Bad/None - HOLLOW
61
When conducting a dynamic harmonization with the 30mm, the target should be between ____ and ____ meters.
When conducting a dynamic harmonization with the 30mm, the target should be between 500 and 1500 meters.
62
Doppler Beam Sharpening will not occur at ranges under _____. High Range Resolution (HRR) is used to process targets at these ranges.
Doppler Beam Sharpening will not occur at ranges under 2500. High Range Resolution (HRR) is used to process targets at these ranges.
63
When is transmission of the 5-line Army Attach Call for Fire not considered clearance to fire?
DANGER CLOSE
| "AT MY COMMAND"
64
The JTAC clears you to maintain Delta 5 at cherubs 900. Where would you hold and at what altitude? Specify AGL/MSL and nm/km.
West at a minimum of 5NM - 900' AGL
65
How many degrees should you offset during an autonomous SAL hellfire engagement to avoid missile flying through TADS LOS?
3-5 degrees
66
CPG should lase a moving target for _____ to ensure the target state estimator (TSE) is receiving proper information.
CPG should lase a moving target for 3-5 seconds to ensure the target state estimator (TSE) is receiving proper information.
67
As a rule of thumb when employing illumination rockets, for each 10 knots of wind, a correction of ___ meters or a heading correction of __ degrees into the wind is required.
As a rule of thumb when employing illumination rockets, for each 10 knots of wind, a correction of 300m meters or a heading correction of 5 degrees into the wind is required.
68
The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission. The five tenets are _________. (DIDEA)
Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage, Assess
69
The _______ process is a series of progressive and interdependent steps (or actions) - target search, detection, location, and identification that lead to the decision process to engage or not engage.
Combat Identification Process (CID)
70
_____ is the process of attaining an accurate characteristic and discriminatory aspect of detected objects on the battlefield.
Target Identification
71
The gunner's triangle is a logical sequence which standardizes the engagement method, in the order of __________.
target, heading, range, store, weapons employment
72
Neutralization knocks the target out of the battle temporarily. ____ percent or more casualties usually neutralize most units.
10 percent
73
Destructive fires put the target out of action permanently. A unit with ____ percent or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective.
30 percent
74
The three target effect standards for armed helicopter engagements are _______.
Suppression
Neutralization
Destruction
75
What are the four kill standards classified as?
Mobility
Firepower
Combined Mobility and Firepower
Catastrophic
76
What are the four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters? I-EAT
Interior
Exterior
Aerial
Terminal
77
What are the interior ballistics? (BLTPP)
Barrel Wear / Launcher Tube Alignment / Thrust Misalignment / Propellant Charge / Projectile Weight
78
What are the exterior ballistics? (AGYPW)
Air Resistance / Gravity / Yaw / Projectile Drift / Wind Drift
79
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift on a projectile?
Time of Flight, Wind Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of a projectile
80
Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile's trajectory changing which increases drag. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?
near the muzzle and gradually subsides as the projectile stabilizes
81
______ is the exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right.
PROJECTILE DRIFT
82
Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to constitute the _______.
PORT-STARBOARD EFFECT
83
In general, at ranges ________, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges _______, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.
In general, at ranges LESS THAN 1000 METERS, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges GREATER THAN 1000 METERS, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.
84
_______ Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. Both are compensated for by the weapons TADS or FCR as the LOS.
PROJECTILE JUMP
85
_________ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon.
ANGULAR RATE ERROR
86
Angular rate error occurs when an aircrew fires rockets from a hover using the pitch-up delivery technique. Hover fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately _____ meters without changing the aircraft pitch attitude.
4500 meters
87
______ describes a projectile's characteristics and effects on the target.
TERMINAL BALLISTICS
88
Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle and surface conditions. These are examples of _____.
TERMINAL BALLISTICS
89
Angle of impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?
TERMINAL BALLISTICS
90
Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the _______.
Relative Wind Effect
91
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
Thrust Misalignment
| Rocket Spin
92
Maximum effective range is defined as ______
the longest range at which a weapon system has a 50% probability of hitting a target
93
What is the maximum velocity of the AGM-114 hellfire?
475 meters per second (MACH 1.4)
94
Running fire is defined as tasks that are conducted at maneuver speeds between _______.
50 knots and Vne
95
Running fire performed at airspeeds _____ will offer a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.
above ETL
96
Turret bending is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the 30mm. Turret bending compensation is applied by the WP: 1st RND ____, 2nd RND ____; 3rd RND ____.
1st - no compensation
2nd - 1/2 of the turret bending table value
3rd - full table
97
Rotor down-wash influence is reduced to zero at approximately ______ forward airspeed.
33 knots indicated
98
Ballistics algorithms automatically computer rotor downwash compensation for rockets based on gross weight, air density, and longitudinal airspeeds. However, it is assumed rocket launch is initiated at _____.
OGE altitudes
99
To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately _____ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.
8-10 km
100
When selecting the initial point for a running or diving fire attack it should be either a ________.
readily identifiable terrain feature or a TSD/C-Scope icon
101
Transmission of the 5-lin CCA brief (ground-to-air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a _____.
danger close situation
102
What are the 4 T's associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements?
Target Torque Trim Target
103
What are the two types of fire?
Direct and Indirect
104
What are the four modes of fire?
```
Hover Fire
Moving Fire (ETL but less than 40 knots)
Running Fire (40 knots to Vne)
Diving Fire (pitch attitude >10* below horizon, 40knots to Vne)
```
105
The five techniques of fire are ______.
hover fire, running fire, diving fire, low altitude bump, diving/running fire initial point
106
_______ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low altitude run-in with 300'-1,000' bump about 1500-2000 meters from the target.
Low Altitude Bump
107
After weapon's release the crew executes a turn away from the target. This maneuver is called the _____ formerly referred to as the "break".
PULL-OFF
108
Break Down "TPM-R"
Technique (Hover / Running / Diving / Low-Alt Bump)
Pattern (Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-Attack, Figure 8, Butterfly, 45-degree attack, Circular/Wheel)
Munitions
Range
109
The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology:
Shooter/Cover
Shooter/Shooter
Looker/Shooter
110
What is the technique used to adjust fires on target that requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target
Burst on Target (BOT)
111
What are the three techniques of applying burst on target corrections?
Recognition (Kentucky Windage)
Milliadian Relation
Laser Range Finder
112
What is the M789 HEDP risk estimate (danger close):
500m
1000m
1500m
500m - 75m
1000m - 95m
1500m - 115m
113
The M789 HEDP projectile is an ______ and _______ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles.
anti-material
| anti-personnel
114
The M789 round shaped charge warhead forms a high velocity jet for light armor penetration. Armor penetration ranges from ___ inches at 500m to ___ inches at 3000m.
1.5 inches at 500m
| 3 inches at 3000m
115
The M789 nominal burst radius is _____; however the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type
4 meters
116
The M789 round has a velocity of approximately ____ meters per second at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter. Engagements at greater than _____ meters can be heard by dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.
805 meters per second
| 2000 meters
117
What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?
5.8 seconds
118
When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid _______ when HMD is the selected sight.
manual range
119
Gun Duty Cycle: _____ round bursts w/ ____ between bursts followed by a ______ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than ____ rounds within ___ seconds before allowing the gun to cool for ___ minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
Gun Duty Cycle: 6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
120
WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___ minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ______. Crew members should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage: If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Crew members should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
121
30mm cannon max effective range is ______; the WP will provide a ballistic solution up to a range of _____.
1500-1700m
| 4200m
122
When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the AWS in FIXED mode, LOS INVALID becomes a ______ inhibit, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent.
performance
123
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of ____ left or right of the aircraft centerline, ___ degrees elevation (___ degrees within ___ of aircraft centerline) and ___ degrees depression.
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86 left or right of the aircraft centerline, +11 degrees elevation (+9 degrees within 10 of aircraft centerline) and -60 degrees depression.
124
True/False - Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating NVS FIXED mode.
TRUE
125
The 30mm is limited to ____ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.
+/- 60 degrees
126
The 30mm is limited to ___ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.
52 degrees
127
When does the LOS Reticle Flash?
Crewmember LOS invalid
NVS at the limits
Gun is selected and the gun system has failed or is not following crewmembers head
128
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground
129
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be _______. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.
stowed in elevation
130
What is the WARNING associated with the 30mm in reference to the gun duty cycle?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.
131
The software ballistic range limit for the 30mm is ____.
4200 meters
132
The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is _____.
1200 rounds
133
The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell holds a ____ round magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ____.
242 round ammunition storage magazine
| 300 rounds in total
134
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to _____ in elevation to prevent _____.
+11 degrees in elevation
| to prevent a dig-in during landing
135
In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ___. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______.
inhibited
return to the stowed position
136
The rate of fire for the 30mm is ____
625 +/- 25 rounds per minute
137
The AWS will _______ when operating in NVS FIXED mode.
continue to follow IHADSS LOS
138
What is the rotary wing risk estimate (danger close) for HE rockets?
300m -
800m -
1500m -
300m - 140m
800m - 210m
1500m - 305m
139
With hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A - 24
B - 8
E - 6
140
MPSM engagements at ranges less than ____ and / or speeds of greater than ____ are not authorized
1000 meters
| 90 knots
141
_______ is a safety inhibit that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.
ACCEL Limit
142
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ___ with two ____ launchers every ___ seconds or fire with only ____ outboard launcher installed without restrictions
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than PAIRS with two OUTBOARD launchers every THREE seconds or fire with only ONE outboard launcher installed without restrictions
143
Do not fire rockets with the M433 fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.
51 METERS
144
The flechette rocket detonates about ____ meters from the predetermined range.
400 meters
145
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD can be achieved at a range of approximately ____ meters without changing aircraft pitch angle.
4500 meters
146
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ____, and for all other flight conditions of ____, is not authorized.
7ft AGL
| 5ft AGL
147
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is ___ meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is ______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ___.
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is 800 meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is 1 to 3 km. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than 3KM.
148
The M257 Illumination (OVERT) warhead provides one million candlepower for ____ seconds or more.
100 seconds
149
The M278 IR Illumination (COVERT) warhead will provide IR light for ____.
three minutes
150
An offset of _____ degrees to the firing side should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.
3 - 5 degrees
151
What are the nine laser limiting factors? (SOAP-EU-BBB)
Spot Jitter / Overspill / Attenuation / Podium Effect / Entrapment / Underspill / Backscatter / Boresight Error / Beam Divergence
152
When the seeker LOS differs from the TADS LOS by more than ___ and the seeker is locked onto the autonomous laser spot, the LOBL constraints box will indicate an out-of-constraints condition.
2 degrees
153
To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL - Direct and use a minimum of _____ delay from missile separation (about ____ after trigger pull).
two seconds delay
| three seconds from trigger pull
154
The missile seeker has a ____ seeker limit from the missile centerline.
+/- 30 degree
155
LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range is ___
8km
156
LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is ___
7km
157
LOBL maximum engagement range is ____
7km
158
SAL II LOBL min engagement range:
0 degree offset:____
20 degree offset: ___
500 meters
| 700 meters
159
SAL II LOAL DIR min engagement range:
0 degree offset: ____
7.5 degree offset: ___
1500 meters
| 1700 meters
160
SAL II LOAL LO min engagement range:
0 degree offset: ____
20 degree offset: ____
2000 meters
| 2500 meters
161
SAL II LOAL HI min engagement range:
0 degree offset: ____
20 degree offset: ____
3500 meters
| 3500 meters
162
When SAL missiles are fired from more than ___ above the target's altitude, or if _______, fire the missile LOBL
800' above the target or if very short minimum ranges are required
163
Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ____ above the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.
800 feet
164
The LOBL missile constraints box is ____
+/- 20 degrees
165
The LOAL missile constraints box is _____
+/- 7.5 degrees
166
LOAL LO will clear a ____ mask with a ___ standoff
260 foot mask with a 600 meter standoff
167
LOAL HI will clear a ____ mask with a ___ standoff
1000 foot mask with a 1500 meter standoff
168
Arming can only occur when the missile's acceleration exceeds ___
10Gs
169
The fuze is armed between _____ meters from the launching platform for all hellfires except the AGM-114R, which is armed at _____.
150-300 meters
| 375-500 meters
170
If a _____ is on a launcher rail, the aircraft prevents ____ from being launched from that launcher.
training missile
| live missiles
171
All hellfire missiles consist of a ________ section.
guidance, warhead, propulsion, and control
172
What are the 5 operating modes of the SAL seeker?
Cage / Slave / Stare / Scan / Track
173
What are the 2 pilot-controlled guidelines to adhere to IOT minimize hellfire missile roll tipoff?
1) Load from the upper inboard rail and out for each launcher pylon
2) Higher launch airspeeds lower the probability of a roll tip-off
174
The firing trajectory that affords the lowest flight path for all missiles is ______
LOAL - DIR
175
During remote engagements, ensure designator offset angle does not exceed _____. Missile guidance performance is improved at designator angles of less than ____.
60 degrees
| 45 degrees
176
Targets shall be a minimum of ____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114 M / N / K2A missiles
800 meters
177
When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the __________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion.
ground just short of the target
178
Do not fly faster than _____ when firing the AGM-114 missiles
90 knots
179
The Hellfire-II designator exclusion zone is a three-dimensional, ____ cone which originates at the firing aircraft, extending outward to the maximum range of the missile.
30 degree
180
What three conditions will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed?
1) firing ACFT LRFD code does not match the PRI code
2) selected sight is HMD
3) Laser is OFF
