C3

Question 1

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
A. Barium examinations
B. Spine radiography
C. Skull radiography
D. Emergency and trauma radiography

Answer 1

D. Emergency and trauma radiography

Question 2

2.) The usual patient preparation for an upper GI
series is
A. clear fluids 8 h prior to exam.
B. NPO after midnight.
C. enemas until clear before exam.
D. light breakfast the day of the exam.

Answer 2

B. NPO after midnight.

Question 3

3.) Which of the following positions will most
effectively move the gallbladder away from the
vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
A. LAO
B. RAO
C. LPO
D. Erect

Answer 3

A. LAO

Question 4

4.) What is the best projection for the elbow joint,
to remove the proximal radius from
superimposition with the ulna and demonstrating
its articulation with the ulna and radial notch?
A. AP
B. Medial oblique
C. Lateral oblique
D. Partial flexion

Answer 4

C. Lateral oblique

Question 5

5.) What are the positions most commonly
employed for a radiographic examination of the
sternum?

1. Lateral
2. RAO
3. LAO
   A. 1 and 2 only
   B. 1 and 3 only
   C. 2 and 3 only
   D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 5

A. 1 and 2 only

Question 6

6.) The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves,
is termed the
A. median sagittal plane.
B. midcoronal plane.
C. sagittal plane.
D. transverse plane.

Answer 6

B. midcoronal plane.

Question 7

7.) What is the position of the hand when taking the lateral projection of the elbow joint?
A. The hand must be in lateral position
B. The hand must be supinated
C. The hand must be pronated
D. The hand must be in oblique position

Answer 7

A. The hand must be in lateral position

Question 8

8.) Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on
the ulna?
A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Medial oblique
D. Lateral oblique

Answer 8

D. Lateral oblique

Question 9

9.) Laquerriere-Pierquin Method is useful in
demonstrating the:
A. Glenohumeral joint
B. Scapular spine
C. Acromioclavicular joint
D. Clavicle

Answer 9

B. Scapular spine

Question 10

10.). All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except:
A. weight-bearing
B. RAO
C. LAO
D. PA

Answer 10

A. weight-bearing

Question 11

11.) The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
A. Scapular Y
B. AP scapula
C. Medial oblique elbow
D. Lateral oblique elbow

Answer 11

C. Medial oblique elbow

Question 12

12.) A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 12

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 13

13.) In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
A. Closed
B. Compound
C. Compression
D. Depressed

Answer 13

B. Compound

Question 14

14.) For the AP projection of the scapula, the
1. patient’s arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
2. patient’s elbow is flexed with the hand
supinated.
3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 14

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 15

15.) What method is being used to demonstrate the Optic Foramen?
A. Rhese Method
B. Waters Method
C. Hough Method
D. SMV Projection

Answer 15

A. Rhese Method

Question 16

16.) In the lateral projection of the knee, the
1. femoral condyles are superimposed.
2. patellofemoral joint is visualized.
3. knee is flexed about 20 to 30o.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 16

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 17

17.) Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO
position?
A. Hepatic flexure
B. Splenic flexure
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Ileocecal valve

Answer 17

B. Splenic flexure

Question 18

18.) Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Most prominent part of the greater
trochanter
C. Anterior superior iliac spine
D. Anterior inferior iliac spine

Answer 18

B. Most prominent part of the greater
trochanter

Question 19

19.) Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Lateral humerus
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 19

C. 3 only

Question 20

20.) In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5o cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the following
structures on the joint space?
A. Lateral femoral condyle
B. Medial femoral condyle
C. Patella
D. Tibial eminence

Answer 20

B. Medial femoral condyle

Question 21

21.) The two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate localization of the hip are the
A. anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and
symphysis pubis.
B. iliac crest and greater trochanter.
C. symphysis pubis and greater trochanter.
D. iliac crest and symphysis pubis.

Answer 21

A. anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and
symphysis pubis.

Question 22

22.) Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt
table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 22

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 23

23.) Reid’s baseline is also known as?
1. Anthropological baseline
2. Frankfort baseline
3. Infraorbitomeatal line
4. Orbitomeatal line
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above

Answer 23

C. 1, 2, 3

Question 24

24.) Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 24

C. 1 and 3 only

Question 25

25.) In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the 1. central ray is directed 12o cephalad. 2. MSP is 45o to the film. 3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 25

A. 1 and 2 only

Question 26

26.) Which of the following structures is (are) most likely to be demonstrated in a right lateral decubitus position of a double-contrast BE? 1. Lateral wall of the descending colon 2. Medial wall of the ascending colon 3. Lateral wall of the ascending colon A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

Answer 26

C. 1 and 2 only

Question 27

27.) Which of the following are appropriate techniques for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts. 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient. 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 27

C. 2 and 3 only

Question 28

28.) Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? A. AP knee B. Lateral knee C. Tangential patella D. "Tunnel" view

Answer 28

C. Tangential patella

Question 29

29.) Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? 1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally. 2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed. 3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 29

C. 2 and 3 only

Question 30

30.) All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the A. femur. B. tibia. C. fibula. D. mandible.

Answer 30

C. fibula.

Question 31

31.) The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the A. asthenic B. hyposthenic C. sthenic D. hypersthenic

Answer 31

A. asthenic

Question 32

32.) When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed A. 20 to 25o caudad. B. 20 to 25o cephalad. C. 30 to 35o caudad. D. 30 to 35o cephalad.

Answer 32

A. 20 to 25o caudad.

Question 33

33.) Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography? A. Synarthrodial B. Diarthrodial C. Amphiarthrodial D. Cartilaginous

Answer 33

B. Diarthrodial

Question 34

34.) Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position. 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

Answer 34

B. 1 and 2

Question 35

35.) In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? A. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot B. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis C. Oblique position of the foot D. Lateral foot

Answer 35

B. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

Question 36

36.) To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in A. the recumbent position. B. the erect position. C. the anatomic position. D. Fowler's position.

Answer 36

A. the recumbent position.

Question 37

37.) In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those A. nearest the film. B. furthest from the film. C. seen medially. D. seen inferiorly.

Answer 37

B. furthest from the film.

Question 38

38.) Which of the following localization lines are separated by 7o difference? A. GML and OML B. OML and IOML C. GML and IOML D. none of the above

Answer 38

B. OML and IOML

Question 39

39.) Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 39

A. 1 and 2 only

Question 40

40.) Angulation of the central ray may be required 1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures. 2. to avoid foreshortening or self- superimposition. 3. in order to project through certain articulations. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 40

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 41

41.) Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the film 2. Arm in external rotation 3. Humerus in AP position A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 41

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 42

42.) The following statements regarding Orthoroentgenography are not true, EXCEPT? A. This procedure is performed to measure the density of the lumbar vertebrae. B. This procedure is performed to determine accurate and comparative long bone measurements. C. This procedure is similar to Skeletal Survey for trauma patients. D. This procedure is performed to detect any abnormalities of the patient’s joints.

Answer 42

B. This procedure is performed to determine accurate and comparative long bone measurements.

Question 43

43.) Examination of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers method) requires 1. the use of the IOML. 2. the MSP to be rotated 45o. 3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and chin. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 43

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 44

44.) The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates 1. an oblique projection of the shoulder. 2. anterior or posterior dislocation. 3. a lateral projection of the shoulder. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

Answer 44

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 45

45.) Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder B. AP recumbent, both shoulders C. AP erect, affected shoulder D. AP erect, both shoulders

Answer 45

D. AP erect, both shoulders

Question 46

46.) How should the CR be directed in an AP projection of the foot? 1. Perpendicular to the cassette 2. 10 degrees angle towards the heel 3. directed to the base of 3rd metatarsal A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. all of the above

Answer 46

D. all of the above

Question 47

47.) The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the 1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa. 2. radial head free of superimposition. 3. coronoid process free of superimposition. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 47

C. 1 and 3 only

Question 48

48.) Haas Method is the reverse of what method? A. Caldwell Method B. Waters Method C. Towne Method D. Arcelin Method

Answer 48

C. Towne Method

Question 49

49.) The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the central ray be directed 1. 15o cephalad. 2. 2 in superior to the pubic symphysis. 3. midline at the level of the lesser trochanter. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

Answer 49

A. 1 only

Question 50

50.) During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate 1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach. 2. barium-filled fundus. 3. double-contrast body and antral portions. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 50

C. 2 and 3 only

Question 51

51.) In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45o A. toward the affected side. B. away from the affected side. C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position. D. with the arm in external rotation.

Answer 51

A. toward the affected side.

Question 52

52.) Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Apophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 52

A. 1 only

Question 53

53.) Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the A. AP projection. B. lateral projection. C. medial oblique projection. D. lateral oblique projection.

Answer 53

B. lateral projection.

Question 54

54.) Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue? A. A postpubertal adolescent B. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C. A menopausal woman D. A postmenopausal 65-year-old

Answer 54

A. A postpubertal adolescent

Question 55

55.) Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture and dislocation? A. Internal and external rotation B. AP and tangential C. AP and AP axial D. AP and scapular Y

Answer 55

D. AP and scapular Y

Question 56

56.) Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true? 1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female. 2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female. 3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 56

A. 1 only

Question 57

57.) Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)? 1. Gallbladder 2. Hepatic flexure 3. Cecum A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 57

C. 3 only

Question 58

58.) A "blowout" fracture is usually related to which of the following structures? A. Foot B. Elbow C. Orbit D. Pelvis

Answer 58

C. Orbit

Question 59

59.) How many degrees should the sole of the foot be angled in taking oblique projection of the foot? A. 20 degrees B. 25 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 45 degrees

Question 60

60.) During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the A. subdural space. B. subarachnoid space. C. epidural space. D. epidermal space.

Answer 60

B. subarachnoid space.

Question 61

61.) With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20o cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? A. Symphysis B. Rami C. Body D. Angle

Answer 61

B. Rami

Question 62

62.) The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the film 2. MSP perpendicular to the film 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the film A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 62

C. 1 and 3 only

Question 63

63.) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral disk spaces 2. C3-7 cervical bodies 3. Apophyseal joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 63

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 64

64.) What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? A. Spondylitis B. Spondylolysis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylosis

Answer 64

C. Spondylolisthesis

Question 65

65.) Stetcher method demonstrates what part of the carpal bones? 1. Scaphoid 3. Capitate 2. Navicular 4. Unciform A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 66

66.) A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture. 2. a foreign body. 3. soft tissue. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

Answer 66

C. 2 and 3 only

Question 67

67.) With the patient PA, MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37o angle with the film, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated? A. Occipital bone B. Frontal bone C. Facial bones D. Basal foramina

Answer 67

C. Facial bones

Question 68

68.) All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the A. femoral neck. B. pubic symphysis. C. greater trochanter. D. iliac crest.

Answer 68

A. femoral neck.

Question 69

69.) Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary portion of the ribs? A. Left lateral B. PA C. LPO D. RPO

Answer 69

C. LPO

Question 70

70.) When the patient position is in Camp Coventry Method, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? A. Patella B. Patellofemoral articulation C. Intercondyloid fossa D. Tibial tuberosity

Answer 70

C. Intercondyloid fossa

Question 71

71.) What is the best projection demonstrating the maxillary sinuses? A. ParietoAcanthial Projection B. Lateral Projection C. SubmentoVertico Projection D. PA Axial Projection

Question 72

72.) Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A. Radial flexion B. Ulnar flexion C. AP oblique D. PA projection

Answer 72

C. AP oblique

Question 73

73.) Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? A. AP B. 90o mediolateral C. 45o internal rotation D. 45o external rotation

Answer 73

C. 45o internal rotation

Question 74

74.) Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest? 1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized. 2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical. 3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 74

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 75

75.) To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to 1. use a 15o AP Trendelenburg position. 2. apply compression to the proximal ureters. 3. apply compression to the distal ureters. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

Answer 75

A. 1 only

Question 76

76.) To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's A. left side is elevated 40o. B. right side is elevated 40o. C. left side is elevated 15o. D. right side is elevated 15o.

Answer 76

A. left side is elevated 40o.

Question 77

77.) The medial oblique position of the foot demonstrates the A. Interspaces between the 1st and 2nd metatarsals B. Interspaces between the cuboid and calcaneus C. Interspaces between the medial and intermediate cuneiform D. The navicular is clearly seen

Question 78

78.) Albers Schonberg Method is used for the demonstration of the: A. atlas and axis B. C3-C7 C. C6-T3 D. whole cervical spine

Question 79

79.) Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 79

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 80

80.) Operative cholangiography may be performed to 1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm. 2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla. 3. examine the patency of the biliary tract. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 80

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 81

81.) Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture? A. Pyelonephrosis B. Nephroptosis C. Hydronephrosis D. Cystourethritis

Answer 81

C. Hydronephrosis

Question 82

82.) With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? A. Fifth metacarpal B. First metacarpal C. Distal radius D. Distal ulna

Answer 82

B. First metacarpal

Question 83

83.) In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical. 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia. 3. calcaneus is well visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 83

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 84

84.) Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? A. Tangential B. AP axial C. Transthoracic lateral D. (D) PA oblique scapular Y

Answer 84

D. (D) PA oblique scapular Y

Question 85

85.) Which of the following describes correct centering for the lateral position of a barium-filled stomach? A. Midway between the vertebrae and the left lateral margin of the abdomen B. Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen C. Midway between the midsagittal plane and the right lateral margin of the abdomen D. Midway between the midcoronal plane and the posterior surface of the abdomen

Answer 85

B. Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen

Question 86

86.) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography? 1. The patient is often examined in the semierect position. 2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot. 3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 86

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 87

87.) In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized. 2. talofibular joint is visualized. 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 87

C. 1 and 3 only

Question 88

88.) Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation? A. AP B. Lateral C. 30o RPO D. 45o LPO

Answer 88

C. 30o RPO

Question 89

89.) Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation. 2. post-traumatic swelling of the spinal cord. 3. internal disk lesions. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

Answer 89

C. 1 and 2 only

Question 90

90.) Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40o, central ray directed caudad 40o to the popliteal fossa 2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, i. perpendicular to tibia 3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10o lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 90

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 91

91.) Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Fibula A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 91

A. 1 and 2 only

Question 92

92.) Transthoracic Lateral Position is also known as? A. Cleaves Method B. Lawrence Method C. Pearson Method D. Tarrant Method

Question 93

93.) All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except! A. lateral rectum. B. AP axial rectosigmoid. C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen. D. RAO and LAO abdomen.

Answer 93

C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen.

Question 94

94.) Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder. 2. Review the patient's allergy history. 3. Check the patient's creatinine level. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 94

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 95

95.) The axiolateral position (Law method) of examining the mastoids uses which of the following? 1. IOML perpendicular to film 2. MSP parallel to the tabletop 3. 15o caudad angulation A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

Answer 95

D. 2 and 3 only

Question 96

96.) These methods are used to demonstrate the Intercondyloid fossa, EXCEPT! A. Holmblad Method B. Camp Coventry Method C. Kuchendorf Method D. Beclere Method

Question 97

97.) Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? A. Appendicitis B. Intussusception C. Regional enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Answer 97

B. Intussusception

Question 98

98.) Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull? 1. The head is rested on the extended chin. 2. The OML is perpendicular to the film. 3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 98

C. 1 and 3 only

Question 99

99.) To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette. 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible. 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 99

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 100

100.) Which of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest? A. Ventral decubitus position B. Dorsal decubitus position C. Left lateral decubitus position D. Right lateral decubitus position

Answer 100

C. Left lateral decubitus position