C4 Physical Examination of Urine Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

physical examination of urine includes:

A

color, clarity, & specific gravity

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2
Q

what is urochrome?

A

pigment causing yellow color

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3
Q

what is uroerythrin?

A

pink pigment, attaches to amorphous urates formed in refrigerated specimens

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4
Q

what is urobilin?

A

oxidation of normal constituent, urobilinogen, orange-brown color in older specimens

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5
Q

dark yellow and amber urine that is normal is?

A

concentrated urine

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6
Q

dark yellow and amber urine that is abnormal is?

A

bilirubin

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7
Q

bilirubin may indicate possible?

A

hepatitis virus present

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8
Q

Foam in urine indicates?

A

bilirubin produces yellow foam when shaken, normal urine produces small amounts of white foam caused by protein

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9
Q

Photooxidation of large amounts of urobilinogen produces what color urine?

A

yellow-orange

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10
Q

photooxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin produces what color urine?

A

yellow-green

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11
Q

Phenazopyridine (pyridium) or Azo-Gantrisin for UTIs produces?

A

thick orange pigment & yellow foam (no bilirubin)

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12
Q

What is a common cause of red urine?

A

Blood

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13
Q

Methemoglobin

A

RBCs remain in acid urine, fresh brown specimens can indicate glomerular bleeding

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14
Q

cloudy red urine?

A

RBCs

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15
Q

clear red urine?

A

hemoglobin/myoglobin

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16
Q

hemoglobin?

A

in vivo lysis of RBCs, pt plasma will also be red, consider in vitro lysis/specimen handling

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17
Q

Myoglobin

A

breakdown of skeletal muscle, fresh urine is often more reddish brown, patients plasma is clear

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18
Q

Port-wine colored urine?

A

oxidation of porphobilinogen to phorphyrias

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19
Q

Melanin

A

excess in malignant melanoma, oxidation of melanogen to melanin

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20
Q

Homogentisic acid

A

black color in alkaline urine, alkaptonuria

21
Q

What causes blue-green urine?

A

urinary and intestinal bacterial infections, IV phenol medications: Clorets (green), Robaxin, methylene blue, Elavil (blue)

22
Q

clarity

A

refers to the transparency or turbidity of a specimen

23
Q

Normal reporting of clarity

A

clear, hazy, cloudy, turbid, milky

24
Q

clear:

A

no visible particulates, transparent

25
hazy:
few particulates, print easily seen through urine
26
cloudy:
many particulates, print blurred through urine
27
turbid:
print cannot be seen through the urine
28
milky:
may precipitate or be clotted
29
causes of nonpathogenic turbidity:
squamous epithelial cells and mucus, bacterial growth in nonpreserved specimens, refrigerated specimens with precipitated amorphous phosphates (white) and urates (pink), contamination
30
causes of pathologic turbidity:
RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, nonsquamous epithelial cells, yeast, abnormal crystals, lymph fluid, lipids
31
Specific gravity
evaluation of urine concentration, determines if urine is concentrated enough to provide reliable screening results, the density of a solution compared with the density of an equal volume of distilled water at the same temp
32
Isothenuric:
SG of 1.010
33
Hyposthenuric
SG lower than 1.010
34
Hypersthenuric
SG higher than 1.010
35
Refractometer
measures velocity of light in air versus velocity of light in a solution
36
advantages of the refractometer
temperature compenstation not needed, small specimen size: 1 or 2 drops
37
osmole
1 g molecular weight of a substance divided by the number of particles into which it dissociates (= to MW of substance)
38
unit of measure used in the clincial lab is?
milliosmole (mOsm)
39
Reagent Strip SG
based on the change in pka (dissociation constant) of a polyelectrolyte in an alkaline medium
40
aromatic odor
normal
41
foul, ammonia-like odor
bacterial decomposition, UTI
42
fruity, sweet odor
ketones (DM, starvation, vomiting)
43
maple syrup odor
maple syrup urine disease
44
mousy odor
phenylketonuria
45
rancid odor
tyrosinemia
46
sweaty feet odor
isovaleric acidemia
47
cabbage odor
methionine malabsorption
48
bleach odor
contamination