CA Boards

Question 1

The heartworm antigen test detects what?

• Microfilaria
• Male worm
• Female adult worm capsule antigen
• L3

Answer 1

Female adult worm capsule antigen

Question 2

To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal tumor, what test should you use?

• ACTH stimulation
• Urine creatinine
• Low dose dexamethasone suppression
• High dose dexamethasone suppression

Answer 2

High dose dexamethasone suppression

• Suppresses plasma cortisol concentrations in most dogs with pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
• Fails to suppress plasma cortisol concentrations in animals with adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocoriticism

Question 3

A woman brings a litter of Dalmatian puppies to your clinic. How do you check if they are deaf?

• BAER test
• ELISA snap test
• Throw cotton ball in front of it
• Clap hands in front of it

Answer 3

BAER Test

The hearing test known as the brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) or brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) detects electrical activity in the cochlea and auditory pathways in the brain in much the same way that an antennadetects radio or TV signals or an EKG detects electrical activity of the heart.

Question 4

Performing an orchiectomy in a rabbit is dangerous because:

• Increased risk of hemorrhage compared to dogs/cats
• Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings
• Increased anesthetic needed for sedation

Answer 4

Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings

Question 5

What drug can you use for parasite control in reptiles?

• Ivermectin
• Praziquantal
• Pyrantel
• Organophosphates

Answer 5

Ivermectin

• Don’t use ivermectin in turtles or tortoises (Chelonians)
• Can also use fenbendazole

Question 6

Horse with myositis from IM injection. What besides C. difficile causes myositis?

• Staphylococcus spp.
• Streptococcus spp.
• Clostridium novyi
• Clostridium hemolyticum

Answer 6

Clostridium novyi

• Also C. difficile, perfringens, and chauvoei

Question 7

A horse has increased lacrimation, blepharospasm, episcleral injection, corneal edema and photophobia. There is no uptake of flourescein dye. What is the most likely differential?

• Uveitis
• Entropion
• Glaucoma
• Corneal ulcer

Answer 7

Uveitis

Question 8

What are the recommendations for tetanus vaccination in older horses?

• Vaccinate when wounded
• Vaccinate infrequently because older horses have an increased sensitivity to vaccine
• Vaccinate yearly
• Vaccinate semi-annually

Answer 8

Vaccinate yearly

Question 9

Ivermectin is ineffective against which parasite?

• Anoplocephala
• Parascaris
• Strongyles
• Cyanthosotomes

Answer 9

Anoplocephala (equine tapeworm)

• Ivermectin is effective against pretty much everything but NOT TAPEWORMS

Question 10

To perform an emergency tracheotomy in a horse, you should:

• Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament
• Make a horizontal incision through a cartilage ring
• Make a vertical incision through 2 cartilage rings
• Make a 2cm horizontal window in trachea

Answer 10

Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament

Question 11

In a mare with a uterine torsion, you will:

• See right flank swelling
• See left flank swelling
• Visualize twisted vagina/cervix
• Feel broad ligament over uterus

Answer 11

Feel broad ligament over uterus

Question 12

Which anesthesia should you not use in a horse?

• Xylazine, ketamine, diazepam
• Atropine, acepromazine, halothane
• Dobutamine, guaifenesin
• Dobutamine, ketamine, diazepam

Answer 12

Atropine, acepromazine, halothane

• Don’t use atropine and ace together!

Question 13

Pony presents with signs of COPD. Pony spends most of time in stall but is out on pasture 2 days a week. What recommendations do you give the owner?

• Stall confinement
• Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food
• Change bedding, keep in stall
• Put out to pasture a little more and switch to grass feed

Answer 13

Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food

Question 14

A pony with COPD is kept in a wooden barn and has access to pasture twice a week. Besides medication, how else would you treat?

• Dirt paddock, baled hay, regular exercise
• Pasture 50%, hay in open manger, regular exercise
• Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially
• Keep in barn, sun-cured baled hay, limited exercise initially

Answer 14

Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially

Question 15

What is the cause of synchronous diaphragmatic flutters?

• Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances
• Hypoglycemia
• Exercise induced

Answer 15

Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances

Question 16

When should you move a mare to a different farm before foaling in order for the mare to develop Ig to the local pathogens?

• 4-6 weeks
• 8-10 weeks
• 12-14 weeks
• 16-18 weeks

Answer 16

4-6 weeks

Question 17

When should artificial lighting program begin in order to achieve the best ovulation in a horse?

• December 1
• March 1
• 30 days before ovulating

Answer 17

December 1st

(8-10 weeks before breeding season)

Question 18

A horse with vesicles around mouth, what should you do?

• Call local public health vet
• Call state vet
• Give antibiotics
• Quarantine

Answer 18

Call state vet

Question 19

A 12 year old barren mare has purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following is contraindicated for diagnosis?

• Abdominocentesis
• Transrectal ultrasound
• Endometrial cytology and culture
• Vaginal and cervical exam with speculum

Answer 19

Abdominocentesis

Question 20

You can get the best view while performing an equine oral exam if you use a(n):

Answer 20

Full mouth speculum

Question 21

When do you administer prostaglandin to a cow and when will she come into estrus?

Answer 21

When she has an active CL

Will come into estrus in 3-7 days

Question 22

Where would you take a pulse in the horse?

• External carotid, lateral thoracic, median
• Facial, femoral, external carotid
• Median, external iliac, digital
• Facial, digital, metatarsal

Answer 22

Facial, digital, metatarsal

Question 23

What is an RVT not allowed to do in CA?

• Place a cast
• Take a skin punch biopsy
• Suture a pre-existing incision
• Induce anesthesia

Answer 23

Take a skin punch biopsy

RVTs can induce anesthesia, apply casts/splints, dental extractions, suture, and place catheters

Question 24

How do you diagnose mammary hyperplasia in cats?

Answer 24

Punch biopsy

Question 25

Horse with history of gradual, persistent weight loss. Which is **_not_** important to ask owner? * History of colic * Oleander exposure * Deworming history

Answer 25

**Oleander exposure** *Oleander is acute! The other 2 are very important to ask.*

Question 26

Which can you feel on normal rectal palpation of horse with abdominal discomfort? * Urinary bladder, spleen, base of cecum * Urinary bladder, transverse colon, apex of cecum * Stomach, transverse colon, base of cecum * Stomach, spleen, base of cecum

Answer 26

**Urinary bladder, spleen, base of cecum**

Question 27

Three year old horse with bilateral, mandibular symmetrical, non-painful swellings. What is it? * Tooth root abscess * Dental caries * Permanent tooth eruption * Interdental feed impaction

Answer 27

**Permanent tooth eruption**

Question 28

What do you do when a horse that you are treating with TMS becomes anorexic and develops diarrhea? * Stop TMS, CBC, IV fluids, banamine, oral adsorbents, endotoxin treatment (banamine + plasma) * Continue TMS, CBC, banamine * Stop TMS, chemistry, Bute * Continue TMS, chemistry, Bute

Answer 28

**Stop TMS, CBC, IV fluids, banamine, oral adsorbents, endotoxin treatment (banamine + plasma)** *TMS causes typhocolitis*

Question 29

Yearling is being fed diet consisting of 8% protein, 0.6% Ca, and 0.1% phosphorus. This diet is: * Adequate in protein and Ca:P * Deficient in protein, but adequate in Ca:P * Adequate in protein, but deficient in Ca:P * Deficient in protein and Ca:P

Answer 29

**Deficient in protein and Ca:P** * Protein= 14-16% * Ca= 1% * P= 0.75% * Ca:P= 3:1

Question 30

An 8 year old Warmblood presents with signs of colic. You are unable to perform a rectal exam, abdominocentesis, or gastric reflux. What drugs would you use? * Xylazine and acepromazine * Xylazine and butorphanol * Detomidine and atropine * Ketamine and valium

Answer 30

**Xylazine and butorphanol**

Question 31

A 2 year old Quarterhorse shows signs of intermittent muscle fasciculations, weakness, recumbency, facial spasms. These signs are reduced following administration of IV Calcium gluconate, Bicarb, dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet? * Increase protein, decrease carbohydrates, supplement with Ca, P and molasses * Acetazolamide, vitamin supplementation * Feed more beet pulp * Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture, feed often, exercise frequently

Answer 31

**Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture, feed often, exercise frequently** *(HYPP)*

Question 32

A 24 hr-old white foal was normal at birth, but has not passed any feces and is now inappetent. What do you do? * Euthanize immediately * Give mineral oil * Perform a pelvic flexure enterotomy * Give fluids

Answer 32

**Euthanize immediately**

Question 33

In a horse with exercise intolerance, which of the following is associated with increasing age? * Allergic bronchitis * Bacterial pneumonia * Selenium/vitamin E deficiency * VSD

Answer 33

**Allergic bronchitis** *Treat by putting out to pasture, feed moistened food, and initially restrict exercise*

Question 34

What is the most common cause of food material coming out of a horse’s nose? * Pharyngeal paralysis * Sphenopalatine bone fracture * Esophageal obstruction * Guttural pouch empyema

Answer 34

**Esophageal obstruction**

Question 35

A BAR 7 year old Holstein cow with lymphadenopathy is unable to rise. After diagnosis, what should you do? * Recommend flotation therapy * IV administration of Ca gluconate * Euthanasia * Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories

Answer 35

**Euthanasia**

Question 36

What food animal species is susceptible to malignant hyperthermia from inhalation of anesthetic halogens? * Cattle * Swine * Sheep * Goats

Answer 36

**Swine**

Question 37

What is the best diagnostic test for nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) in a 4 month old Suffolk ewe? * CSF selenium * Whole blood selenium * Plasma selenium * Urine selenium

Answer 37

**Whole blood selenium** *Definitive diagnosis is based on demonstration of low whole blood selenium (normal range \>0.1 ppm)*

Question 38

If you need to perform surgery on a distal extremity of a cow, what technique should you use? * Epidural * Distal nerve block

Answer 38

**Distal nerve block**

Question 39

What one finds on necropsy with bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater disease): * Hepatic infarct * Renal infarct * Splenic infarct

Answer 39

**Hepatic infarct** *C. novyi can infect cows after liver biopsy or fluke migration*

Question 40

Antibiotics for 2 day old septicemic calf? * Ceftiofur * Gentamicin * Penicillin G * NSAIDs

Answer 40

**Ceftiofur**

Question 41

Herd of pregnant ewes moved to a new pasture. Some are sick/recumbent/dead. Recommendations?

Answer 41

**Increase energy in food And supplement feed**

Question 42

What would you expect to see with a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow? * Exophthamos and miosis * Exophthalmos and mydriasis * Endophthalmos and miosis * Endophthalmos and mydriasis

Answer 42

**Exophthalmos, mydriasis, corneal anesthesia**

Question 43

What is the most important first step to do when treating foot rot (F*usobacterium necrphorum*)? * Bandage * Systemic antibiotics and local wound therapy * Wire claws together * Foot block

Answer 43

**Systemic antibiotics and local wound therapy**

Question 44

How to surgically correct LDA? * Left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy * Left paralumbar fossa omentopexy and paralumbar fossa abomasopexy * Right-sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy * Right sided omentopexy and left sided omentopexy

Answer 44

**Left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy**

Question 45

A pregnant cow is BAR and has schizont emphysematous schistasomus reflex calf. What do you do? * C-section * Euthanize cow because of poor prognosis * Fetotomy * Manually remove calf

Answer 45

**Fetotomy**

Question 46

It is February in a CA dry lot dairy, 15% of cows have matted fur crusty lesions on their backs. What is the most likely cause of the problem? * Photosensitization * Dermatophilus congelensis * Chorioptes * Trichophyton verricosum

Answer 46

***Dermatophilus congelensis***

Question 47

Signs of bluetongue in cattle? * None * Oral ulcers * Abortion and congenital defects * Cough and increased respiratory rate

Answer 47

**None** *See clinical signs of bluetongue in sheep!*

Question 48

Which of the following is consistent with signs of heart failure, thoracic edema and swollen liver in dairy calves? * Nitrate toxicity * Urea toxicity * Copper toxicity * Gossypol toxicity

Answer 48

**Gossypol toxicity - cardiotoxic!**

Question 49

Bull presents with infertility and cardiac disease. What did they eat?

Answer 49

**Cottonseed**

Question 50

One of your clients has several yearling Dorset lambs that came down with dictyocaulus this season (lungworm). What changes in management do you recommend? * Use of molluscicides * Sulfathiazole added to the feed * Move flock to dry ground/dry pasture * Implement early wean, medication protocol

Answer 50

**Move flock to dry ground/dry pasture**

Question 51

You are performing a necropsy on a 6 month old angus steer. On inspecting the brain tissue with a UV light you get fluorescence. What disease does this finding suggest? * TEME * Salt poisoning * Polioencephalomalacia * Lead poisoning

Answer 51

**Polioencephalomalacia**

Question 52

You are performing surgery on the distal extremity of a cow. What anesthetic technique is most appropriate? * Lumbar epidural * Sacral epidural * Perineal block * IV local block/Distal nerve block (Baer block)

Answer 52

**IV local block/Distal nerve block (Baer block)**

Question 53

Which agent is transmitted venereally in a horse? * Staphylcoccus aureus * Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus * E. coli * Klebsiella

Answer 53

***Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus*** * *Causes abortion, infertility, and placentitis* * *Most common infectious cause of infertility*

Question 54

How do you store the brain of a rabies suspect?

Answer 54

**Refrigerate in airtight container**

Question 55

What is the minimum age when a horse has all of its permanent dentition?

Answer 55

**5 years**

Question 56

What is the best way to control *Strongylus vulgaris* in a horse ranch with high stocking of 0.25 acres/horse? * Double dose of antihelmintics * Rotate pastures by age of horse * Clean up and compost manure biweekly * Fertilize and keep pasture lush

Answer 56

**Clean up and compost manure biweekly**

Question 57

You suspect a horse has pleuropneumonia and pleuritis; how would you verify this? * Lung FNA * Thoracic ultrasound * Pleuroscopy * Thoracic ultrasound and percussion

Answer 57

**Thoracic ultrasound and percussion** *Dull resonance on percussion*

Question 58

How do you treat duodenal and stomach ulcers in a horse as a once a day treatment? * Sucralfate * Ranitidine * Omeprazole * Aluminum magnesium hydroxide

Answer 58

**Omeprazole (q24h)** * Sucralfate is q6h * Ranitidine is q8h

Question 59

What factors predispose horses to urolithiasis? * Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial * Exercise level, nutrition, gender, bacterial * Viral disease, nutrition, exercise, gender * Urine constituents, viral disease, gender, exercise level

Answer 59

**Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial**

Question 60

What drug would provide effective treatment for Gasterophilus? * Ivermectin/moxidectin * Praziquantel * Pyrantel * Fenbendazole

Answer 60

**Ivermectin/moxidectin**

Question 61

A horse present with a swollen sheath that is painful upon urination. A lesion is palpable and has yellow granules in it. What is likely diagnosis? * SCC * Pseudomonas cellulites * Granulation tissue * Habronemiasis

Answer 61

**Habronemiasis**

Question 62

What can you give to a mare to decrease OCD in her foal? * Supplement calcium * Supplement phosphorus * Supplement copper * Supplement zinc * Supplement iodine

Answer 62

**Supplement copper**

Question 63

A female intact horse is anestrus and is mounting other females. In addition to a rectal exam and ultrasound, what would you do to determine her reproductive status? * Vaginoscopy * Uterine culture * Endometrium biopsy * Endocrine assay

Answer 63

**Endocrine assay** * Could be persistent ovarian follicle or granulosa cell tumor. * Inhibin levels are higher than normal in 90% of cases * Testosterone levels are elevated in 50-60% of cases * Usually elevated if theca cells are present in the tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumor) * Progesterone levels usually normal

Question 64

Which of the following practices would predispose a horse to *S. vulgaris* infection. What is the treatment? * Dry pasture, milbemycin/avermectin * Dry pasture, benzimdazole * Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/avermectin * Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

Answer 64

**Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole** **Irrigated pasture** would predispose a horse to *S. vulgaris* infection. The treatment is **benzimidazoles**.

Question 65

You auscultate a horse with decreased gut sounds, intermittent diarrhea, and scratchy ventral abdominal sounds. Likely diagnosis? * Intussusception * Enterolith * Sand * Strangulating lipoma

Answer 65

**Sand**

Question 66

Which disease is **_not_** reportable in California? * Equine infectious anemia * VSV * EPM * Equine encephalitis

Answer 66

**EPM** * Equine infectious anemia - 2 days * VSV - 24 hrs * Equine encephalitis - 2 days

Question 67

A horse has a retained placenta; what is a likely sequela? * Laminitis * Uterine torsion * Anaphylaxis

Answer 67

**Laminitis**

Question 68

What plant causes necrosis of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra in a horse? * Yellow star thistle * Lupine * Astragalus * Pine Oak

Answer 68

**Yellow star thistle**

Question 69

What are male neonate foals predisposed to? * Urolith * UTI * Ruptured bladder * E. coli

Answer 69

**Ruptured bladder**

Question 70

Goat with epididymitis. What should you do? * Cull the goat * Treat with tetracycline * Vaccinate for Brucella ovis * Advise that it be rested sexually

Answer 70

**Cull the goat** *Could be brucella mellitensis*

Question 71

A cow is recumbent, bellowing, salivating, has no anal or tail tone and has tonic-clonic seizures. Its tongue is flaccid. It has a menace buts its pupils are mydriatic. Its CSF has high protein with lots of mononuclear cells. What is the likely cause? * Botulism * Rabies * Polioencephalomalcia * TEME

Answer 71

**Rabies**

Question 72

Which disease is **_not_** likely to be foodborne in soft cheese? * TB * Brucella * Leukosis * Listeria

Answer 72

**Leukosis** * Bovine Leukosis is in milk, but not zoonotic* * BLT: Brucella, Listeria, Tuberculosis*

Question 73

There is an outbreak of *Moraxella bovis* in a free-range herd. What is the best treatment option? * Topical gentamicin spray * Subconjunctival injection of oxytetracycline * IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline

Answer 73

**IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline**

Question 74

What is the current status of Brucella and TB California? * Brucella free; TB free * Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free * Modified accredited Brucella, TB free * TB free; brucella level B

Answer 74

**Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free**

Question 75

How do you prevent contagious mastitis? * Wipe down teat before milking with iodine solution * Dip the teat post-milking * Spray the cow’s udder * Milking machine rate 60/40

Answer 75

**Dip the teat post-milking** * *Environmental - pre dip* * *Contagious - post dip*

Question 76

What is the best restraint technique for pregnancy checks on 100 nervous cattle? * Sedate with xylazine * Close in stanchion * Squeeze chute * Tie to wall

Answer 76

**Squeeze chute**

Question 77

There is a bulk tank SCC of 800,000. What do you do? * Culture the bulk tank on chocolate agar and Mycoplasma medium mastitis pathogens on chocolate * Culture the milk of mastitis cows * Culture the milk of all cows * CMT of all cows

Answer 77

**Culture the milk of all cows**

Question 78

How do you treat *Actinobacillus ligneresii*?

Answer 78

**Sodium iodide**

Question 79

A 6 month old calf died and on necropsy you see diffuse pleural edema and interstitial pneumonia. What is the cause? * Mannheimia hemolytica * Parainfluenza-3 * BRSV * IBR

Answer 79

**BRSV - diffuse interstitial pneumonia and emphysema** * *Mannheimia hemolytica - fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia* * *Parainfluenza-3 - cranioventral lung consolidation, bronchiolitis, alveolitis with marked congestion and hemorrhage* * *IBR – pleuritis, placentitis*

Question 80

You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent? * Brucella * IBR * BVD * Leptospirosis

Answer 80

**Leptospirosis**

Question 81

There is a 70% abortion rate in unvaccinated cows in the 3rd term, with retained placenta and placentitis. What is the cause? * Neospora * IBR * BVD * Brucella

Answer 81

**IBR**

Question 82

What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency? * Xylazine * Ketamine * Acepromazine * Morphine

Answer 82

**Xylazine**

Question 83

What will you see with a sweet potato toxicity in a cow? * GI signs * CNS signs * Respiratory signs * Musculoskeletal signs

Answer 83

**Respiratory signs** *4-ipomeanol = pneumotoxin​*

Question 84

How does milk get contaminated with *Salmonella dublin*? * Contamination from equipment * Bulk tank contamination * From milkers’ hands * From carrier cows

Answer 84

**From carrier cows​**

Question 85

Treatment for parakeratosis in cow?

Answer 85

**Zinc oxide​**

Question 86

You see a goat that doesn’t want to lower its head to eat, is mildly depressed and ataxic, and has pain with neck manipulation. What is likely disease? * Polioencephalomalacia * Cervical abscess * Botulism * CAE

Answer 86

**Cervical abscess**

Question 87

What would you palpate on day 55 of a cow’s pregnancy? * Placentomes * Fremetus in middle uterine artery * Uterine fluid * Membrane slip

Answer 87

**Membrane slip​** * Confirm pregnant by 28 days vis US * Membrane slip=30 * Fetus= 60, but may be out of reach til 7 months * Placentome= 70-90 * Fremitus= 90-120 (ipsilateral at 120, bilateral at 7 months)

Question 88

Which treatment would be **_contraindicated_** for a cow with a retained placenta/ fetal membranes (\>24hrs)? * Oxytetracycline diluted with water * Flush with chlorhexidine * Do nothing * Manual removal

Answer 88

**Manual removal**

Question 89

A 1-2 week old calf has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause? * Rotavirus * Coccidia * Johne’s * Mycoplasma pleuropneumonia

Answer 89

**Rotavirus​**

Question 90

Castration will **_not_** decrease incidence in a dog of which disease? * Bacterial prostatitis * Benign hyperplasia * Prostatic neoplasia * Male feminization

Answer 90

**Prostatic neoplasia​**

Question 91

What kind of rattlesnake bite would be the worst scenario? * Small snake, bite to torso, spring * Small snake, bite to torso, fall * Large snake, bite to muzzle, spring * Large snake, bite to muzzle, fall

Answer 91

**Small snake, bite to torso, spring**

Question 92

You see a 2 year old intact cat that has enlarged mammary glands of 3 cm. The cat is BAR, has unremarkable abdomen on palpation and an otherwise normal physical exam. What is your likely diagnosis? * Pregnant * Mastitis * Mammary adenocarcinoma * Benign mammary hyperplasia

Answer 92

**Benign mammary hyperplasia​**

Question 93

How would you diagnose salmon poisoning? * Knott’s test * Blood culture * Fecal culture * Fecal float

Answer 93

**Fecal float​** * Float: Nanophytes salmincola fluke eggs * Snail --\> fish --\> dog * LN aspirate for intracellular neorickettsia organism

Question 94

What would you advise the owner of a large breed puppy? * Don’t supplement phosphorus * Don’t supplement calcium * Supplement vitamin A * Supplement vitamin D

Answer 94

**Don’t supplement calcium** *Will grow too fast and cause skeletal malformations and OCD​*

Question 95

What is the incubation period of Chlamydophila in a parrot?

Answer 95

**42 days​** *BIRDS NEED TO BE TREATED WITH DOXYCYLINE IN WATER FOR 45 days​*

Question 96

How long do you hold a non-vaccinated dog in quarantine after the dog has bitten a person? * 3 days * 10 days * 20 days * 30 days

Answer 96

**10 days** *If dog is exposed, isolate for 45 days if vaccinated or 6 months if unvaccinated*

Question 97

When you put an obese cat on a diet, what should you emphasize to the owner? * Restrict to a low fiber diet * Restrict water intake * Make sure the cat eats every day * Make the cat exercise

Answer 97

**Make sure the cat eats every day​** *Prevent hepatic lipidosis​!*

Question 98

A dog comes in with myiasis to the perineal areas. What is the best way to treat? * Ivermectin * Manual removal * Suture the ulcerated skin closed

Answer 98

**Manual removal​**

Question 99

Who is in charge of radiation safety in the clinic?

Answer 99

**Supervising veterinarian​**

Question 100

What schedule class of drug requires triplicate forms for the DEA?

Answer 100

**Class II​**

Question 101

What is a common complication of a molar tooth extraction in a dog? * Oronasal fistula * Root fracture * Periapical abscess

Answer 101

**Root fracture​**

Question 102

What agent is not zoonotic? * Toxoplasmosis * Cryptosprodium * Campylobacter * Brucella * Salmonella dublin

Answer 102

***Salmonella dublin​***

Question 103

Mushrooms eaten by a dog cause what signs? * CNS signs * Liver toxicity * Renal toxicity * Cardiac toxicity

Answer 103

**Liver toxicity**

Question 104

Which analgesic can be used safely in cats? * Ibuprofen * Acetaminophen * Butorphanol tartrate * Flunixin megalumine

Answer 104

**Butorphanol tartrate​**

Question 105

What procedure would be effective for a dog with chronic otitis externa?​ * Lateral ear resection/TECA * Bulla osteotomy * Pinnal resection * Laser epilation

Answer 105

**Lateral ear resection/TECA**

Question 106

How do you safely do an oral exam on an aggressive young healthy Rottweiler? * Tell technician to restrain him * Ask owner to muzzle him * Give acepromazine IM * Give medetomidine IM

Answer 106

**Give medetomidine IM​**

Question 107

Why are drugs like xylazine, medetomidine, and detomidine good to use? * They have a wide margin of safety * They have a reversal agent * They are inexpensive * They sound cool

Answer 107

**They have a reversal agent​**

Question 108

How do you treat conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia in a cat? * Tetracycline * Clavamox * Bacitracin * Neomycin

Answer 108

**Tetracycline​**

Question 109

Gold standard of diagnosis of chlamydia in birds:

Answer 109

**Culture and isolation of organism**

Question 110

What is the most frequent cause of corneal ulcers in a cat?

Answer 110

**Herpesvirus​**

Question 111

What is the poison found in snail bait? * Strychinine * Metaldehyde * Warfarin * Coumarin

Answer 111

**Metaldehyde​** *Rat bait = Strychnine, warfarin, and coumarin*

Question 112

What is the youngest legal age to take a radiograph?

Answer 112

**18 years​**

Question 113

What is the reversal agent for detomidine? * Naloxone * Atropine * Yohimbine

Answer 113

**Yohimbine​**

Question 114

A daschund comes in with a diffusely hyperechoic and highly granular liver on ultrasound. It has elevated ALT, ALP, and cholesterol. What other organ would you expect to be affected? * Liver * Kidney * Adrenal * Pancreas

Answer 114

**Adrenal​** *Indicative of Cushings​*

Question 115

A dog comes in with a head tilt, horizontal nystagmus with fast phase to the left and no CP deficits. Where is the lesion? * Right peripheral vestibular * Right central vestibular * Left peripheral vestibular * Left central vestibular

Answer 115

**Right peripheral vestibular**

Question 116

Outdoor dog with a clean hole under its eye that is non-painful? * Musca * Foxtail * Tooth root abscess

Answer 116

**Foxtail​**

Question 117

An owner brings in a dog and you diagnose it with pulmonary coccidiomycosis. What do you tell the owner? * Quarantine the dog for 2 months * There is little threat to the owner * Euthanize the dog

Answer 117

**There is little threat to the owner​** *Pulmonary form is not zoonotic​*

Question 118

What is the likely disease of a baby rabbit with diarrhea and how should you treat? * Tyzzer’s; tetracycline * Coccidia; sulfadimethoxine * Salmonella; oral antibiotics * Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics

Answer 118

**Tyzzer’s; tetracycline​** *Tyzzer’s = Clostridium piliformis ​*

Question 119

**Mucoid Enteropathy in Rabbits:** Diarrhea as result of a mixture of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Treatment is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 119

Diarrhea as result of a mixture of **_constipation, toxins and non-specific bacteria_**. Treatment is to **_increase fiber_**.

Question 120

A parrot eats tomato, avocado, lima beans, lettuce and chicken. It is now in respiratory distress. What part of the diet is responsible? * Lima bean * Avocado * Tomato * Chicken * Lettuce

Answer 120

**Avocado​** *Avocado = respiratory toxin​*

Question 121

What is the most likely diagnosis of a mass on a dog tonsil? * Histiocytoma * Osteosarcoma * SCC * Lymphoma * Fibrosarcoma

Answer 121

**SCC**

Question 122

You suspect a cat has toxoplasmosis. How do you confirm the diagnosis? * Serology (IgG and IgM) * Fecal flotation * SNAP test * PCR

Answer 122

**Serology (IgG and IgM)** * *IgM goes up first, then IgG later* * *IgM goes up first 1:2000, then IgG later (do paired)*

Question 123

How do you diagnose a bird with Trichomoniasis? * Direct smear of feces * Wet mount of crop/esophagus contents * Fecal float * Direct smear of intestinal/cecal loop

Answer 123

**Wet mount of crop/esophagus contents​** *Lives in sinuses, mouth, throat*

Question 124

Dog comes back from woods with a symmetrically swollen face, lips, and eyes. What is your diagnosis and treatment? * Snakebite; anti-venom * Allergy; steroids and diphenhydramine * Puppy strangles; antibiotics * Brown recluse spider * Electric cord shock; antibiotics

Answer 124

**Allergy; steroids and diphenhydramine​** * Puppy strangles – antibiotics and pred (usually 3 weeks to 4 months) * Allergic reaction – dex sp and diphenhydramine * Snake bite – antivenin, IV catheter, LRS and antibiotics * Electric cord shock – antibiotics and cold pack

Question 125

A dog went camping 7 days ago and is now febrile, anorexic, vomiting and having diarrhea. What is the diagnosis? * Parvovirus * Leptospirosis * Salmon poisoning * Ehrlichia

Answer 125

**Salmon poisoning**

Question 126

Which test would change first with warfarin toxicity? * FDP * ACT * PT * PTT

Answer 126

**PT**

Question 127

What is the most important parameter to monitor during anesthesia? * Cardiac electrical activity * Arterial blood pressure * Respiration * Heart rate * Mucous membrane color

Answer 127

**Arterial blood pressure**

Question 128

An intact 5 year old male cat with severe stomatitis likely has what disease? * FIP * FeLV * FIV * Herpesvirus

Answer 128

**FIV​**

Question 129

A dog has been HBC and comes in obtunded, in shock, with loss of deep pain and anal tone, paralysis in all four limbs. What do you tell the owner? * Has cervical lesions * Has an intracranial lesion * You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later * Has severe neurologic deficits with poor prognosis

Answer 129

**You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later**

Question 130

How do you diagnose FIP in a cat with ascites? * Cytology of abdominal fluid * FeCV titer * FeCV fluid * Biopsy and histopathology

Answer 130

**Biopsy and histopathology** *Will see pyogranulomatous inflammation*

Question 131

You see a 5 year old Persian with elevated BUN, creatinine, phosphorus and isosthenuria. Radiographs show bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is your likely diagnosis? * Ethylene glycol toxicity * Renal failure * Polycystic kidney disease * Pyelonephritis

Answer 131

**Polycystic kidney disease**

Question 132

Dog with isosthenuria, hematuria, vomiting. DX?

Answer 132

**Ethylene glycol​**

Question 133

A Doberman HBC with dyspnea and open fractures. What is your primary treatment and diagnostic plan? * Anesthetize for rads and wound repair * Control hemorrhage and give pain medications * Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds * Anesthetize for fracture repair

Answer 133

**Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds​**

Question 134

Soft tissue swelling under eye of dog * Foxtail under 3rd eyelid * Infraction of nasolacrimal duct * Abscess of maxillary PM4 * Fracture of maxillary PM4

Answer 134

**Abscess of maxillary PM4​**

Question 135

An adult female chinchilla presents to your clinic. She attempts to escape and in doing so you tear a chunk of fur off her flank and reveal normal healthy skin. What do you do? * Ask owner about previous estrus activity * Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip” * Do a cellophane test and check for ectoparasties * Do a dermatophyte test

Answer 135

**Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip”​**

Question 136

An 8 year old boxer has tachycardia, pulse deficits and a cough. What is the most likely diagnosis? * Pheochromocytoma * Atrial fibrillation * Mitral valve regurgitation

Answer 136

**Atrial fibrillation​**

Question 137

What is the distribution of Cheyletiellosis? * Dorsal distribution * Head only * Ventral distribution

Answer 137

**Dorsal distribution​**

Question 138

You have a dog that had a seizure. The dog has a normal blood biochemistry. What would be the appropriate next step? * EMG and CSF * EMG and Echocardiogram * MRI and CSF * MRI and Echocardiogram

Answer 138

**MRI and CSF​**

Question 139

How do you diagnose a cranial cruciate rupture in a dog? * Cranial drawer and tibial thrust * Patellar reflex * Ortalani * Barlow * Thumb test

Answer 139

**Cranial drawer and tibial thrust**

Question 140

How long from mosquito bite to adult heartworm infection? (Prepatency period for HW infection?)

Answer 140

**6 months**

Question 141

What is the most common tumor found on the tonsils of small animals? * SCC * Osteosarcoma * Histiocytoma * Lipoma

Answer 141

**SCC** * *SCC - epithelium* * *Osteosarcoma - bone* * *Histiocytoma - macrophages* * *Lipoma - adipocytes*

Question 142

A 5 year old Labrador with ocular discharge, 105F ,vomiting, diarrhea, lymphadenopathy. What is the primary differential? * Ehrlichia * Lyme disease * Salmonella * Distemper

Answer 142

**Distemper​**

Question 143

What can cause polyarthritis in a dog? * Ehrlichia canis * Blastomycoses * Coccidiomycosis * Histoplasmosis

Answer 143

**Coccidiomycosis​**

Question 144

A 3 year old Boston terrier has a C-section performed. What are your anesthetic goals? * Uterine relaxation * Slow induction * Rapid recovery for mom and pups

Answer 144

**Rapid recovery for mom and pups**

Question 145

Which of the following drug combos can be used in a dog with liver disease? * Acepromazine, halothane mask, halothane induction * Acepromazine, thiopental induction, isoflurane maintenance * Morphine, ket/val, isoflurane * Morphine, propofol, halothane, maintenance

Answer 145

**Morphine, ket/val, isoflurane​** *No barbiturates! No halothane or thiopental! ​*

Question 146

What is the major cause of infection post-op in a bone repair surgery in a small animal? * Excessive tissue/bone damage * Overzealous antibiotic usage * Airborne pathogens

Answer 146

**Overzealous antibiotic usage​**

Question 147

What are you trying to prevent when you spay a 5 year old breeding bitch? * Pyometra * Acute metritis * Mammary neoplasia * Mammary hyperplasia

Answer 147

**Pyometra​**

Question 148

A 2 year old dog with hyphema, swollen stifles and a ventral cervical region chemical exposure: * NSAID * Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure * Antimolluscicies * Topical antiparasitics

Answer 148

**Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure​**

Question 149

Dalmation with desiccated corneas and thick ocular discharge. Which is important historic detail? * Use of antimicrobials * Use of antiparasitics * NSAIDs * Antiprotozoals

Answer 149

**Use of antimicrobials​** *Trimethoprim sulfa can cause KCS​*

Question 150

Drug to treat suspected coccidiosis in a litter of 8 week old dog/cats/puppies/kittens? * Fenbendazole * Metronidazole * Sulfadimethoxine

Answer 150

**Sulfadimethoxine** * Fenbendazole - worms * Metronidazole - giardia * Sulfadimethoxine - coccidia

Question 151

Dog being treated for pulmonary edema from trauma. What drug is contraindicated? * Nitroprusside infusion * Some thiazide diuretic * Spironolactone * Epinephrine

Answer 151

**Epinephrine​**

Question 152

How do you diagnose Cryptococcus in a cat? * LCAT (latex cryptococcal antigen agglutination test) of serum, urine and CSF * Organisms circulating in blood * Organisms in nasal swab sample * See organisms in CSF * See nasal turbinate destruction on radiographs

Answer 152

**LCAT (latex cryptococcal antigen agglutination test) of serum, urine and CSF​**

Question 153

A 2 year old FS border collie presents with violent persistent sneezing with unilateral epistaxis. What is the most likely diagnosis? * Intranasal carcinoma * Intranasal foreign body * Aspergillus * Infectious rhinitis

Answer 153

**Intranasal foreign body​**

Question 154

Which psittacine is predisposed to problems with hypocalcemia, weakness, and seizures? * Love bird * Amazon parrot * African grey parrot * Umbrella cockatoo

Answer 154

**African grey parrot - mostly with all seed diets​**

Question 155

A 5 year old GSD presents hypersalivating, tremoring and the owner has recently put out snail bait in the yard. What is the toxic agent in snail bait?

Answer 155

**Metaldehyde**

Question 156

Why does high humidity predispose a dog to hyperthermia? * Impaired evaporation * Enhanced conduction * Increased convection * Predisposes animal to vasodilation

Answer 156

**Impaired evaporation​**

Question 157

5 yo cat presents with bilateral nasal swelling, nasal discharge and a mass over nose. The cat is afebrile and the owner has financial constraints. What diagnostic test is indicated in this situation in order to diagnose this cat’s problem? * Biopsy * Cytology * Radiographs * FeLV test

Answer 157

**Cytology** *Cryptococcus​!!*

Question 158

What is the most consistent finding in an animal that has *E. canis* acutely? * Thrombocytopenia * Leukopenia * Neutrophilia * Eosinophilia

Answer 158

**Thrombocytopenia​**

Question 159

A cat that is blocked presents and has elevated serum potassium. Which of the following would **_not_** be useful to treat elevated serum potassium? * Insulin * Dextrose * Bicarbonate * Epinephrine

Answer 159

**Epinephrine​**

Question 160

A dog tests positive for heartworm. To treat the heartworm disease, what are the best drugs to use in the order you would use them? * Melarsomine microfilaricidal therapy, followedby ivermectin adulticidal therapy * Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy * Ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy, followed by melarsomine adulticidal therapy * Ivermectin adulticidal therapy, followed by melarsomine, microfilaricidaltherapy

Answer 160

**Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy​**

Question 161

A dog comes in with rattlesnake bite. What is a common, life-threatening sequela to rattlesnake bite and how would you treat it? * Coagulopathy – antivenin and cardiovascular support (plasma) * Cellulitis – antivenon, antibiotics, corticosteroids, antihistamine * Compartment syndrome

Answer 161

**Coagulopathy – antivenin and cardiovascular support (plasma)**

Question 162

Which anesthetic protocol would be contraindicated in a dog undergoing treatment for glaucoma? * Ace/atropine, ketamine, diazepam,isoflurane * Torb/diazepam, thiopental, isoflurane * Ace/torb, propofol, isoflurane * Ace/morphine, etomidate, sevoflurane

Answer 162

**Ace/atropine, ketamine, diazepam, isoflurane** * *Don’t want any mydriasis! So no atropine* * *All those drugs increases IOP*

Question 163

Minimal legal age for rabies vaccine in dog?

Answer 163

**4 months**

Question 164

Boston Terrier comes in with a thick, mucoid discharge in its eye. It is most likely:

Answer 164

**KCS**

Question 165

Mucocele in a dog. What should you do to treat this condition?

Answer 165

**Remove the mucocele and ipsilateral salivary gland​**

Question 166

A woman brings in her 8 week old shelter kitten. The kitten will be a strictly indoor cat. In addition to FVRCP at 8, 12 weeks and rabies at 12 weeks (4 months), what else do you recommend? * Deworm based on fecal float results * Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks * FeLV vaccinate at 8, 12 weeks and deworm based on fecal float results

Answer 166

**Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks**

Question 167

Cat with open mouth breathing and muffled heart sounds. Best technique to radiograph thorax with minimal compromise to patient? * VD and laterals with sedation * DV and laterals with sedation * VD and laterals with NO sedation * DV and laterals with NO sedation

Answer 167

**DV and laterals with NO sedation ​**

Question 168

Piperazine is used for control of what parasite?

Answer 168

**Roundworms​**

Question 169

Right ventricular hypertrophy and large pulmonary artery is caused by what disease? * Heartworm disease * Aortic stenosis * Mitral valve regurgitation * VSD

Answer 169

**Heartworm disease​**

Question 170

Cat comes in with pruritic lesions on ears, neck and face: * Notoedres cati * Otodectes cyanotic * Cheyletiella * Demodex

Answer 170

**Notoedres cati**

Question 171

Cat that is PU/PD and has a plantigrade stance with difficulty jumping onto furniture. Most likely has what disease? * Diabetes mellitus * Hyperthyroidism * Cushings * Renal failure

Answer 171

**Diabetes mellitus**

Question 172

Pain management consideration for 1 year old OVH: * Post-op parenteral morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl * Post-op parenteral butorphanol, followed up with oral butorphanol * Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl * Pre and post-op butorphanol followed up with fentanyl patch

Answer 172

**Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral Rimadyl​**

Question 173

Which is zoonotic? * Yersinia pestis * Babesia * Neospora * Neorickettsia helminotheca

Answer 173

**Yersinia pestis​**

Question 174

Tech gets bit by cat in finger joint. In addition to cleaning and bandaging immediately, as the supervising veterinarian, you should: * Recommend that tech see physician * Advise to keep bandage clean * Start tech on antibiotics * Watch finger for swelling

Answer 174

**Recommend that tech see physician​**

Question 175

Indicator of poor response to therapy for EPI? * Increased appetite * Increased stool * Increased urine * Increased activity

Answer 175

**Increased appetite**

Question 176

Pot-bellied, febrile kitten with a viscous fluid on abdominocentesis. Diagnosis? * Ascarids * FIV * FIP * FeLV

Answer 176

**FIP**

Question 177

Middle aged standard poodle with pelvic limb lameness and swollen stifles. * Radiographs * Joint tap * Elicit a cranial drawer

Answer 177

**Elicit a cranial drawer​**

Question 178

17 year old FS mixed breed dog with anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, USG = 1.018. What else would you do next? * Fundic exam * Neuro exam * Rectal exam * Orthopedic exam

Answer 178

**Rectal exam** * Anal sac adenocarcinoma * PUPD due to hypercalcemia

Question 179

What changes would you expect to see in a dog with pleural effusion? * Stridor * Wheezing * Dyspnea * Increased breath sounds

Answer 179

**Dyspnea**

Question 180

10 yr white outdoor DSH with chronic nasal discharge and facial rubbing. There are pink ulcerated masses at his ear tips and on his right nasal planum. What’s the most likely diagnosis? * Upper respiratory infection * SCC * Notoedres cati * Pemphigus foliaceous * Mosquito bite hypersensitivity

Answer 180

**SCC**

Question 181

Bacteria most commonly associated with foxtail migration:

Answer 181

***Actinomyces (Trueperella) pyogenes***

Question 182

Toxoplasmosis is associated with which of these? * Corneal ulcer; myositis * Anterior uveitis; fever * KCS; anemia * Chemosis; arthritis

Answer 182

**Anterior uveitis; fever**

Question 183

Acute ethylene glycol toxicity? * Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis * Increased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis * Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis * Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis

Answer 183

**Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis**

Question 184

What did a dog ingest causing it to get acute renal failure? * Mushrooms (amanita) * Heavy metals * Chocolate * Ethylene glycol

Answer 184

**Ethylene glycol**

Question 185

Why do you not want to vaccinate a live/MLV pregnant bitch or queen? * May cause revision to a virulent form * May cause fetal deformation and/or death * May cause fetal immunosuppression * Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production

Answer 185

**May cause fetal deformation and/or death**

Question 186

What toxicosis does a bird get from a galvanized cage?

Answer 186

**Zinc**

Question 187

A 2 yo lab has a chronic draining tract in the 11 o’clock position near the anus which as been non-responsive to antibiotic therapy. You most likely differential is: * Foxtail * Anal gland impaction * Infected perianal hernia * Anal sac adenocarcinoma

Answer 187

**Foxtail**

Question 188

How do you restrain a bird to prevent injury to the patient? * Hold beak and head * Make sure the keel is freely moveable * Keep legs tucked close to body * Keep wings folded closely to the body

Answer 188

**Make sure the keel is freely moveable**

Question 189

A doberman presents with a right thoracic limb lameness. What diagnostic should be included in your initial work up? * Lyme titer * Chemistry panel * Orthopedic examination * Survey radiographs of the right thoracic limb

Answer 189

**Orthopedic examination**

Question 190

What is the treatment of warfarin toxicity in addition to vitamin K1? * Fresh plasma * Whole blood * pRBCs * Charcoal

Answer 190

**Fresh plasma**

Question 191

Complications caused by snake bite envenomation ultimately manifests as: * Coagulopathy * Cardiovascular * Depression * DIC

Answer 191

**DIC**

Question 192

You tested a 4 month old stray kitten with FIV using ELISA snap test. What can you conclude? * Kitten has FIV * Cannot conclude anything, retest in a month * The queen has FIV * Retest after 6 months

Answer 192

**Retest after 6 months due to maternal antibodies could be from vaccine or disease**

Question 193

You tested a cat with heartworm but it is asymptomatic. What is your recommendation?

Answer 193

**Don't treat**

Question 194

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in weanling rabbits and what is the appropriate treatment?

Answer 194

**Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline**

Question 195

What is the proper protocol for transferring radiographs from vet A to vet B? * Vet A mails them directly to vet B with verbal consent of owner * Owner verbally requests them from vet A and hand delivers to vet B * Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B * Vet obtains oral authorization from owner and mails them to vet B

Answer 195

**Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B**

Question 196

What information must be on a label of a non-controlled drug? * Name and address of prescribing veterinarian * Patient weight * Patient’s condition * Prescribing veterinarian’s license number

Answer 196

**Name and address of prescribing veterinarian​**

Question 197

Cat that has difficulty jumping up onto furniture with poor haircoat. What is you next diagnostic step? * FeLV/FIV test * BG and urinalysis * T4 * CBC

Answer 197

**BG and urinalysis**

Question 198

Your patient is a puppy with T=102.5, P= 150, R=48. What is the cause? * Left in hot car * Normal * Excited puppy

Answer 198

**Normal**

Question 199

Your patient needs to have an ocular exam. What is the correct order of diagnostics? * Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry * Tonometry, fluorosceine dye, STT, procainamide * Fluorosceine dye, STT, tonometry, proparacaine

Answer 199

**Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry**

Question 200

What is the best method for diagnosing pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?

Answer 200

**Liver histopathology** * Will find: biliary hyperplasia, hepatic fibrosis, and megalocytes

Question 201

What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in dog? * Carrier * Tooth pulp exposure due to fractured tooth * Periodontal disease * Tooth wear

Answer 201

**Tooth pulp exposure due to fractured tooth**

Question 202

What is contraindicated (or rather, not useful) in a dog with tick paralysis? * Oxygen * Vitamin K1 * Hyperimmune serum * Fipronyl

Answer 202

**Vitamin K1**

Question 203

When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch? * Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia * 12-24 hrs before surgery * 1-2 hours before surgery * 12-24 hrs after surgery

Answer 203

**12-24 hrs before surgery** *Analgesia is reached 8-24 hours after patch placement*

Question 204

Which mycotic disease is most zoonotic? * Histoplasmosis * Blastomycosis * Sporotrichosis * Coccidiomycosis

Answer 204

**Sporotrichosis​**

Question 205

Which species is a reservoir for rabies in CA? * Foxes * Skunks * Raccoons * Opposum

Answer 205

**Skunks** And bats?

Question 206

Which condition is most likely to contribute to recurrent UTI? * Hyperthyroidism * Diabetes mellitus * Hypoadrenocorticism * Hyperadrenocorticism

Answer 206

**Diabetes mellitus​**

Question 207

You think a dog has nasal Aspergillius. To make the diagnosis: * Flush nasal cavity first then radiograph * Biopsy first, then flush, then radiograph * Radiograph before biopsy, or flush * Obtain negative culture, rhinoscopy and serology before radiographing * Serology and tissue fungal culture

Answer 207

**Radiograph before biopsy, or flush**

Question 208

Ethylene glycol toxicity presents with which lab abnormalities? * Increased anion gap, alkalosis * Increased anion gap, acidosis * Decreased anion gap, acidosis * Decreased anion gap, alkalosis

Answer 208

**Increased anion gap, acidosis​**

Question 209

Which clinical sign would you expect to see in a dog with Digitalis toxicity? * Increased appetite * Decreased appetite * Increased urination * Decreased defecation

Answer 209

**Decreased appetite**

Question 210

Which of the following conditions and treatments would interfere with the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease in a dog? * Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone * Hypothyroidism; thyroxine * Degenerative disease; carprofen * Epileptic seizures; phenobarbital

Answer 210

**Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone**

Question 211

A 9 year old fractious cat is paraparetic. Which body system should be examined closely? * Cardiovascular * Endocrine * Genitourinary * Lymphoid

Answer 211

**Cardiovascular**

Question 212

You observe a soft, flocculent swelling over the left zygomatic arch of a dog. The dog is reluctant to eat. What is the next diagnostic step? * Skull radiographs to examine TMJ * Dental radiographs for periapical tooth abscess * Salivary duct endoscopy

Answer 212

**Dental radiographs for periapical tooth abscess**

Question 213

A toy breed dog presents to you with periodontal disease. What is the likely condition it has? * Enamel hypoplasia * Retained deciduous teeth * Odontoclastic resorptive lesions

Answer 213

**Retained deciduous teeth**

Question 214

When cooling a hyperthermic patient, why is it important to stop before reaching normal temperature? * Somogyi causes hypothermia * Periphery and core cool at the same rate * After-drop can cause hypothermia * Decreased evaporative abilities

Answer 214

**After-drop can cause hypothermia**

Question 215

Which animal is a reservoir for Yersinia pestis (plague) in CA? * Cats * Deer * Bears * Ground squirrel * Rat

Answer 215

**Ground squirrel**

Question 216

What is specificity?

Answer 216

**Number of _DISEASE NEGATIVE_ animals that truly _TEST NEGATIVE_**

Question 217

Where should controlled drugs be kept? * In a locked cupboard with other controlled drugs * Lock box intermingled with non-controlled drugs * In the veterinarian’s locked office * In a drawer

Answer 217

**In a locked cupboard with other controlled drugs​**

Question 218

What type of drug is **_contraindicated_** with glaucoma? * Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (methazolamide) * Topical beta blocker (timolol) * Mydriatic (atropine) * Miotic

Answer 218

**Mydriatic (atropine)** * A mydriatic drug like atropic will cause dilation of the pupil that further decreases the iridocorneal angle for decreased drainage and will further increase IOP* * The rest of the options are used to treat glaucoma*

Question 219

What is the most common cause of endometritis in cattle? * E. coli * Actinomyces pyogenes * Streptococcus agalactia * Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 219

***Actinomyces (Trueperella) pyogenes***

Question 220

Which of the following drugs is **_prohibited_** in lactating dairy cattle? * Sulfadiazine * Penicillin * Sulfadimethoxine * Ceftiofur

Answer 220

**Sulfadiazine**

Question 221

Which mastitis pathogen can be eradicated? * Streptococcus uberis * Streptococcus agalactiae * E. coli

Answer 221

***Streptococcus agalactiae***

Question 222

Goat kid with multiple bony problems. Angular deformities. Wide costochondral junctions. What is the cause? * Vitamin D deficiency (Rickets) * Calcium deficiency * Phosphorus deficiency * Zinc deficicency

Answer 222

**Vitamin D deficiency (Rickets)**

Question 223

Regulatory question on how to proceed if a herd of sheep sent to market were discovered to have fence-line contact with scrapie-infected sheep. What do you do? * Send them to market anyway * Contact authorities within 2 days * Wait 30 days and ship * Test them and then ship

Answer 223

**Contact authorities within 2 days**

Question 224

Cow with uterine mass, lymphadenopathy and exophthalmos: * Tuberculosis * Bovine leukosis * Mycoplasma

Answer 224

**Bovine leukosis**

Question 225

Where is the “ping” from a LDA best auscultated on a cow? * On the middle to upper left abdomen, cranial to rib 11 * Starting at the point of the left elbow and extending up to an over the dorsal spinal column * On the right abdomen, extending over the dorsal spinal column to the left rib cage * Along the line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13 in the left paralumbar fossa

Answer 225

**Along the line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13 in the left paralumbar fossa**

Question 226

Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs? * Magnesium * Molybdenum * Zinc * Copper

Answer 226

**Copper** *Enzootic Ataxia = copper deficiency​*

Question 227

How do you diagnose parasitic pneumonia in cows? * Sample sputum for larvae * Transtracheal wash for eggs * Fecal for eggs * Fecal sedimentation to look for lungworm larvae

Answer 227

**Fecal sedimentation to look for lungworm larvae**

Question 228

Your cattle herd have increasing prevalence of E. coli. Next step is: * Quarantine herd * Segregate the affected animals * Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking * Have milkers wash hands

Answer 228

**Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking**

Question 229

What can infect cows after liver biopsy? * Clostridium tetani * Clostridium novyi * Clostridium difficle * Clostridium perfringens

Answer 229

**Clostridium novyi**

Question 230

Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours? * Screw worm myiasis * Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia * Vesicular stomatitis * Anaplasmosis (A. marginale)

Answer 230

**Anaplasmosis (A. marginale) - 30 day reportable**

Question 231

Holstein dairy with 10 day old calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step? * ELISA for cryptosporidium * Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99 * ELISA for BVD * Fecal float for coccidiosis

Answer 231

**ELISA for cryptosporidium (1-3 weeks)** * *Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99 (\<5d)* * *ELISA for BVD (adult)* * *Fecal float for coccidiosis (months)*

Question 232

What drug has no meat/milk withdrawal time? * Subconjunctival PPG * Intrauterine oxytetracycline * Intramammary penicillin * Intramuscular ceftiofur

Answer 232

**Intramuscular ceftiofur**

Question 233

There’s a herd of 50 suffolk sheep, 3 ewes have incoordination and tremors. Some are thin and weak, they have regular deworming program (every 3 months). What's up? * Scrapie * Listeriosis * Border disease * Chronic wasting disease

Answer 233

**Scrapie**

Question 234

Sheep living alone in a box stall found circling with no other CNS signs. Dx?

Answer 234

**Listeriosis**

Question 235

What diagnostic technique would be beneficial in diagnosing hardware disease in a cow with anorexia and decreasing milk production. * Abdominocentesis * Thoracic percussion * Rectal exam * Gastric tube and rumen pH

Answer 235

**Thoracic percussion** *Listen for pericarditis/pleuritis, washing mashing murmur, or muffled heart sounds​*

Question 236

What do you do with a ram with bilateral hard swellings of the epididymis?

Answer 236

**Cull - could be Brucellosis**

Question 237

A 4H sheep was given clenbuterol, what do you tell the client? * Can be slaughtered and used for home consumption only * Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption * Withdrawal time for meat/milk is 30 days and then can be slaughtered * Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 60 days and then can be slaughtered

Answer 237

**Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption** *Illegal in all food animals​*

Question 238

What do you NOT use to treat acute environmental mastitis? * Replacement fluids * NSAIDs * Intramammary antibiotics * Frequent stripping of the teat

Answer 238

**Intramammary antibiotics**

Question 239

A 10 yo beef cow is examined for poor condition and pitting edema cranial to udder. She is afebrile. There are bilateral softball sized masses at the internal iliac arteries and similar masses in the supramammary region. She also has a uterine mass and exophthalmos What is the disease? * Mycoplasma bovis * Bovine leukemia virus/Lymphoma * Actinomyces pyogenes * Actinobacillus ligneresii

Answer 239

**Bovine leukemia virus/Lymphoma** *Lymphoma is the most common cause of exopthalmos in the cow (invades periocular structures)​* * Mycoplasma bovis - respiratory and mastitis * Actinomyces pyogenes - liver abscess, endometritis * Actinobacillus ligneresii - wooden tongue

Question 240

How do you determine if a gastric tube has been successfully placed in a cow? * Tube passes easily * Suck on the tube (negative pressure) * Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen * Smell for rumen gas coming out of the tube

Answer 240

**Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen**

Question 241

You have a pig with a rectal prolapse that’s fresh and going to the fair in 3 days. What should you do? * Lavage and manually reduce * Put a prolapse ring on it * Cut it off and put a purse string suture in * Leave and treat with antibiotics

Answer 241

**Put a prolapse ring on it (can do a purse string)**

Question 242

Which method is appropriate to anesthetize the globe for enucleation in the cow? * 4-point retrobulbar block * Auriculopalpebral * Subconjunctival block

Answer 242

**4-point retrobulbar block​**

Question 243

Horse with a wedge shaped corneal tear near the medial canthus. What's the next step?

Answer 243

**Fluoroscein stain and digital palpation of the conjunctival sac**

Question 244

Alpine kid, 10 weeks old, varus/valgus, wide costochondral junction: * Magnesium * Phosphorus * Calcium * Vitamin D

Answer 244

**Vitamin D**

Question 245

What is the best location for projectile euthanasia in cattle? * Equidistant between ears * Equidistant between eyes * Equidistant between alanto-occipital joint and pole * Equidistant between ears and eyes

Answer 245

**Equidistant between ears and eyes​**

Question 246

Which of these is the most likely to predispose to nigropallidal encephalomalacia? * Irrigated pasture only * Non-irrigated pasture only * Irrigated pasture + alfalfa * Non-irrigated pasture + alfalfa

Answer 246

**Non-irrigated pasture only** * *Yellow star thistle!!* * *Grows in non-irrigated pastures in dry seasons* * *Pasture in late summer or early fall* * *Will only eat yellowstar thistle if theres nothing else to eat* * *Causes globus pallidus and substantia nigra in horses*

Question 247

An RVT is doing a dental extraction on a horse. Which of these is best scenario? * DVM present, RVT makes diagnosis, treatment plan and extracts tooth * DVM present and makes diagnosis, treatment plan, and RVT extracts tooth

Answer 247

**DVM present and makes diagnosis, treatment plan, and RVT extracts tooth**

Question 248

Stallion like behavior in mare? * Granulosa cell tumor * Teratoma * Pregnancy

Answer 248

**Granulosa cell tumor** *Secretes testosterone*

Question 249

Horse has icterus (suspect tick-borne disease). Which is most likely? * Horse was on trail ride * Horse was at show recently * Horse was boarded recently

Answer 249

**Horse was on trail ride​** *Most common place for horses to acquire tick borne disease*

Question 250

What is the reservoir for WEE? * Birds * Rats * Horses * Humans * Skunks * Squirrels

Answer 250

**Birds**

Question 251

Which correctly matches horse breed and disease? * Belgian – periodic ophthalmia * Thoroughbred – laryngeal hemiplegia * Arabian – HYPPP * Appaloosa – SCID

Answer 251

**Thoroughbred – laryngeal hemiplegia**

Question 252

A middle aged horse presents with a painful abdomen. What medication should be used to control the pain and for sedation? * Xylazine and ketamine * Xylazine and butorphanol * Flunixine meglamine and ketamine * Flunixine meglamine and butorphanol

Answer 252

**Xylazine and butorphanol**

Question 253

*Dictyocaulus arnfeldi* (LUNGWORM) in pastured horses is associated with which animal? * Cow * Sheep * Goat * Donkey

Answer 253

**Donkey**

Question 254

What diagnostic test would be performed to diagnose uroperitoneum in a 2 year old colt? * Serum BUN * Urine BUN * Serum creatinine * Abdominocentesis

Answer 254

**Abdominocentesis** *Get creatinine to compare creatinine in abdominal fluid to serum​*

Question 255

How long must a placenta remain in the mare post-partum to be considered retained?

Answer 255

**3 hours**

Question 256

A horse has fallen down after administration of detomidine. How do you reverse it?

Answer 256

**Yohimbine**

Question 257

Corneal ulcers in sheep are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies? * Pseudorabies * Mycoplasma * Chlamydophila * Herpesvirus

Answer 257

**Chlamydophila**

Question 258

An 8 yr old male GSD presents with weakness in the hind legs of 1 week duration. The owner says the dog’s “hips are giving out.” Neurologic exam reveals normal cranial nerves, normal reflexes in the front limbs, hyperreflexia in the rear limbs. Where is the lesion most likely located? * C1-C5 * C6-T2 * T3-L3 * L4-S1

Answer 258

**T3-L3**

Question 259

You have just diagnosed equine viral arteritis on a breeding farm, what is the most appropriate next step? * Reassure the owner that EVA is self-limiting and that no specific treatment will be required * Euthanize the horse immediately due to potential zoonotic risk * Contact state veterinarian * Separate the horses by age

Answer 259

**Contact state veterinarian** *EVA is reportable!!*

Question 260

What is the most appropriate suture material for wound repair of a contaminated skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3? * Vicryl * PDS * Silk * Prolene

Answer 260

**Prolene** *least reactive, use non-absorbable​*

Question 261

What is the most appropriate suture pattern for wound repair of a skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3? * Horizontal mattress * Vertical mattress * Simple interrupted * Lembert

Answer 261

**Vertical mattress**

Question 262

What is the most effective treatment of trichobezoars in rabbits? * Metoclopramide * Fiber * Pineapple and papaya juice * Mineral oil

Answer 262

**Fiber**

Question 263

Which of the following species is most sensitive to ivermectin? * Guinea pigs * Cats * Birds * Tortoise and turtles

Answer 263

**Tortoise and turtles​**

Question 264

What is the most humane way to euthanize a 4 month old calf? * Blunt force to the head * Carbon dioxide * Electrocution * Gunshot to the head

Answer 264

**Gunshot to the head**

Question 265

A group of goat kids are exhibiting poor growth, fractured limbs, swollen joints, and have bones with thin cortices. What is the most likely cause? * Vitamin A deficiency * Vitamin D deficiency * Vitamin E deficiency * Calcium deficiency

Answer 265

**Vitamin D deficiency - rickets**

Question 266

1000 cow herd bulk tank sample has 800,000 SCC. The machinery is clean and there is good post-milking sanitation. What is your next step? * Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar) * Culture each individual * Cull the whole herd * Culture only the clinically affected cattle

Answer 266

**Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar)**

Question 267

Which vaccine is only available killed? * Leptospirosis * Distemper * FeLV * Rabies

Answer 267

**Leptospirosis - use bacterin vaccine**

Question 268

Several lambs/rams in a flock are diagnosed with urolithiasis (most likely struvite). What is the best recommendation you can give the farmer? * Increase phosphorus in diet * Increase magnesium in diet * Increase salt in diet * Decrease calcium in diet

Answer 268

**Increase salt in diet - will increase water intake** *Phosphorus and magnesium are components of struvite*

Question 269

Under which of the following conditions would infestation with Damalinia species (lice) be most likely? * Winter, good BCS, poor hair coat * Winter, poor BCS, poor hair coat * Summer, poor BCS, good hair coat * Summer, good BCS, poor hair coat

Answer 269

**Winter, poor BCS, poor hair coat** *(Damalinia= chewing louse of large animals​)*

Question 270

How can you tell a horse is under a deep plane of anesthesia with halothane? * Absent corneal reflex * Can’t stand * Has absent palpebral reflex

Answer 270

**Absent corneal reflex**

Question 271

Placing a mare on progestin. Advice to owners? * Tell woman to wear gloves when handling the drug or if pregnant, don’t handle drug * No risk to owner * Only risk if owner is pregnant * Only risk to seniors and children

Answer 271

**Tell woman to wear gloves when handling the drug or if pregnant, don’t handle drug**

Question 272

A horse with non-ulcerated, non-painful, non-pruritic lesions has? * Nodular necrobacillosis * Dermatophytosis * Sarcoid * Melanoma

Answer 272

**Nodular necrobacillosis** *Nodular necrobiosis (equine collagenolytic granuloma) is the most common nodular skin disease in horses. You'll see one or more firm nodules (0.2-1.2 inches, or 0.5-3.0 cm, wide) located in the deep skin layer, primarily on the withers, neck, and back, although they also can appear elsewhere.​*

Question 273

Xanthochromia, straining to urinate and decreased perineal tone in horse? * EHV-1/EHV-4 * Yellow star thistle ingestion * Polyneuritis * WEE

Answer 273

**EHV-1/EHV-4​** *(vaccinate mares at 5, 7, 9 months)*

Question 274

3 yo female labrador goes hunting and had a purulent vaginal discharge. What is your next diagnostic? * Vaginoscopy * Abdominal ultrasound * Abdominal radiographs * Abdominocentesis

Answer 274

**Vaginoscopy**

Question 275

What is not likely to result in diuresis in ARF dog? * Dexamethasone * Furosemide * Epinephrine

Answer 275

**Epinephrine**

Question 276

What treatment is required for a tooth fracture in a dog involving the enamel but not exposing the pulp cavity? * Vital pulpetomy * Crown * Standard endodontic treatment * Smooth and sharp edges of the fracture

Answer 276

**Smooth and sharp edges of the fracture**

Question 277

Complication in toy dog distal radial/ulnar fractures:

Answer 277

**Malunion due to poor blood supply​**

Question 278

What is a possible complication of a simple, closed, transverse fracture of the distal radius in a 3 lb, 3 year old Yorkie? * Non-union * Osteomyelitis * Sequestrum formation

Answer 278

**Non-union** *From decreased blood supply in distal radial diaphyseal fractures​*

Question 279

What disease is transmitted transplacentally? * Toxascaris leonina * Toxocara canis * Trichuris vulpis * Strongyloides stercoarlis

Answer 279

**Toxocara canis**

Question 280

What analgesic is safe and effective in rabbits? * Acetaminophen * Ibuprofen * Butorphanol * Salicylic acid

Answer 280

**Butorphanol** *Meloxicam is best NSAID for rabbits​*

Question 281

A dog is referred to you post-cystotomy and appears ill. Abdominal radioraphs and ultrasound are unavailable. What is most indicative of leakage from the bladder? * BUN abdominal fluids \> serum * BUN abdominal fluid \< serum * Creatinine abdominal fluid \> serum * Creatinine abdominal fluid \< serum

Answer 281

**Creatinine abdominal fluid \> serum**

Question 282

What is the _vector_ for Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)?

Answer 282

**Ixodes**

Question 283

Lymphadenopathy, fever, inclusions in neutrophils in a cow:

Answer 283

***Anaplasma phagocytophilum*** * Transmitted by Ixodes pacificus in CA * Bovine granulocytic ehrlichiosis

Question 284

An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutrophilic inclusions has what? * a)Ehrlichia risticii * b)Anaplasma phagocytophilum * c)Equine viral arteritis * d)Equine herpesvirus

Answer 284

**Anaplasma phagocytophilum**

Question 285

Following uncomplicated TV for heatstroke, a dog is at risk for:

Answer 285

DIC

Question 286

Hypoderma bovis infected cattle hide. What do you do? * a)Condemn the carcass * b)Condemn the hide * c)Condemn the meat * d)Nothing

Answer 286

**Condemn the hide**

Question 287

When is an LDA most likely to develop? * a)Within the first month of lactating * b)Once lactation has finished * c)Two months before lactaiton

Answer 287

**Within the first month of lactating**

Question 288

What is the best treatment for oleander toxicosis in cattle? * a)Rumenotomy * b)Cull * c)Omentopexy

Answer 288

**Rumenotomy**

Question 289

What causes a head tilt and ear droop in rabbits? * a)Rabies * b)E. cuniculi and Pasteurella multocida * c)Clostridium piliform * d)Salmonella spp.

Answer 289

**E. cuniculi and Pasteurella multocida**

Question 290

What are clinical signs of cerebellar disease? * a)Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors * b)Tremors, head tilt, hind limb paresis * c)Hypermetria, head tilt, hind limb paresis * d)Ataxia, tremors, head tilt

Answer 290

**Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors**

Question 291

Management of parasites on a pasture * a)Clean up fecal matter twice per week * b)Clean up fecal matter every 2 weeks * c)Clean up fecal matter every month * d)Clean up fecal matter every 2 months

Answer 291

**Clean up fecal matter twice per week**

Question 292

2 year old cat with unilateral nasal discharge and headshaking. What is most likely diagnosis? * a)Neoplasia * b)Chronic upper respiratory tract infection * c)Otodectes cynoti * d)Nasopharyngeal polyp

Answer 292

**Nasopharyngeal polyp**

Question 293

Dog with mitral insufficiency will have which of the following signs? * a)Weight loss and cyanosis * b)Systolic murmur and cough * c)Systolic murmur and ascites * d)Systolic murmur and cyanosis

Answer 293

**Systolic murmur and cough - LCHF**

Question 294

You have a cat with sinusitis and suspect calicivirus. What other clinical finding would you likely see? * a)Bronchitis * b)Diarrhea/vomiting * c)Corneal ulceration * d)Oral ulcers and lameness

Answer 294

**Oral ulcers and lameness** * Limping kitten syndrome!!! * Calicivirus= sinusitis, oral ulcers, lameness

Question 295

Which of the following disease carried by rhesus macaques is the biggest problem if transmitted to humans? * a)Herpes simian B virus * b)Hepatitis * c)Cytomegalovirus * d)Respiratory syncitial virus

Answer 295

**Herpes simian B virus**

Question 296

Pregnant client whose cat is serologically positive for toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is true? a) That cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis b) The cat has an active infection c) The cat is shedding the virus d) The cat has not been exposed

Answer 296

**That cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis**

Question 297

What are common physical exam findings of acute anterior uveitis? * Miosis, high IOP, blepharospasm * Mydriasis, low IOP, blepharospasm * Miosis, low IOP, blepharospasm, hyperemia, pain * Mydriasis, high IOP blepharospasm

Answer 297

**Miosis, low IOP, blepharospasm, hyperemia, pain**

Question 298

A bull has had a sample of smegma from his sheath cultured in a Trichomonas pouch. Flagellated organisms are isolated in the media (Bull cultures positive for T. foetus).What do you do? * a)Turn the bull out with a group of cows * b)Cull * c)Re-culture in 2 weeks * d)Perform further diagnostics on the sample

Answer 298

**Cull**

Question 299

A cow presents with bilateral corneal opacity, epiphora, and blepharospasm. There is 4mm of corneal neovascularization on the right eye. Fluoroscein stain reveals 3mm of uptake in the left eye and 10mm uptake in the right eye. What is next? * a)Biopsy for SCC * b)Cryotherapy of neovascularization * c)Flush nasolacrimal duct * d)Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns

Answer 299

**Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns**

Question 300

Transporting a 24 month old bull from Oregon to California, you need to test for which diseases: * Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis * Tuberculosis, mastitis, brucellosis * Polioencephalomalacia, brucellosis, tuberculosis * Endometritis, trichomoniasis, tuberculosis

Answer 300

**Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis**

Question 301

Common indication for feline dental extraction: * Hypereruption * Dentigerous cyst * Hypoplastic enamel * Odontoclastic resorptive lesion

Answer 301

**Odontoclastic resorptive lesion**

Question 302

Feline presented for stiffness and lameness in all 4 limbs. On PE all 4 limbs have decreased range of motion in joints. Radiographs show multiple locations of vertebral spondylosis and exostoses around joints. Owner feeds home cooked diet of exclusively liver. Diagnose which nutrient disease? * Hypocalcemia * Vitamin D deficiency * Vitamin A toxicity * Vitamin E toxicity

Answer 302

**Vitamin A toxicity** * Common in raw and organ diets * Results in exostoses * C/S: neck pain, rigidity, lameness

Question 303

What is the **_vector_** for WEE? * Tick * Mosquito * Gnat * Sand fly

Answer 303

**Mosquito** *Bird is the reservoir!*

Question 304

Who may sign a health certificate? * A CA licensed veterinarian * A veterinarian approved by CDFA * Any licensed veterinarian from the state can sign a health certificate from that state * An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian by the USDA

Answer 304

**An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian by the USDA**

Question 305

In order to give brucella vaccine in CA, you need to have a contract with _______ and accredited by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Answer 305

In order to give brucella vaccine in CA, you need to have a contract with **_CDFA_** and accredited by **_USDA_**

Question 306

A dog with C6-T2 spinal cord lesion would present with which of the following signs? * a)UMN signs in pelvic and thoracic limbs * b)Normal thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs * c)Normal thoracic limbs, LMN signs in pelvic limbs * d)LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs

Answer 306

**LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs**

Question 307

An 8 week old kitten with fever, pot belly, and poor hair coat is presented. Evaluation of a viscous material from abdominocentesis indicates the problem is: * a)Panleukopenia * b)FeLV * c)FIP * d)Ascarids

Answer 307

**FIP** pyogranulomatous inflammation

Question 308

Which disease must be tested for interstate transport/cross state line with horses? * a)EVA * b)EHV-1 * c)EIA * d)Rabies

Answer 308

**EIA - need a negative Coggins!**

Question 309

What treatment is best for mildly contracted tendons in a foal? * a)Increased exercise, tenotomy * b)Increased exercise, oxytetracycline * c)Splint, tenotomy * d)Splint, oxytetracycline

Answer 309

**Splint, oxytetracycline**

Question 310

A cat housed outdoors presents for acute severe blepharospasm of the right eye. What diagnostic procedure should you do first? * a)Search for a foreign body * b)Check intraocular pressure * c)Fluorescein stain * d)Schirmer tear test

Answer 310

**Search for a foreign body**

Question 311

What is the best way to test for Ionophore (Monensin) toxicity? * a)Serum * b)Feed * c)Plasma * d)Urine

Answer 311

**Feed**

Question 312

Consistent post-mortem lesion with P. multocida and Actinobacillus (Haemophilus) pleuopneumoniae in pigs? * Fibrinopurulent polyarthritis * Meningoencephalitis * Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis * Cranioventral consolidation

Answer 312

**Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis** *Cranioventral consolidation = mycoplasma hypopneumoniae*

Question 313

What is the best way to tell if a pet parrot is dehydrated? * a)Ulnar vein refill time * b)Heart and respiratory rate * c)Basilic vein refill time

Answer 313

**Basilic vein refill time** *\*Basilic vein is also known as the _cutaneous ulnar vein_\*​*

Question 314

Which of the following has No anti-inflammatory effects? * Aspirin * Carprofen * Ketoprofen * Acetaminophen

Answer 314

**Acetaminophen** *It is an analgesic and antipyretic, but not anti-inflammatory​*

Question 315

Cat with facial edema and swelling, tachypnea, muddy mm, tachycardia: __________ toxicity

Answer 315

**Acetaminophen** *Can also see cns depression, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, swollen face, paws, salivation, coma, death, methemoglobinemia​*

Question 316

Best way to relieve chronic bloat in a cow with tetanus? * a)Tube the rumen * b)Create a rumen fistula * c)Mineral oil * d)Bloat guard

Answer 316

**Create a rumen fistula**

Question 317

Which of the following are considered to cause/contribute to feline HCM? * Acromegaly, hyperthyroid * Acromegaly, hyperparathyroid * Taurine deficiency, hyperthyroid * Taurine deficiency, hyperparathyroid

Answer 317

**Acromegaly, hyperthyroid**

Question 318

A bird breeder with a bunch of birds has some of the birds come down with Aspergillosis. What do you tell them? * This is a serious zoonotic disease * All birds need to be treated because it is highly contagious * This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

Answer 318

**This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors**

Question 319

Most common place for enteroliths in the horse: * Transverse colon * Ileocolic junction * Cecum * Small intestine

Answer 319

**Transverse colon**

Question 320

What is polycythemia rubra vera?

Answer 320

**Absolute increase in RBC and hematocrit**

Question 321

What is an acanthocyte? * Fragments of RBCs * RBC with points/spiculation * RBC with nuclear remnant body * RBC with target sign

Answer 321

**RBC with points/spiculation**

Question 322

What are sequelae of Banamine overdose in cattle? * Liver abscess * Endotoxic shock * Rumen impaction * GI ulceration

Answer 322

**GI ulceration**

Question 323

Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit: * Abaxial * Epidural with 2% lidocaine * Tourniquet and IV morphine * Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV

Answer 323

**Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV**

Question 324

How do you diagnose a displaced abomasum in a cow? * Abdominocentesis * Rectal palpation * Abdominal auscultation and percussion * Abdominal ballottement

Answer 324

**Abdominal auscultation and percussion** ***PING!***

Question 325

You are presented with a cow that came into milk 24 hours ago, she is recumbent, depressed and with decreased rumen contractility and motility. What is the most likely cause of these signs? * Ketosis * Hypokalemia * Hypocalcemia * Hypercalcemia

Answer 325

**Hypocalcemia** * Aka milk fever * Occurs soon after freshening * Recumbent, depressed, decreased rumen motility

Question 326

A healthy horse presents to you for a routine breeding exam. On abdominal ultrasound you see non-homogenous echogenic material swirling in the bladder. What is your top ddx? * Neoplasia * Hematuria * Cystic calculi * Normal horse

Answer 326

**Normal horse**

Question 327

An 8 week old kitten presents with otitis externa secondary to Otodectes infection. Which of the following topical treatments would you use? * Rotenone * Mineral oil * Selamectin * Pyrethrin spray

Answer 327

**Selamectin (Revolution®)**

Question 328

Which of the following poultry diseases must be reported 24 hours after discovery? * Pullorum * Infectious bronchitis * Avian influenza * Psittacosis

Answer 328

**Avian influenza** * *Avian influenza (within 24 hours)* * *Pullorum (within 2 days)* * *Infectious bronchitis (reported monthly)* * *Psittacosis (within 2 days)*

Question 329

Which of the following emergency diseases should be reported in sheep in 24 hours? * Scrapie * Rift valley fever * Brucellosis * Q-fever

Answer 329

**Rift valley fever** * *Rift Valley Fever - 24 hours* * *Scrapie - 2 days* * *Brucellosis - 2 days* * *Q fever - 30 days*

Question 330

Horse with mild colic episodes that respond to medical therapy. But they are getting progressively more frequent and severe. There is no improvement with antiparasitics and change of feed or exercise. Next step? * Give NSAIDs for 2 weeks * Send it home and recheck in 1 month * Abdominal ultrasound * Refer for abdominal radiograph

Answer 330

**Refer for abdominal radiograph**

Question 331

A miniature horse presents with anorexia. She has a severely elevated GGT, low BUN, low glucose and high creatinine. What is her most likely disease? * Viral hepatitis * Hepatic lipidosis * Theiler’s disease * Clostridium difficile

Answer 331

**Hepatic lipidosis**

Question 332

Six month old goats have died on an irrigated pasture. Few have inappetance, weight loss and pale mm. * Anaplasmosis * CAEV * Tapeworm * Haemonchus contortus

Answer 332

***Haemonchus contortus***

Question 333

Which age group of cattle is most susceptible to severe clinical signs from anaplasmosis?

Answer 333

**older cattle**

Question 334

Horse is 2/5 lame on the right front. Becomes sound after a palmar digital nerve block. You let that block wear off and then perform a distal interphalangeal joint block. After 5 minutes the horse is sound. Where is the lameness located? * Dorsal hoof wall * Superficial digital flexor tendon * Navicular bursa * Proximal interphalangeal joint

Answer 334

**Navicular bursa**

Question 335

Horse with recurrent choke. Which of the following would you recommend for diet? * Chopped hay * Soaked hay * Soaked pellets * Alfalfa cubes

Answer 335

**Soaked pellets**

Question 336

If you distance yourself by a factor of 2 from a radiation source, it will reduce your exposure by what fraction? * ½ * ¼ * 1/6 * 1/8

Answer 336

**¼**

Question 337

For how long can you refill a rimadyl or non-controlled substance without seeing the patient?

Answer 337

**12 months**

Question 338

What could you do to prevent polyarthritis and pneumonia in kids (CAEV)? * Feed the kids pasteurized milk * Vaccinate the kids at 2 weeks of age * Give antibiotics to kids at 2 weeks of age * Vaccinate dams 2 months prior to kidding

Answer 338

**Feed the kids pasteurized milk** * No effective vaccine * Most common transmission is via colostrum so don’t let them suckle!

Question 339

Cow shipped to fair in Arizona. Who do you call to find out the shipping requirements? * AZ state department of agriculture * California state department of agriculture * USDA office in CA * USDA office in AZ

Answer 339

**AZ state department of agriculture** If shipping out of state, contact the receiving state’s department of agriculture

Question 340

What are the clinical signs most consistently seen with snake bite? * Two puncture wounds * Regions of necrotic tissue * Edema and erythema * Fang puncture wounds

Answer 340

**Edema and erythema**

Question 341

A horse has exertional rhabdomyolysis. What do you advise the owner?

Answer 341

**Have consistent and steady exercise**

Question 342

Pre-purchase exam radiographs belong to:

Answer 342

**the BUYER'S veterinarian**

Question 343

Young dog with presumed parvovirus is vomiting and has diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely sequelae? * Fever and septicemia * Septicemia and DIC * Hypothermia and dehydration * Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration

Answer 343

**Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration**

Question 344

When cooling a hy**_per_**thermic patient, drop before normothermia because:

Answer 344

**the after drop can cause hy**_po_**thermia if you don't**

Question 345

What is the most common zoonotic disease that is transmitted from rabbits to humans? * Dermatophytes * Pasteurella multocida * E. cuniculi

Answer 345

**Dermatophytes** *T. mentagrophytes*

Question 346

A dog has raised lesions on its inguinal area and abdomen that are diagnosed as cutaneous hemangioma. What environmental changes do you make? * Decrease sunlight * Increase sunlight * Grass * Cement floor

Answer 346

**Decrease sunlight**

Question 347

A puppy was diagnosed with demodex and treated with amitraz. He is now lethargic and hypothermic. What is contraindicated? * IV fluids * Induce emesis * Bathe in warm water * IV yohimbine

Answer 347

**Induce emesis** * *Amitraz is an organophosphate given topically* * *ATROPINE and PRALIDOXIME are the preferred treatments for ORGANOPHOSPHATE TOXICITY*

Question 348

A fentanyl patch was placed on the back of a dog. What drug should you avoid using due to its antagonistic effects? * Morphine * Carprofen * Butorphanol * Metacam

Answer 348

**Butorphanol** * Butorphanol = mu antagonist, kappa agonist * Fentanyl = synthetic mu agonist

Question 349

A dog vomits blue/green pellets and is noise sensitive with other clinical signs. What was ingested? * Bromethalin * Strychnine * Warfarin * Cholecalciferol

Answer 349

**Strychnine** *Strychnine = rat bait!​*

Question 350

How long do you have to keep medical records by law?

Answer 350

**3 years**

Question 351

How long do you have to keep prescription records according to law?

Answer 351

**3 years** Same as medical records

Question 352

You are worried about passive transfer in a foal that is dehydrated. What test will be falsely elevated? * Refractometer total proteins * Zinc sulfate turbidity test * Radial immunodiffusion

Answer 352

**Refractometer total proteins**

Question 353

A horse was given a high dose of banamine. You need to adjust the dose. What test do you do to look for the side effects of banamine? * a)Measure BUN * b)Creatinine * c)Fecal occult blood * d)Total proteins

Answer 353

**Fecal occult blood** *Bleeding due to GI ulcer*

Question 354

To maintain a veterinary-client relationship, you must examine the patient within:

Answer 354

**12 months**

Question 355

Sensitivity questions: 60 cats test positive for FIP, 40 test negative for FIP. Post mortem exam showed that only 30 cats of that tested positive actually had FIP and that 10 of the cats that tested negative, had FIP. What is the sensitivity? * a)25% * b)40% * c)60% * d)75%

Answer 355

**75%**

Question 356

What cell type is affected by *Anaplasma phagocytophilum*? * Neutrophils and eosinophils * Lymphocytes and macrophages * Eosinophils and basophils * Neutrophils and basophils

Answer 356

**Neutrophils and eosinophils**

Question 357

Horse with a droopy right eyelid, right ear, curled left lip, circling to the right, head tilt to the right, nystagmus with fast phase to the left. What is your first diagnostic test? * Head radiographs * Nasopharyngeal endoscopy * CSF tap

Answer 357

**Nasopharyngeal endoscopy** *Examine for guttural pouch mycosis*

Question 358

Which is not zoonotic? * Brucella mellitensis * Bartonella henselae * Franciscella tularemia * Feline herpes virus

Answer 358

**Feline herpes virus**

Question 359

A healthy cow without any clinical signs has a SCC of the eye. What do you do? * a)Euthanize * b)Condemn the carcass * c)Enucleate the eye * d)Call the state vet

Answer 359

**Enucleate the eye**

Question 360

A SCC of the eye of a cow. What do you do? * a)Closet the skin * b)Remove the parotid gland * c)Remove the mass * d)Do nothing

Answer 360

**Remove the mass** *\*\*Will be condemned at slaughter​\*\**

Question 361

What is the most common cause of exophthalmos in cows? * a)Lymphoma * b)SCC * c)Corneal ulcer * d)Uveitits

Answer 361

**Lymphoma**

Question 362

A Yorkie puppy has retained deciduous teeth. What do you tell the owner? * a)Remove when elective castration is performed * b)Leave it in, won’t cause a problem * c)Pull immediately * d)Pull in 1 year with routine periodontal treatment

Answer 362

**Remove when elective castration is performed**

Question 363

Zoonotic fungal disease from dog to cat:

Answer 363

**Sporothricosis (sporothrix)**

Question 364

What is a common cause of sickness/death of horses? * Feed mixed with chicken feed * 4th harvest alfalfa * Hay

Answer 364

**Feed mixed with chicken feed** *High in nitrates*

Question 365

Enteroliths in the large colon cause what clinical signs? * a)Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain * b)Decreased appetite, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain * c)Increased appetite, flatulence, moderate abdominal pain

Answer 365

**Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain**

Question 366

Where do you hear a ping for RDA?

Answer 366

**Right side on ribs 10-13** *More cranial than LDA​*

Question 367

What is the worst immediate cause of death in a cow? * Milk tetany * Dystocia * Grass tetany

Answer 367

**Milk tetany** *In the most acute form, affected cows, which may appear to be grazing normally, suddenly throw up their heads, bellow, gallop in a blind frenzy, fall, and exhibit severe paddling convulsions. These convulsive episodes may be repeated at short intervals, and death usually occurs within a few hours. In many instances, animals at pasture are found dead without observed illness, but an indication that the animal had convulsions before death may be seen from marks on the ground. ​*

Question 368

For laminitis, which block is most appropriate? * Palmar digital block * Interphalangeal block * Acepromazine * Low 4-point nerve block

Answer 368

**Palmar digital block**

Question 369

LA with septic arthritis. Which joint can you block with regional perfusion?

Answer 369

**Distal interphalangeal**

Question 370

Metastatic rate of recurrence of an acanthomatous epulis is: * None * Low recurrence rate * Moderate local invasion * Moderate systemic invasion and lymphadenopathy

Answer 370

**Low recurrence rate**

Question 371

A Bernese Mountain Dog with histiocytic sarcoma has what prognosis: * Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy * Great prognosis with chemotherapy * Excellent prognosis with no treatment

Answer 371

**Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy**

Question 372

A Yorkie with intermittent shifting lameness has what? * CCL tear * Hip dysplasia * Panosteitis * Medial patellar luxation

Answer 372

**Medial patellar luxation**

Question 373

An abdominal ultrasound in a pregnant dog should be done during: * Day 12 * Day 26 * Day 28 * Day 30

Answer 373

**Day 30** *Day 30: embryonic vesicles*

Question 374

Abdominal palpation in a pregnant dog can be done at?

Answer 374

**25-28 days**

Question 375

Palpation of a cow with 2 finger placentomes is how far along? * 30 days * 60 days * 80 days * 120 days

Answer 375

**80 days** * *30 days - membrane slip* * *60 days - fetus palpable* * *80 days - placentomes* * *120 days - fremitus*

Question 376

What drug can be used in a lactating cow? * Gentamicn * PPG * Ceftiofur * Sulfa drugs

Answer 376

**Ceftiofur IM - no withdrawal!**

Question 377

Treatment options for anaplasma? * Enrofloxacin * Tetracycline * Penicillin * Aminoglycoside

Answer 377

**Tetracycline**

Question 378

Glaucoma: which drug is inappropriate? * Topical beta-blocker * Prostanglandin analogue * Loop diuretic * Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Answer 378

**Loop diuretic** *Want an _osmotic_ diuretic such as _mannitol_​*

Question 379

A dog with exposure to amanita mushrooms. How do you definitively diagnose it? * a)Stomach contents * b)Liver biopsy * c)Renal biopsy * d)Serum

Answer 379

**Liver biopsy** *Mushrooms are hepatotoxic​*

Question 380

US of cushingoid liver will look:

Answer 380

* Diffusely Hyperechoic * Highly granular

Question 381

Horse ovulated and 8 days later is in heat: * a)Endometritis * b)Nymphomania * c)Transitional period * d)Vaginitis

Answer 381

**Transitional period**

Question 382

EVA diagnosis: * a)Histopathology of placenta * b)Histopathology of uterus * c)Endometrium * d)Serum

Answer 382

**Histopathology of placenta** *Unsure about this one*

Question 383

Arthrogryposis (ankylosis of the limbs) and intestines of the fetus are in the placenta of a pregnant horse. This is caused from: * Uterine torsion * Uterine tear * Schistosomus reflexus

Answer 383

**Schistosomus reflexus** * Fissure of the abdominal wall - open body cavity * Retroflexion of spinal column and joint akylosisà agrothroposis

Question 384

Cow with a calf coming out backward. How do you reposition it for proper delivery? * a)Dorsosacral * b)Ventrosacral * c)Dorsoileal

Answer 384

**Dorsosacral** *Dorsosacral, anterior, limbs extended*

Question 385

Contagious ecthyma (orf/soremouth) of 4H goats. What do you do? * a)Do nothing * b)Supportive care * c)Vaccinate * d)Cull

Answer 385

**Vaccinate** * Zoonotic!! * Poxvirus * Affects sheep and goats * Very resistant to environmental elimination

Question 386

Aspergillosis in birds affects what organ system? * a)Liver * b)Lungs * c)Spleen * d)Kidney

Answer 386

**Lungs**

Question 387

Mammary hyperplasia in a cat can assume what?

Answer 387

**Has not been spayed**

Question 388

By law, a pre-anesthetic work up must include what? * a)CBC * b)Physical exam * c)Chemistry panel * d)Urinalysis

Answer 388

**Physical exam**

Question 389

Doberman with thoracic limb lameness. What is your next diagnostic step? * a)Orthopedic exam * b)Radiographs * c)Echocardiogram * d)Nail trim * e)Abdominal ultrasound

Answer 389

**Orthopedic exam**

Question 390

Which is an immediate emergency in a horse? * a)Laminitis * b)Conjunctivitis without blepharospasm * c)Alopecia * d)Obesity

Answer 390

**Laminitis**

Question 391

Client with a cat in a carrier that is non-responsive. She bangs on the carrier and the cat becomes aggressive and tries to attack her. What three diseases could this cat have? * Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead toxicity * Rabies, lead, tetanus

Answer 391

**Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead toxicity**

Question 392

How long do you have to hold an animal in the hospital before it is considered abandoned? * 7 days * 14 days * 30 days * 60 days

Answer 392

**14 days** *You can legally euthanize 10 days after the 14 day hold period​*

Question 393

How do you abort a pregnant dog? * Prolactin inhibitors * Prostaglandin * Dexamethasone

Answer 393

**Prolactin inhibitors** *If there is no answer choice with prolactin inhibitors, choose Prostaglandin!*

Question 394

Where do you apply a skin twitch in a horse?

Answer 394

**On the neck skin**

Question 395

What isn’t a clinical sign of snake bites? * a)Local necrosis and sloughing of skin * b)Hypersensitivity reaction * c)Emesis * d)Coagulopathy/DIC

Answer 395

**Emesis**

Question 396

*Ehrlichia canis* has an affinity for what cell type? * Monocytes * Neutrophils - anaplasma * Eosinophils

Answer 396

**Monocytes** *(Neutrophils - anaplasma​)*

Question 397

How long should you quarantine birds before introducing them into a new home? * 30 days * 1 week * 14 days * No quarantine needed

Answer 397

**30 days** *Want to quarantine for 30-45 days for chlamydophila​*

Question 398

A wild animal bites a cat. What should you consider? * a)Consider it to be unvaccinated * b)Do nothing * c)Depends on the animal

Answer 398

**Consider it to be unvaccinated**

Question 399

Which feed makes horses urinate more? Makes horses PU/PD * a)Timothy hay * b)Alfalfa hay * c)Oat * d)Rye

Answer 399

**Alfalfa hay**

Question 400

Cocciodiomycosis dog: how to diagnose? * a)Serum IgM and IgG AB AGID * b)Serum AB complement fixation * c)ELISA snap test * d)Culture

Answer 400

**Serum IgM and IgG AB AGID - low false positives**

Question 401

What group of cattle most likely to get coccidia and what is the treatment of choice? * 4 month old heifer in pen – tx with monensin * 4 month old heifer on pasture – tx with monensin * Feed lot + tetracycline

Answer 401

**4 month old heifer in pen – tx with monensin**

Question 402

Requirements to OK an interstate transport of livestock * a)Federal certification and accreditation * b)California license and federal accreditation * c)California license and federal certification * d)California certification and federal accreditation

Answer 402

**California license and federal accreditation**

Question 403

Dog mauled by bear; dog has erect ears and lips stretched back. Dog has? * a)Rabies * b)Tetanus * c)Botulism * d)Hepatic encephalopathy

Answer 403

**Tetanus**

Question 404

Anesthetics that should not be used with animals that have hepatic disease:

Answer 404

**Halothane and thiopental**

Question 405

Geese with flaccid/floppy neck: * a)Botulism * b)Lead toxicity * c)Tetanus * d)Pasteurella multocida

Answer 405

**Botulism**

Question 406

Goat is given Clenbuterol before 4-H fair: * a)Euthanize and not for human consumption * b)Wait 30 or 60 days until slaughter * c)Can euthanize and use for human consumption * d)Only lungs are condemned

Answer 406

**Euthanize and not for human consumption**

Question 407

Cat with saddle thrombus – what do you look for on necropsy? * DCM * Right sided HCM * Left sided HCM

Answer 407

**Left sided HCM** *concentric hypertrophy and left heart hypertrophy*

Question 408

Red, sore lesion on foot of cow with long hair around it: * Interdigital necrobacillus * Papilloma * Footrot

Answer 408

**Papilloma** *hairy foot warts of papillomatous digital dermatitis​* * Treat with tetracycline * Caused by treponema

Question 409

5% cows dead, recumbent, staggering (polioencephalomalacia). What is your treatment? * Selenium/Vit E * Oxytetracycline * Penicillin G * Vitamin B

Answer 409

**Vitamin B**

Question 410

Pigs on pasture – what parasite should you look for? * Ascaris suum * Trichuris suis * Trichinella * Stephanurus dentatus

Answer 410

**Trichuris suis** (whipworm), prevent by raising pigs off soil * *Ascaris suum - roundworm, milk spots* * *Trichinella - wild pigs and game species* * *Stephanurus dentatus - kidney worm, needs earthworms*

Question 411

The treatment of choice for giardia in dogs and cats is what? * Albon * Cephalexin * Metronidazole * Ivermectin

Answer 411

**Metronidazole** * *Albon - coccidia* * *Cephalexin - bacteria* * *Ivermectin - parasites*

Question 412

Ceftiofur withdrawal time?

Answer 412

**0 hours**

Question 413

Sick cow, fever, left sided ping, positive grunt test, reluctant to move, arched back? * a)LDA * b)Cecal torsion * c)TRP * d)Metritis

Answer 413

**TRP (hardware disease)**

Question 414

Induced ovulator? * a)Hamster * b)Guinea pig * c)Rabbit * d)Rat

Answer 414

**Rabbit** *Induced ovulators = rabbits, ferrets, cats, camelids​*

Question 415

What is the risk of WEE being transferred from horses to humans? * Viremia in horse is too low to infect mosquitos * Horses die too quickly * Easily contracted from horses

Answer 415

**Viremia in horse is too low to infect mosquitos** *Transmission to humans is very rare​*

Question 416

Reversal for oxymorphone

Answer 416

**Naloxone**

Question 417

Pruritic lesion in a dog: * Dermodex * Sarcoptes scabeii * Dermatophytes * Superficial pyoderma

Answer 417

***Sarcoptes scabei*** * *Dermodex - alopecia and folliculitis* * *Dermatophytes - alopecia and folliculitis* * *Superficial pyoderma*

Question 418

You have a dog with a round, scaly, hyperpigmented, alopecic lesion, what is the most appropriate diagnostic test? * Bacterial culture * LE stain * Cytology * Fungal culture/skin scrape

Answer 418

**Fungal culture/skin scrape - dermatophytes**

Question 419

Horse, caudal maxillary teeth infection can cause: * a)Maxillary Sinusitis * b)Otitis media * c)Uveitis

Answer 419

**Maxillary Sinusitis**

Question 420

How long to keep an ex-employee’s x-ray info for radiation exposure after termination of employment: * a)3 years * b)7 years * c)10 years * d)30 years

Answer 420

**30 years**

Question 421

RVT can do this under direct vet supervision: * a)Extract teeth * b)Diagnose * c)Dispense drug * d)Make incision

Answer 421

**Extract teeth**

Question 422

Horse had temp 100.8, P=38, R=10: * a)Normal * b)Tachypneic and tachycardic * c)Fever, tachycardia

Answer 422

**Normal**

Question 423

Outcome of veratrum californicum (skunk cabbage)? * No problem * Fetal deformities * Hydrops * Abortion

Answer 423

**Fetal deformities - cyclopia**

Question 424

What do you report to the Department of Justice/ government? * a)Class II drugs dispensed * b)Class II drugs administered * c)Class IV drugs dispensed * d)Class IV drugs administered

Answer 424

**Class II drugs dispensed**

Question 425

_Cutaneous_ larval migrans is caused by what parasite?

Answer 425

**Ancylostoma**

Question 426

TX for cutaneous cryptococcus:

Answer 426

**Surgery and antifungal**

Question 427

Broodmare vaccination schedule: * EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 1, 3, 5 months * EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 5, 7, 9 months * EPM at 1, 3, 5 months * EPM at 5, 7, 9 months

Answer 427

**EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 5, 7, 9 months**

Question 428

What should be done to treat/prevent mycoplasma and positive (contagious) mastitis: * a)Test and cull * b)Treat positive * c)Cull everything * d)Clean machines

Answer 428

**Test and cull**

Question 429

Budgies sick, dead, intranuclear inclusions in liver, spleen, kidney. Lesions in heart, lung, spleen, liver: * Pacheco’s disease * Avian influenza * Polyoma virus * Marek’s disease

Answer 429

**Polyoma virus** * Seen in young birds -- high prevalence in psittacines/budgerigars * Acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, death within 24-48 hrs * SC hemorrhage with injections * Pale skeletal muscles, SC hemorrhage, kidneys/liver enlarged * Intranuclear inclusions in the liver, kidney, spleen, heart, bone marrow, uropygial gland, skin, feather follicles * Dx: cloacal and choanal swabs for PCR * Vx available

Question 430

Pregnant mare with T=100.2, P=48, R=20:

Answer 430

**Normal temp, high P and R** * Normals * T: 99-100.8 * P: 28-40 * R: 10-14

Question 431

Canary presents for voice change and has lesions in liver, lungs, spleen, and heart. What is the dx?

Answer 431

**Aspergillosis**

Question 432

Reportable disease in birds: * Newcastle, avian influenza * Marek’s disease * Infectious coryza * Infectious bronchitis

Answer 432

**Newcastle, avian influenza**

Question 433

Horse that is drooling with flickering tongue. Dx: * Jimson weed * Guttural pouch mycosis * Strangles * Yellow star thistle poisoning

Answer 433

**Yellow star thistle poisoning - unable to chew**

Question 434

What is the incubation period for strangles? Strep. Equi equi

Answer 434

**3-10 days (3-14 days according to merck)**

Question 435

EBA (epizootic bovine foothill abortion) is transmitted by?

Answer 435

**Ticks** *Ornithodoros coriaceus*

Question 436

What laboratory parameters are seen with DIC? * Increased FDP, decreased platelets, decreased AT III * Increased HCT * Increased calcium * Decreased ALP

Answer 436

**Increased FDP, decreased platelets, decreased AT III**

Question 437

Where to cut to do a fracture repair on tibia? * a)Craniomedial * b)Caudolateral * c)Craniolateral * d)Caudomedial

Answer 437

**Craniomedial**

Question 438

Why use acepromazine as preanesthetic? * Lowers seizure threshold * Potentiates induction drugs * Hypotension and tachycardia * Can easily be reversible by stimulating the patient

Answer 438

**Potentiates induction drugs**

Question 439

Structure allowing communication between sinus and oropharynx in a bird? * Choana * Maxillary sinus * Pharynx

Answer 439

**Choana**

Question 440

Bird has “clicking” sounds in lungs: * Aspergillus * Pasteurella multocida * Mites * Tracheal stenosis

Answer 440

**Mites - air sac mites**

Question 441

Pruritic lesion on cow: * Dermacentor * Sarcoptes * Ring worm

Answer 441

**Sarcoptes**

Question 442

What can a non-vet, non-rvt charge for? * a)Teeth extractions * b)Cleaning teeth with cotton, gauze and tooth brush * c)Using instruments to clean teeth and treat periodontal disease * d)Getting rid of calculus and plaque to prevent periodontal disease

Answer 442

**Cleaning teeth with cotton, gauze and tooth brush​**

Question 443

Expiratory effort, problem is where? * a)Bronchi * b)Trachea

Answer 443

**Bronchi** * INSPIRATORY EFFORT= EXTRATHORACIC=UPPER * EXPIRATORY EFFORT=INTRATHORACIC=LOWER

Question 444

How do you diagnose physaloptera in dog/cat? * Fecal float * Fecal smear * Tracheal wash * Endoscopy

Answer 444

**Endoscopy** *Physaloptera = stomach roundworm in dogs and ​cats*

Question 445

Cat is BAR, losing weight, increased vocalization, gallop rhythm, 15 yo. In addition to rads, what else do you do? * a)ECHO * b)EKG * c)Thyroid panel

Answer 445

**Thyroid panel**

Question 446

How long is interstate health certificate good for?

Answer 446

**30 days**

Question 447

What’s the worst progression of corneal ulcer? * a)Decreasing blepharospasm without central dye uptake * b)Increasing chemosis with no uptake

Answer 447

**Decreasing blepharospasm without central dye uptake - desmetocele**

Question 448

How to tx horse eye with no fluoroscein dye uptake, but anterior uveitis and aqueous flare? * Topical antibiotics with corticosteroids, systemic banamine (NSAID) * Topical antibiotics without corticosteroids

Answer 448

**Topical antibiotics with corticosteroids, systemic banamine (NSAID)**

Question 449

Dog seizuring after whelping. How do you know its intracranial? * Nystagmus * Muscle tremoring * Lethargy

Answer 449

**Nystagmus - vertical or rotary**

Question 450

While using ketamine for anesthesia in a horse, how do you know when the horse is getting light?

Answer 450

**Rapid Nystagmus** *Horses maintain their cranial nerves and reflexes with ketamine, so they will have a positive palpebral response while under anesthesia*

Question 451

Horse was on a trail ride and is now sick. What diagnostic test is most appropriate at this time? * a)CBC + buffy coat smear * b)Chemistry panel * c)PCV only

Answer 451

**CBC + buffy coat smear** *Suspect tick-borne disease​*

Question 452

Horse with upper respiratory effort, crackles, wheezes, how to dx? * Tracheal wash * BAL * Atropine challenge test

Answer 452

**Atropine challenge test** *Atropine is primarily used as a preanesthetic to prevent bradycardia and reduce airway secretions, and as emergency therapy of dyspneic animals with organophosphate intoxication. Atropine is also used for bronchodilation in horses. Used as a Bronchodilator to see if has COPD​*

Question 453

What predisposes a horse to COPD?

Answer 453

* **Dust** * **Hay** * **Decreased ventilation** * **Stalls**

Question 454

Diagnosing pancreatitis in a cat: * TLI * Lipase * Amylase

Answer 454

**TLI**

Question 455

What anesthesia is best in animals with a proptosed eye? * Propofol * Diazepam * Butorphanol * Buprenorphine

Answer 455

**Propofol - decreases IOP**

Question 456

Best drug for arthritis and pain mangagement in cats:

Answer 456

**buprenorphine​**

Question 457

Anesthetic used in ophthalmic exam on a cat: * Ketamine/valium * Proparacaine * Tropicamide

Answer 457

**Proparacaine - local anesthetic** * *Ketamine/valium - sedative* * *Tropicamide - dilation of pupil*

Question 458

Physical exam of an animal with pleuropneumonia: * Increased breath sounds * Wheezes * Dyspnea * Stridor

Answer 458

**Dyspnea**

Question 459

How do you dx pleuritis in a horse?

Answer 459

**Thoracic ultrasound​**

Question 460

Several cows dead, recumbent, some are acutely blind but intact PLR, staggering. What do you treat with while bloodwork is pending? * Vitamin A * Copper * Clavamox * Thiamine

Answer 460

**Thiamine** *Suspect polioencephalomalacia!! Treat with thiamine​*

Question 461

Sheep weak, afebrile, anemic, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria. DDX?

Answer 461

**Copper toxicity**

Question 462

Palliative care for a horse with proximal enteritis:

Answer 462

**NG tube​**

Question 463

Equine abdominocentesis right on midline has a PCV \> than peripheral blood. What did you tap?

Answer 463

**Spleen**

Question 464

Non-complicated diabetic dog treatment: Insulin SQ SID Insulin SQ BID Glypizine PO SID Glypizine PO BID

Answer 464

**Insulin SQ BID**

Question 465

What drug is used for treating conjunctivitis due to chlamydophila tx? * Tetracycline * Neomycin * Amikacin * Gentamicin

Answer 465

**Tetracycline**

Question 466

Where is the virus that is responsible for contagious equine metritis harbored?

Answer 466

* **Mare’s clitoral fossa** * **Stallion’s urethral fossa**

Question 467

Common cause of equine metritis post-coitus?

Answer 467

*Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus*

Question 468

What pathogen is a major concern in milk? * Leptospirosis * Brucellosis and tuberculosis * Salmonella * E. coli

Answer 468

**Salmonella**

Question 469

General clinical signs of salmonella in dogs

Answer 469

**Vomiting and diarrhea**

Question 470

9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do? * Insufflate with oxygen, treat with penicillin * Insufflate with oxygen, treat with gentamicin * Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin * Perform tracheostomy and treat with gentamicin

Answer 470

**Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin** *Strangles!*

Question 471

How do you treat a rabbit with perineal myiasis? * a)Mechanical removal * b)Ivermectin * c)Flush with chlorhexidine * d)Put some Tyzzer’s on it

Answer 471

**Mechanical removal**

Question 472

Area of lesions on necropsy of horse that died of sand colic? * Small intestine * Large colon * Cecum * Epiploic foramen

Answer 472

**Large colon**

Question 473

Hound gets attacked by a bear one week prior to presentation with generalized muscle rigidity, lips pulled back and ears erect. Dx?

Answer 473

**Tetanus**

Question 474

How do you treat an unvaccinated horse that was exposed to tetanus?

Answer 474

**Antitoxin followed by toxoid and repeated in 30 days**

Question 475

Cow died, bleeding out of orifices, no rigor mortis, acute death, splenomegaly:

Answer 475

**ANTHRAX**

Question 476

What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it? * Transport to federal slaughter house and notify of condition beforehand * Transport to state slaughter house * Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regulations * Slaughter on the dairy for meat consumption

Answer 476

**Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regulations**

Question 477

Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect? * Hydrocephalus * Toxoplasmosis * Panleukopenia * Feline herpesvirus

Answer 477

**Hydrocephalus**

Question 478

Normal incubation for Rhodococcus equi?

Answer 478

**14-21 days**

Question 479

10 yo Cocker presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take? * Palpate LN, electrocardiogram (ECG), abdominal u/s or rads * Lymphography, LN aspirate, abdominal u/s * Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads * Lymphography, auscult heart, something else

Answer 479

**Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads**

Question 480

Horse has been treated and is ready to go. Client refuses to pay bill as he is going bankrupt. What can you legally do? * Refuse client entry to clinic * Claim horse as yours * Hold horse and charge for board * Euthanize horse with swift kick to larynx

Answer 480

**Hold horse and charge for board - lien laws**

Question 481

Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV. How do you confirm cat has FeLV?

Answer 481

**ELISA test after 6 months**

Question 482

How long after 1st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?

Answer 482

**28 days**

Question 483

Who are veterinarians NOT responsible for in regard to radiographs? * People under 18 years old, * Pregnant women, * General responsibility for ensuring employees have on radiation detection badges * RVTs

Answer 483

**RVTs**

Question 484

What is the primary environmental pathogen that increases SCC? * E. coli or strep. Species that’s not strep agalactiae * Mycoplasma * Pasteurella * Tuberculosis

Answer 484

**E. coli or strep. Species that’s not strep agalactiae**

Question 485

Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints . What is it? * Mycoplasma * Bluetongue * CAEV

Answer 485

**CAEV** * *M. Mycoides mycoides causes polyarthritis with necrosis* * *CAEV causes polyarthritis with calcification*

Question 486

Lethal White Foal Syndrome leads to intestinal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Answer 486

**intestinal aganglionosis** *Euthanize immediately once ID’d​*

Question 487

Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this? * Soft feed * Missing teeth * Jaw grown wrong

Answer 487

**Jaw grown wrong**

Question 488

Sheep has caseous lymphadenopathy. What is this? * Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis * Lentivirus * Rabiesvirus * Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 488

**Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis**

Question 489

How do you prevent Epizootic Bovine Abortion?

Answer 489

**Expose heifers before breeding**

Question 490

A horse with sarcoids (tumors of eye, skin, genitals). What is NOT a treatment? * Ointment (xxterra) * Benign neglect * Chemotherapy * Vaccine * Radiation * Cryosurgery or surgery

Answer 490

**Vaccine**

Question 491

Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx? * a)Serum antibodies * b)Buffy coat * c)RBC smear

Answer 491

**Buffy coat** Look for intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils

Question 492

Horse with decreased platelets, icterus, anemia, neutrophil inclusions:

Answer 492

**Anaplasma phagocytophilum** *Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis​*

Question 493

Herd of cattle get sick/anemic, but calves are healthy. DX?

Answer 493

**Anaplasma**

Question 494

Cat with ethylene glycol poisoning. How do you treat? * Ethanol * Activated charcoal * Yohimbine

Answer 494

**Ethanol**

Question 495

Herd of cows. Owner worried about mycoplasma. How do you test for mycoplasma?

Answer 495

**Bulk tank milk culture**

Question 496

Farm with multiple species. All animals have vesicles. What is it? * FMD * Vesicular stomatitis * Vesicular disease of swine * BSE

Answer 496

**Vesicular stomatitis​** *Report to state vet​*

Question 497

Cow with ulcers in mouth AND lame. Which are possible causes? * FMD * BVD * Vesicular stomatitis * Bluetongue * IBR

Answer 497

**FMD and Vesicular stomatitis**

Question 498

Intact 5 year old male cat with severe stomatitis probably has:

Answer 498

**FIV**

Question 499

Herd of cows, 20 die/sick within 1 hour. Tongues are out, but cows are alert. What do you tell the owner? * Cull entire herd * Continue feed/water, start on antibiotics * Stop access to feed/water * Isolate all affected cattle, disease is most likely contagious

Answer 499

**Stop access to feed/water** *Stop access to feed and water because could be botulism​*

Question 500

Major clinical sign of botulism in cattle:

Answer 500

_Flaccid_ paralysis

Question 501

Cows, late march, snow storm, ½ dead. What plant would have killed them? * Death camas * Larkspur * Oakbud

Answer 501

**Larkspur** *Larkspur grows well in cold, often associated with lots of rain and snow. Causes neuromuscular paralysis and cows like eating it​*

Question 502

Cows with abortions and calves 2-3 month old with diarrhea. What is it? * BVD * Neospora * Brucella * IBR

Answer 502

**BVD - abortion later in gestation, diarrhea if calf survives**

Question 503

Dog with lots of c/s: isothenuria, blood in urine, vomiting. What caused it? * Anticoagulant rodenticide * Amanita toxicity * Metaldehyde toxicity * Ethylene glycol

Answer 503

**Ethylene glycol**

Question 504

Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?

Answer 504

**Increase energy in diet**

Question 505

Your horse has been diagnosed with sand colic. What is the IDEAL treatment? * Stall rest, mineral oil, strong laxatives * Exercise, offer water, psyllium * Strong laxatives, off water, stall rest * Feed horse in area where lots of gravel/sand is located

Answer 505

**Exercise, offer water, psyllium**

Question 506

What are the components of horner’s syndrome?

Answer 506

"My 3rd Sunken Toe" * **Miosis** * **3rd eyelid protrustion** * **Sunken eyes (enophthalmos)** * **Ptosis**

Question 507

Horse has a bad eye. What do you do? * a)Stain and check * b)Ignore * c)Remove

Answer 507

**Stain and check**

Question 508

What injury is ultrasound therapy most useful/indicated for? * An animal that had muscular and tendon repair on the thigh * Broken bone * Liver tumor

Answer 508

**An animal that had muscular and tendon repair on the thigh** * *Heats the soft tissue --\> vasodilation --\> increased healing* * *Will not cause skin to get hot* * *Must not heat over 45 C* * *Do not use on: eye, uterus, heart, healing fractures, after exercise, growing bones, inflamed blood vessels*

Question 509

Need to anesthetize a horse for a 45 minute procedure. Drugs?

Answer 509

* **Xylazine** * **Ketamine** * **Guaifenisin**

Question 510

Which virus does not typically cause respiratory signs in horses? * EVA, * EHV-1 * EHV-4 * Equine influenza * EPM

Answer 510

**EPM**

Question 511

Animal is in left lateral see an opacity in lungs, when in right lateral mass is not visualized? * Tumor is in left lung lobe * Tumor is in right lung lobe * Mass is covered by heart silhouette * Developer error

Answer 511

**Tumor is in right lung lobe**

Question 512

Alopecia in young horse: * a)Cullicoides * b)Dermatophytosis * c)Flat sarcoid

Answer 512

**Dermatophytosis**

Question 513

How to diagnose coccidia in neonatal piglets? * Fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI * Fecal PCR * Fecal sediment * ELISA test

Answer 513

**Fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI**

Question 514

How to diagnose BRSV? * Culture nasal discharge * Thoracic radiographs * Antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash * Necropsy

Answer 514

**Antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash**

Question 515

GDV- 180 degree rotation clockwise. What do you expect to see in surgery? * Cranioventral pylorus to fundus * Caudodorsal pylorus to fundus * Caudoventral pylorus to the fundus * Craniodorsal pylorus to fundus

Answer 515

**Caudoventral pylorus to the fundus​**

Question 516

Major cause of coliform mastitis? * Lack of post dipping * Poor hygiene, no pre-dips, poor bedding * Leaving udders and teats wet before milking * Problem with automated back-flushing system * Milking older cows before fresh cows

Answer 516

**Leaving udders and teats wet before milking**

Question 517

A vaccinated bobcat bites a person. How do you treat it? * As a vaccinated animal * As an unvaccinated animal

Answer 517

**As an **_un_**vaccinated animal**

Question 518

Most common isolate in cat bites:

Answer 518

**Pasteurella​**

Question 519

Dog is seizing unrelentingly. The seizures are not associated with environmental triggers: * Metaldehyde * Strychnine * Rodenticide

Answer 519

**Metaldehyde** *Can also cause hypersalivation and tremors*

Question 520

You are acquiring your neighbors dairy herd, how do you economically check for mycoplasma mastitis in the herd? * CMT on every cow * SCC on bulk milk * Rectal exam of each cow * Culture bulk milk

Answer 520

**Culture bulk milk** *CMT on every cow, then culture if it is positive​*

Question 521

Cow has a sore that is super painful in its heel area, and there is hair growing in it:

Answer 521

**Digital dermatitis, papilloma virus** *Treat with topical oxyvet*

Question 522

How to you treat salmon poisoning?

Answer 522

**IV fluids, tetracycline, praziquantel**

Question 523

A brachycephalic dog of some sort comes in post trauma. Its eye is hanging out of its socket, the eye is hemorrhagic, and its cornea is ripped open and the iris has prolapsed through: * Enucleate eye, systemic antibiotics are not needed * Replace eye and put on systemic antibiotics * Enucleate the eye and place on systemic antibiotics * Replace eye but do not put on systemic antibiotics

Answer 523

**Enucleate the eye and place on systemic antibiotics**

Question 524

5 dairy cows out of 200 show mandibular edema and watery diarrhea. They are happy and afebrile. What is the most likely cause? * Johnes * Tuberculosis * BVD * Haemonchus contortus

Answer 524

**Johnes** *Edema from hypoproteinemia​*

Question 525

How do you protect from Rhodococcus equi? * Prevent dusty environment and crowding * Vaccinate * Prophylactic antibiotics * Prophylactic antivirals

Answer 525

**Prevent dusty environment and crowding** *Dust free, well ventilated prevent overcrowding, remove manure​*

Question 526

What is contraindicated when removing a foxtail? * Suturing the hole closed * Following the line of entry to get to the foxtail * Manually grabbing the foxtail with alligator forceps * Flushing with dilute povidone iodine

Answer 526

**Suturing the hole closed**

Question 527

Which drug is contraindicated for an animal with increased intracranial pressure? * Propofol * Ketamine * Diazepam

Answer 527

**Ketamine**

Question 528

Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?

Answer 528

**Quarantine, intramammary ceftiofur during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic**

Question 529

Contagious Mastitis pathogens:

Answer 529

* ***Staph aureus*** * ***Strep agalactia*** * ***Mycoplasma*** * ***Corynebacterium bovis***

Question 530

What by law is DVM required to post on their door?

Answer 530

**Name, Telephone #, hours and emergency clinic location/phone #, emergency #**

Question 531

Best way to prevent _environmental_ mastitis:

Answer 531

**PRE-DIP**

Question 532

SCC limit for _CALIFORNIA_ Milk

Answer 532

**600,000** *If more than that, then culture milk of all cows​*

Question 533

Treatment for _chronic_ *Mycoplasma bovis* mastitis:

Answer 533

**Cull** if there are chronic clinical signs

Question 534

You are presented with a 5 yr old dalmatian with bilateral mucopurulent ocular discharge with positive stain uptake in the left eye. What is the most important question to ask the owner?

Answer 534

**Has the dog been on antibiotics recently?** *KCS can be secondary to antibiotics*

Question 535

Best place to euthanize a cow?

Answer 535

**Midway between the eye and the contralateral ear**

Question 536

T/F: Gentamicin can be given systemically to a cow

Answer 536

**False**

Question 537

Cutaneous cryptococcus in cat, how do you treat?

Answer 537

**Surgery + oral ketoconazole**

Question 538

Dog ate walnuts. Now hypermetric, tremors, ataxia, opisthotonus. Clinical signs worse when stimulated. What caused clinical signs?

Answer 538

**Mycotoxin on skin of walnut​**

Question 539

First treatment for horse that ate **oleander**:

Answer 539

**Activated charcoal​** *Oleander contains cardiotoxic compounds​*

Question 540

Young (days old) foal with fever, anorexia, lethargy. Has leukocytosis and increased peritoneal fluid. Abdominal ultrasound shows enlarged/dilated urachus. What do you do?

Answer 540

**Antibiotics then surgery that day**

Question 541

Where are avian gonads located?

Answer 541

**Cranial pole of the kidneys**

Question 542

Need to anesthetize a horse for a standing limb procedure. What do you use?

Answer 542

**Diazepam and ketamine​**

Question 543

How to prevent myxomatosus in rabbits:

Answer 543

**keep away from mosquitos**

Question 544

Dog presents after eating meatballs from the ground in a park. Convulsing. What toxicity should you be concerned about?

Answer 544

**metaldehyde & strychnine**

Question 545

What is associated with polytetrafluoroethylene toxicity in birds?

Answer 545

**Teflon coated pans​**

Question 546

What is the best way to prevent toxoplasma transmission to pregnant females?

Answer 546

**wear gloves when gardening and wash all fruits and vegetables**

Question 547

Border collie showing signs of ivermectin toxicity how do you test?

Answer 547

**Cheek swab for ABCB-1 gene**

Question 548

Dachshund presents lame in hindlimbs. You suspect IVDD. What is a major clue in diagnosis?

Answer 548

**Loss of panniculus in T-L region**

Question 549

Bulls present with infertility and cardiac disease. They most likely have exceeded the dietary recommendations of:

Answer 549

**Cottonseed**

Question 550

Horse with SCC on eyelid. What do you tell owner?

Answer 550

**Radiation is gold standard therapy** *Surgical excision for equine squamous cell carcinoma yields ~50% success when used alone. When surgery is combined with cryotherapy, hyperthermia, or local chemotherapy, the success rate is markedly increased​*

Question 551

3 month old kitten positive for FIV. What do you do?

Answer 551

**Retest at 6 months**

Question 552

Prominent granulocyte in birds:

Answer 552

**heterophil**

Question 553

HYPP is common in *what type of horse*?

Answer 553

**Quarter horse**

Question 554

Small toy breed. How do you prevent hypoglycemia?

Answer 554

**Frequent small meals**

Question 555

5 yo cat presents with bilateral nasal swelling, nasal discharge and a mass over nose. The cat is afebrile and the owner has financial constraints. What diagnostic test is _indicated_ in this situation in order to diagnose this cat’s problem?

Answer 555

**Cytology for crypto**

Question 556

What parasite causes _ocular larval migrans_ in children?

Answer 556

**Toxocara canis​**

Question 557

Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit:

Answer 557

**Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV**

Question 558

Where do you give an injection in a turtle?

Answer 558

**IM front leg**

Question 559

Cat with confirmed visualization of ethylene glycol ingestion. Do you immediately treat or run other tests?

Answer 559

**immediately treat**

Question 560

Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?

Answer 560

**Increase Energy in diet**

Question 561

An owner finds their calico writhing on the ground and vocalizing, and is concerned about a broken back. Your PE is normal. What do you suspect?

Answer 561

**In heat**

Question 562

An otherwise healthy intact adult hunting dog has vaginal discharge but not painful to palpation, afebrile, and has normal CBC. What is your next diagnostic step?

Answer 562

Cytology or Vaginoscopy? ## Footnote *Unsure about this one*

Question 563

Appaloosa gelding with growing ulcerated thing on his sheath. Most likely is? * Mast cell tumor, SCC, habronemiasis * SCC, habronemiasis, fibroblastic sarcoid * Habronemiasis, mast cell tumor, melanoma * Melanoma, mast cell tumor, SCC

Answer 563

**SCC, habronemiasis, fibroblastic sarcoid**

Question 564

What do you hope to achieve by administering Altrenogest to a horse * Reduce cribbing * Reduce submissive behavior * Reduce behaviors associated with cycling * Reduce behaviors associated with a granulosa theca cell tumor

Answer 564

**Reduce behaviors associated with cycling**

Question 565

Propylene glycol causes __________ anemia in cats

Answer 565

**Heinz body**

Question 566

A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?

Answer 566

**Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed**

Question 567

Toxic component of **oleander:**

Answer 567

**oleandrin** *Oleander is cardiotoxic! For severe bradycardia, treat with Atropine*

Question 568

Arsenic poisoning binds sulfhydryl groups on enzymes and other cellular proteins and impairs \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Answer 568

**cellular respiration and depletes energy stores** * *Tissues most affected: those rich in oxidative enzymes (GI tract, endothelium, lung, liver, kidney, epidermis)* * *GI: **hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, endothelial damage***

Question 569

Malignant hyperthermia is associated with a mutation of the __________ gene

Answer 569

**Ryanodine receptor 1**