Ca, Phos, Mg, and Parathyroid Disease Flashcards

1
Q

The hormones involved in regulating Ca metabolism include:

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH), 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (vitD), and calcitonin

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2
Q

Describe the role of PTH in Ca and Phos metabolism.

A

PTH is secreted by parathyroid gland chief cells and increases Ca concentrations by mobilizing Ca from the bone. It also increases Ca reabsorption in the distal tubules of nephrons and increases urinary phosphate (phos) excretion.

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3
Q

Describe Vit D metabolism in dogs and cats.

A

After ingestion and uptake, vit D (cholecalciferol) is first hydroxylated in the liver to 25(OH)D3 (calcidiol), and then it is further hydroxylated to 1,25(OH)2D3 (calcitriol) by the proximal tubular cells of the kidney. This final hydroxylation by the 1α-hydroxylase enzyme system to form active calcitriol is under tight regulation and is influenced primarily by serum PTH, calcitriol, phosphorus, ionized calcium, and fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF-23) concentrations. Decreased levels of phosphorus, calcitriol, and calcium promote calcitriol synthesis, and increased levels of these substances all cause a decrease in calcitriol synthesis. Increased PTH has a potent effect to enhance calcitriol synthesis, whereas FGF-23 inhibits the synthesis of calcitriol.

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4
Q

Describe the role of Vit D in Ca and Phos metabolism.

A

Calcitriol primarily acts on the intestine, bone, kidney, and parathyroid gland. In the intestine, calcitriol enhances the absorption of calcium and phosphate at the level of the enterocyte. In the bone, calcitriol promotes bone formation and mineralization by regulation of proteins produced by osteoblasts. In addition, calcitriol is also necessary for normal bone resorption because of its effect on osteoclast differentiation. In the kidney, calcitriol acts to inhibit the 1α-hydroxylase enzyme system, as well as promote calcium and phosphorus reabsorption from the glomerular filtrate. In the parathyroid gland, calcitriol acts genomically to inhibit the synthesis of PTH.

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5
Q

Describe the role of calcitonin in Ca and Phos metabolism.

A

Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland parafollicular C cells. It acts mostly on the bone to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption activity but also decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium.

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6
Q

True or false: yperCa interferes with synthesis of antidiuretic hormone, leading to an inability to concentrate urine and polyuria/polydipsia (PU/PD).

A

True

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7
Q

Provide a comprehensive list of differential diagnoses for hypercalcemia

A
  1. Malignancy [Lymphoma, AGASACA,
    Multiple myeloma, Miscellaneous tumors (squamous cell carcinoma, osteosarcoma, lung carcinoma, mammary carcinoma, malignant melanoma, metastatic bone tumors)]
  2. Primary hyperparathyroidism
  3. Hypoadrenocorticism
  4. Chronic kidney disease
  5. Granulomatous disease
  6. Hypervitaminosis D
  7. Cholecalciferol rodenticide intoxication
  8. Excessive dietary supplementation
  9. Ingestion of human medication containing calcitriol
  10. Idiopathic (cats)
  11. Bone lesions
  12. Hyperlipidemia
  13. Juvenile dogs
  14. Hyperproteinemia
  15. Lab error
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8
Q

Describe how CKD can alter calcium homeostasis.

A

CKD is associated with decreases in 1-alpha-hydroxylase synthesis and phos retention, which inhibits its enzymatic action. These lead to reduced concentrations of vitD which, in turn, leads to decreased GI Ca absorption, subclinical decreases in circulating Ca and stimulation of PTH synthesis. These responses initially maintain normoCa but as CKD progresses, they may become insufficient and hypoCa can ensue. While CKD is typically associated with normoCa or hypoCa, a small number of affected animals can become hyperCa. The etiology of CKD and hyperCa is poorly understood but may be due to autonomous secretion of PTH, a raised set point for Ca autoregulation, or increased binding of Ca to retained anions

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9
Q

True or False: In cats, CKD and malignancy (especially squamous cell carcinoma) are the most frequent causes of hyperCa.

A

True

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10
Q

Provide a comprehensive list of differential diagnoses for hypocalcemia

A
  1. Hypoalbuminemia
  2. Acute and chronic kidney failure
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Eclampsia
  5. Protein-losing enteropathies
  6. Pancreatitis
  7. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
  8. Trauma
  9. SIRS
  10. Phosphate-containing enemas
  11. Tumor lysis syndrome
  12. Hypomagnesemia
  13. Hypovitaminosis D
  14. Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
  15. Chelating agents (e.g., EDTA)
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11
Q

Provide a comprehensive list of differential diagnoses for hyperphosphatemia

A
  1. Young growing healthy animals
  2. Hypervitaminosis D
  3. AKI or CKD
  4. Hypoparathyroidism
  5. Excessive dietary intake
  6. Osteolytic bone lesions
  7. Uroabdomen
  8. Hyperthyroidism
  9. Hyperadrenocorticism
  10. Metabolic acidosis
  11. Tumor cell lysis syndrome
  12. Iatrogenic (e.g., phosphate-enemas, IV phos)
  13. Lab error
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12
Q

Provide a comprehensive list of differential diagnoses for hypophosphatemia

A
  1. Primary hyperparathyroidism
  2. Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia
  3. Diabetic ketoacidosis
  4. Vitamin D deficiency
  5. Decreased dietary intake
  6. Renal tubular disorders
  7. Respiratory and metabolic alkalosis
  8. Iatrogenic (e.g., phosphate binders, parenteral glucose, or sodium bicarbonate administration)
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13
Q

List important drugs used for treatment of hypercalcemia.

A
  1. IVF (0.9% NaCl)
  2. Furosemide
  3. Glucocorticoids
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
  5. Bisphosphonates
  6. Calcimimetics (Cinacalcet)
  7. Calcitonin-salmon
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14
Q

How does furosemide treat hypercalcemia?

A

Furosemide enhances urinary calcium loss

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15
Q

How do glucocorticoids treat hypercalcemia?

A

Glucocorticoids lead to reduced bone resorption, decreased intestinal calcium absorption, and increased renal calcium excretion.

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16
Q

How do bisphosphonates treat hypercalcemia?

A

Bisphosphonates decrease osteoclastic activity, thus decreasing bone resorption. These include zoledronate and pamidronate.

17
Q

How do calcimimetics treat hypercalcemia?

A

These drugs activate the calcium-sensing receptor and thus decrease PTH secretion.

18
Q

True or False: Patients with decreased total calcium concentrations but normal ionized calcium concentrations require no treatment.

A

True

19
Q

List acute therapies for patients with hypocalcemia warranting treatment.

A
  1. Ca-gluconate or Ca-chloride IV over 10-20 min.
  2. Initiate Vit D supplementation
  3. Oral Ca carbonate (more for long-term management)
20
Q

Which form of Vit D is administered for supplementation and why?

A

Calcitriol because it has a quick onset of action, short plasma half-life, and relatively short biological effect half-life.

21
Q

True or False: Magnesium is a coenzyme for the membrane-bound sodium-potassium ATPase pump and functions to maintain the sodium-potassium gradient across all membranes.

A

True. Calcium ATPase and proton pumps also require magnesium.

22
Q

Describe magnesium homeostasis.

A

Magnesium homeostasis is achieved through intestinal absorption and renal excretion. Absorption occurs primarily in the small intestine (jejunum and ileum), with little or no absorption occurring in the large intestine. The loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule are the main sites of magnesium reabsorption in the kidney. The kidney is the main regulator of serum magnesium concentration and total body magnesium content; regulation is achieved by both glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption.

23
Q

List the major roles of phosphorus in homeostasis.

A
  1. Maintenance of normal bone and teeth matrix in the form of hydroxyapatite.
  2. Regulation of tissue oxygenation by way of 2,3-di-phosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), which decreases the affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin.
  3. Support of cellular membrane structure and ionic charge via phospholipids.
  4. Mitochondrial production of ATP through the electron transport system by phosphoproteins.
  5. Buffering acidotic conditions in the body.
24
Q

What is the role of phosphatonins in phosphate homeostasis?

A

Phosphatonins are circulating substances that increase renal phosphate excretion. Fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF-23) is a phosphatonin that is heavily involved in the regulation of phosphate and vitamin D homeostasis.

25
Q

How does hemolysis occur secondary to hypophosphatemia?

A

This occurs because of decreased concentrations of red blood cell ATP and 2,3-DPG, spherocytosis, red cell membrane rigidity, and shorted red blood cell survival in some cats and dogs. Decreased intracellular 2,3-DPG also impairs the release of oxygen by hemoglobin to tissues, leading to tissue hypoxia

26
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hyperphosphatemia in CKD patients.

A

Hyperphosphatemia inhibits 1α-hydroxylase activity and stimulates the secretion of PTH. Conversion of vitamin D to its active metabolite, calcitriol, is catalyzed by 1α-hydroxylase. Decreased calcitriol reduces intestinal absorption of phosphate; however, increased PTH enhances intestinal absorption and urinary excretion of phosphate, resulting in a small net effect of increased phosphate excretion. Calcitriol concentrations are subsequently restored by increased PTH. Initially, this restores serum phosphate; however, when PTH decreases, serum phosphate increases because of a decreased glomerular filtration rate and the cycle continues to preserve phosphate balance. Eventually, as CKD progresses, maximal inhibition of phosphate tubular reabsorption is surpassed, causing persistent hyperphosphatemia. As the number of functional tubular cells decreases, renal calcitriol synthesis tapers, and the magnitude of hyperphosphatemia progresses despite increased PTH.

27
Q
A