Calcium Channel Blockers Flashcards

1
Q

Calcium blockers have usually what suffix in their names?

A

-epine in their names except two, Verapamil and Diltiazem

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2
Q

What are the group of drugs that block calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering your membranes?

A

CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS

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3
Q

What are the different types of calcium channel blockers?

A

● First, we have the dihydropyridines.
○ The 1st generation representative is nifedipine, which is the oldest calcium channel blocker
○ The 2nd generation you have isradipine, nicardipine, and felodipine
○ The 3rd generation you have amlodipine

● Second, you have the phenylalkylamines under which is your verapamil

● Next is your benzothiazepines under which is your diltiazem

● The main effect is to decrease contractility primarily for verapamil and diltiazem
● You also have decrease in heart rate and decrease conduction velocity

● Basically, the main action of your calcium channel blockers is it will produce smooth muscle relaxation which will end up in dilation and decrease in blood pressure

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4
Q

What basically happens when you have a calcium channel blocker?

A

○ It will block the calcium from entering your smooth muscle

● When the calcium enters the calcium channels, you will have an activation in the myosin light chain kinase, which will produce phosphorylation and then you will have actin-myosin cross-bridging which will lead to contractions and vasoconstriction
○ Thus, if you block that then you will have vasodilation mainly your arteriolar smooth muscle or your arterioles

● On the heart, your calcium will stimulate release from the internal stores this will lead to constriction of the heart or contraction
○ If you block it, you will have a decrease in your AV conduction velocity and a decrease in SA node pacemaker rate so you have a decrease in your heart rate and a decrease in myocardial contractility because of the decrease in your calcium entry

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5
Q

Mediate entry of extracellular Ca++ into smooth M and cardiac myocytes, SA and AV nodal cells in response to electrical depolarization

A

L-type/slow Ca++ channels

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6
Q

○ Relaxation esp in arterial beds
○ Negative inotropic effects in cardiac myocytes
○ All blockers exert these 2 actions
■ Ratio differs according to class, presence of chronotropic and dromotropic effects

A

AKA Ca++ entry blockers - inhibit Calcium reflux

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7
Q

Phenylalkylamine

A

Verapamil, Gallopamil

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8
Q

Benzothiazepine

A

Diltiazem, Clenazem

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9
Q

Dihydropyridines:

A

○ Amlodipine, Clevidipine, Felodipine
○ Isradipine, Lercanidine, Nicardipine
○ Nifedipine, Nimodipine, Nisoldipine, Aranidipine, Azelnidipine, Cilinidipine, Efonidipine, Manidipine, Nivaldipine

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10
Q

UPDATES ON CLASSIFICATION
● Based on formula and length of action

A

1st Generation
● Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Verapamil and Diltiazem

2nd Generation
● Longer action, enhanced vascular selectivity
● Slow release
○ Nifedipine SR, Felodipine ER, Diltiazem SR
● Benidipine, Manidipine, Nilvadipine, Nintrendipine

3rd Generation
● Long action
○ Amlodipine - Sustained blood concentration with long t1⁄2
● Lipophilic and highly histotrophic
○ Lercanidipine, Lacidipine
● Azelnidipine - Lipophilic, high affinity to vascular tissue

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11
Q

UPDATES ON CCBS AND THE HEART

A

Framingham study
○ HR one of the most important factors of CVD

Short-acting DHPs
○ Relax tachycardia and rapid BP decrease

CCBs with sustained action to avoid reflex tachycardia
○ Amlodipine, Lercanidipine, Azelnidipine
○ Nifedipine SR

CCBs with blocking action on multiple Calcium channels
○ Cilnidipine, Efonidipine

Some CCBs have anti-atherosclerotic action and possess antioxidant activity → cardioprotection
○ Amlodipine, Benipidine
○ Prevent myocardial remodeling induced by chronic nitric oxide inhibition in rats

HPN - one of the most important risk factors for the progression of renal disease
○ ACE inhibitors and ARBs - treatment of choice in patients with renal disease → reduce proteinuria
○ AASK study, Amlodipine - retards progression of
renal disease (less than Ramipril)
○ Possible renal protective action of CCBs
■ Dilation of efferent arteriole → reduces glomerular capillary pressure

ACE Inhibitors and Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARB)
○ Treatment of choice in patients with renal disease who also have hypertension
■ Reduces proteinuria
■ Improves renal disease

AASK study
○ Amlodipine - retards progression of renal disease (less than Ramipril)

● Possible renal protective action of Calcium CHannel Blockers
○ Dilation of efferent arterioles → reducing glomerular capillary pressure

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12
Q

MECHANISM OF ACTION: CCB

A

● Increased concentration of cytosolic Ca++ → increase contraction in both cardiac and smooth muscle cells

Cardiac Myocytes
○ Entry of extracellular Ca++ causing a larger Ca++ release from intracellular stores (Ca++ induced Ca++ release) → initiating contraction

● Bind to alpha1 subunit of the L-type voltage-gated Ca++ channels
○ Reduce Ca++ influx through these channels

● Dihydropyridines - does not have or produce any negative inotropy or negative chronotropy

● Verapamil and Diltiazem - Negative inotropy and negative chronotropy causing the decrease in Heart Rate, increased due to SNS activation

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13
Q

SOME CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS BLOCK OTHER CALCIUM CHANNELS

A

Efonidipine:
● Long acting CCB
● Blocks both L-type and T-type channels

Benidipine, Nilvadipine, Aranidipine:
● T-type blockers

Cilnidipine, Amlodipine:
● L-type and N-type blockers
● N-type
○ Distributed along nerve and brain
○ Inhibits SNS

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14
Q

PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTIONS
Vascular Tissue

A

● Depolarization of vascular smooth muscle cells ○ depends on primarily on influx of Ca++

3 mechanisms during contraction:
○ Voltage gated Ca++= channels open in response to depolarization of membrane → extracellular Ca++ moves into cell
○ Agonist induced contractions occur with or without depolarization → release of intracellular Ca++
○ Receptor operated Ca++ channels allow entry of extracellular Ca++ in response to receptor occupancy

● All blockers decrease Ca++ entry

● Relax arterial smooth muscles, decreased arterial resistance, BP and cardiac afterload

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15
Q

PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTIONS
Cardiac Cells

A

● By inhibiting Ca++ influx, Ca++ channel blockers reduce the peak size of the systolic Ca++ transient → negative inotropic effect

● Greater degree of peripheral vasodilation seen with dihydropyridines → accompanied by baroreceptor reflex-mediated increase in sympathetic tone
○ So we all know that when you have vasodilation your sympathetic nervous system will become activated and there will be a decrease in your blood pressure
○ When you have a decrease in your blood pressure the body will try to adapt and adjust so you will have an activation of your sympathetic nervous system which will produce tachycardia, so this is what will happen with your short acting dihydropyridines

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16
Q

PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTIONS
SA and AV nodes

A

● Depolarization depends on the movement of Ca++ through slow channel

● Ca++ channel blocker effect depends on whether the agent delays the recovery of the slow channel

Nifedipine - does not affect rate of recovery of slow Ca++ channel
○ Does not directly affect pacemaking or conduction thru AV node

Verapamil - reduces magnitude of the Ca++ current through slow channel and also decreases rate of recovery of the channel
○ Blockade enhanced as frequency of stimulation increases → frequency/use dependence
○ Also inhibits fast Na+ and K+ repolarizing currents

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17
Q

Hemodynamic profiles of Ca++ channel blockers

A

● Depend mainly on ratio of vasodilation and negative ino and chrono effects on heart

Dihydropyridines
○ Dilate BV at several fold lower concentration that those required for decrease myocardial force
■ So that is why you see great vasodilation even without the ino or chronotropic effects on the heart
○ Decrease in arterial BP → reflex sympathetic activation
■ Stimulation of HR, AV conduction velocity, myocardial force = opposite of the direct effect of Ca++ channel blockers

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18
Q

Dihydropyridines

A

● In clinical use – share most pharmacodynamic props
● Amlodipine, clevidipine, felodipine, isradipine, lercanidipine, nicardipine, nifedipine, nimodipine, nisoldipine

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19
Q

● Cause little effect on venous return and preload, more direct (-) ino and chrono effects at doses that produce arteriolar dilatation and afterload reduction

A

Verapamil

● Consequence of a reflex increase in adrenergic tone are generally offset by direct cardiodepressant effects of drug
○ To note that dihydropyridine can cause a reflex activation of sympathetic nervous system, however in verapamil, even the production of negative inotropic effect immediately when it produces vasodilation, so sympathetic nervous system will not be activated as much because it is offset by direct cardiodepressant effect of the drug

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20
Q

● In pts w/o heart failure - there will be an improved ventricular performance due to reduction in peripheral vascular resistance and BP w/ minimal changes in heart rate

A

Verapamil

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21
Q

Patients with heart failure:

A

○ IV Verapamil cause marked decrease in contractility and Left ventricular function

○ Can cause 2nd degree AV block especially when given in combination with beta blockers (contraindicated)

○ Thus do not give Verapamil or Ditilazem together with beta blockers because of its cardiodepressant effects.

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22
Q

Nifedipine

A

Immediate-release-quickly absorbed after oral intake
○ Used to be given sublingually
○ Cause abrupt decrease in BP (hypotensive patient) resulting to, reflex activation of SNS and leading to tachycardia
○ Flush, increase risk of angina pectoris by abruptly decreased coronary perfusion pressure with tachycardia
○ Now removed from practice

Sustained-release preparation
○ Reduce fluctuations of plasma concentration
○ Once or twice a day

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23
Q

● More used in patients with hypertension because of its long half life
● T 1⁄2 35-50 H, effect increase over 7-10 days of daily admin of constant dose, once daily dosing
● Allows body to adapt, associated with less reflex tachycardia

A

Amlodipine

24
Q

Similar profiles for Chronic Tx

A

Felodipine, Nitrendipine, Lercanidipine, Isradipine

25
Q

● Given IV, very rapid onset and offset of action

● Usually given when CCB that is quick acting and also has a short duration of action

● Used for severe or perioperative HPN as alternative to Na nitroprusside, Nicardipine
○ For example with patients that have very high BP like those with malignant hypertension and are about to undergo surgery

A

Clevidipine

26
Q

TOXICITY AND UNTOWARD RESPONSES

A

● Immediate release capsules of Nifedipine
○ Headache (bc of vasodilation of cranial arteries),
flushing, dizziness (bc of the hypotension)
○ Worsened MI (bc of tachycardia and hypotension)

● Peripheral edema
○ D/T inc hydrostatic pressure in lower extremities owing to precapillary dilatation and reflex postcapillary constriction

● Cause/aggravate GERD

● Constipation (Verapamil)

● Urinary retention

● Rash

● Liver enzyme elevation

IV Verapamil should not be given in patients w/ disease of SA node, AV nodal conduction disturbances, presence of beta blockade because it causes profound bradycardia, transient asystole, exacerbations of HF

IV Verapamil + IV Beta blocker = contraindicated
○ Increased propensity for AV block or severe
depression of ventricular function

Verapamil + Digoxin = exacerbate AV nodal conduction disturbances

Verapamil + Quinidine = excessive hypotension

27
Q

THERAPEUTIC USES OF CCB

A

Variant angina
Exertional angina
Unstable angina
Hypertension
Arrhythmia

28
Q

● Can occur at rest or exercise
● Effective in 90% of patients
● 1st line Tx, may be combines w/ nitrovasodilators

A

Variant angina

29
Q

● Exercising or under stress
● Decrease the no. of anginal attacks, attenuate exercise-induced ST segment depression
● DOC if beta blockers are not tolerated/do not achieve sufficient benefit

A

Exertional angina

30
Q

● Exercising or under stress
● Decrease the no. of anginal attacks, attenuate exercise-induced ST segment depression
● DOC if beta blockers are not tolerated/do not achieve sufficient benefit

A

Exertional angina

31
Q

● Exercising or under stress
● Decrease the no. of anginal attacks, attenuate exercise-induced ST segment depression
● DOC if beta blockers are not tolerated/do not achieve sufficient benefit

A

Exertional angina

32
Q

● Not used without concurrent beta blocker Tx
● Verapamil/Diltiazem, these are given to patients who continue to show signs of ischemia, do not tolerate beta blockers, no clinical significant LV dysfxn, no signs of disturbed AV conduction (meaning no bradycardia)

A

Unstable angina

33
Q

Other Uses of CCB

A

Supraventricular tachycardia bc they slow down heart rate

Hypertension (CCBs are usually given together with other agents such as diuretics and ACEI)

● Verapamil can be used for patients with migraine

● Nimodipine usually given to pts w/ neurological deficits 2o to cerebral vasospasm, example patients who have stroke or had a vehicular accident and had brain swelling

Premature uterine contractions - Nifedipine is used, with loading dose of 10mg then thereafter every 3 hours

34
Q

Hypertension

A

● Lowers BP by relaxing arteriolar smooth muscles and decreases peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) → evoke baroreceptor mediated sympathetic discharge

● Dihydropyridines cause tachycardia d/t stimulation of SA node
○ Modest response except when administered rapidly (such as IV or sublingual)
○ Minimal/absent w/ Diltiazem and Verapamil

● Currently preferred drugs for Tx of HPN
○ Amlodipine (CCB) + Perindopril (ACEI)
○ Amlodipine - most studied-long acting DHP

● Given as a once daily dosing because of its long half-life
○ Amlodipine, Felodipine, Lercanidipine - long acting CCBs

Main side effects - peripheral edema (esp in ankle) - fewer with lercanidipine

Immediate release Nifedipine, short-acting
○ No place in HPN treatment because of the great
fluctuations in BP control, better to give long acting CCBs (Amlodipine, Felodipine, Lercanidipine)

Verapamil/Diltiazem
○ Short t 1⁄2
○ more cardiac S/E because of the negative
inotropic/chronotropic effects to the heart
○ High drug interaction profile/potential
○ Not 1st line Tx for HPN

35
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Verapamil, Diltiazem
○ Negative inotropic/chronotropic effects
○ Slows HR, AV nodal conduction velocity decreases, PR interval increases

IV Verapamil/Diltiazem
○ Temporary control of rapid ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation
○ For rapid conversion of Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia to Sinus Rhythm

Oral Verapamil/Diltiazem
○ Control vent rate in chronic Atrial Fibrillation
○ Prophylaxis of repetitive Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
○ Do not reduce MMR after MI (unlike Beta Blockers, which has the potential to reduce the mortality and morbidity rate)

Bepridil
○ Increase action potential duration in many tissues, and has antiarrhythmic effect
○ Can cause torsades de pointes (which is also caused by astemizole/terfenadine)

L-Verapamil
○ More potent
○ Major side effect: Hypotension (also cause constipation)

36
Q

● As a class, Calcium Channel Blockers are well tolerated and are associated with few side effects

● Antihypertensive and Lipid-Lowering Treatment to Prevent Heart Attack Trial (ALLHAT), The international Verapamil Slow-releasing/Trandolapril study (INVEST) and Controlled Onset Verapamil Investigation of Cardiovascular Endpoints (CONVINCE) study
○ No association with cardiovascular events
○ Use of this agents linked with increased risk of heart failure

● As a class, they are not as protective as other antihypertensive agents against heart failure, for which, the most effective is the Beta blockers.

● In hypertension, they are good first line of agent together with ACEI and ARBs

A
37
Q

What happens if you give Diltiazem or Verapamil with beta-blockers?

A

Cardiodepression

38
Q

Which calcium channel blocker will not produce
tachycardia and instead cause negative chronotropic and negative inotropic effects on the heart?

A

Verapamil and Diltiazem

39
Q

When you have a patient who is hypertensive and then you want to give a calcium channel blocker which can produce better fluctuations because of its long half-life?

A

Amlodipine

40
Q

When you have a patient who is hypertensive and then you want to give a calcium channel blocker which can produce better fluctuations because of its long half-life?

A

Amlodipine

41
Q

When you have a patient with a very high blood pressure, which calcium channel blocker should you give preoperatively?

A

Clevidipine

42
Q

Your calcium channel blockers are the first line of
treatment for which type of angina?

A

Variant (Prinzmetal’s) Angina

43
Q

Which calcium channel blocker produces lesser tachycardia?

A

Amlodipine or Verapamil or Diltiazem

44
Q

Other conditions that you can use your calcium channel blockers

A

GERD, PUCs, preterm labor

45
Q

What calcium channel blocker will you give to control atrial fibrillation especially with rapid ventricular rate?

A

IV Verapamil

46
Q

How will you know that your nitrates are working? Effect seen when you give a patient nitroglycerin

A

Most important effect - initial dose of 0.3 should
relieve pain within 3 minutes

47
Q

An old man came to the ER. Upon examination he is diaphoretic, hypotensive, and complains of chest pain. Your impression is ischemia or angina. What is the most important part of the history you should ask before you give nitrates?

A

Recent use of Sildenafil. You cannot give your nitrates if a patient has taken Sildenafil because it will produce severe hypotension which would aggravate the ischemia. Timeframe: Last 1-2 hours

48
Q

What is the best treatment for a patient with Variant Angina?

A

Long-acting nitrates with calcium channel blockers

49
Q

Which nitrate can produce worsened myocardial ischemia because of severe hypotension and tachycardia?

A

Nifedipine

50
Q

Which anti-anginal can improve survival in patients who have had an myocardial infarction and is effective in reducing the severity and frequency of attack of exertional angina? It can modify the mortality and morbidity of patients who are undergoing myocardial infarction.

A

Beta-blockers

51
Q

Which drug for chronic stable angina exhibits the
luminous phenomena?

A

Ivabradine

52
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ranolazine?

A

Inhibits late sodium and other cardiac ion channel

53
Q

What is the best drug for exertional angina?

A

Beta-blockers

54
Q

What is the best drug for vasospastic angina?

A

Amlodipine

55
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nitrates?

A

It relaxes the smooth muscles by increasing
cGMP. Increasing cGMP is also because of nitrous oxide (NO)