Calculations, Quality Control, and Statics Flashcards

1
Q

How many grams of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
are required to prepare 150.0 mL of a 5.0% w/v
solution?
A. 1.5 g
B. 4.0 g
C. 7.5 g
D. 15.0 g

A

C

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2
Q

How many milliliters of glacial acetic acid are
needed to prepare 2.0 L of 10.0% v/v acetic acid?
A. 10.0 mL
B. 20.0 mL
C. 100.0 mL
D. 200.0 mL

A

D

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3
Q

Convert 10.0 mg/dL calcium (atomic weight = 40.1)
to International System of Units (SI).
A. 0.25
B. 0.40
C. 2.5
D. 0.4

A

C

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3
Q

Convert 10.0 mg/dL calcium (atomic weight = 40.1)
to International System of Units (SI).
A. 0.25
B. 0.40
C. 2.5
D. 0.4

A

C

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4
Q

Convert 2.0 mEq/L magnesium (atomic
weight = 24.3) to milligrams per deciliter.
A. 0.8 mg/dL
B. 1.2 mg/dL
C. 2.4 mg/dL
D. 4.9 mg/dL

A

C

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5
Q

How many milliliters of a 2,000.0 mg/dL glucose
stock solution are needed to prepare 100.0 mL of a
150.0 mg/dL glucose working standard?
A. 1.5 mL
B. 7.5 mL
C. 15.0 mL
D. 25.0 mL

A

B

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6
Q

How many significant figures should be reported
when the pH of a 0.060 M solution of nitric acid
is calculated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B

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7
Q

A glycerol kinase method for triglyceride calls for a
serum blank in which normal saline is substituted
for lipase in order to measure endogenous glycerol.
Given the following results, and assuming the
same volume of sample and reagent are used for
each test, calculate the triglyceride concentration
in the patient’s sample.
A. 119 mg/dL
B. 131 mg/dL
C. 156 mg/dL
D. 180 mg/dL

A

B

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8
Q

Which of the following quality control (QC) rules
would be broken 1 out of 20 times by chance alone?
A. 12s
B. 22s
C. 13s
D. 14s

A

A

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9
Q

Which of the following conditions is cause for
rejecting an analytical run?
A. Two consecutive controls greater than 2 s above
or below the mean
B. Three consecutive controls greater than 1 s above the mean
C. Four controls steadily increasing in value but less
than ±1 s from the mean
D. One control above +1 s and the other below –1 s
from the mean

A

A

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10
Q

One of two controls within a run is above +2s
and the other control is below –2s from the mean.
What do these results indicate?
A. Poor precision has led to random error (RE)
B. A systematic error (SE) is present
C. Proportional error is present
D. QC material is contaminated

A

A

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11
Q

Two consecutive controls are both beyond –2s
from the mean. How frequently would this occur
on the basis of chance alone?
A. 1:100
B. 5:100
C. 1:400
D. 1:1,600

A

D

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12
Q

The term R4S means that:
A. Four consecutive controls are greater than ±1
standard deviation from the mean
B. Two controls in the same run are greater than
4s units apart
C. Two consecutive controls in the same run are
each greater than ±4s from the mean
D. There is a shift above the mean for four
consecutive controls

A

B

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13
Q

A trend in QC results is most likely caused by:
A. Deterioration of the reagent
B. Miscalibration of the instrument
C. Improper dilution of standards
D. Electronic noise

A

A

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14
Q

In most circumstances, when two controls within a
run are both greater than ±2s from the mean, what
action should be taken first?
A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by
selected patient samples if quality control is
acceptable
B. Repeat the controls before taking any corrective
action
C. Change the reagent lot, then recalibrate
D. Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate

A

A

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15
Q

When establishing QC limits, which of the
following practices is inappropriate?
A. Using last month’s QC data to determine
current target limits
B. Exclusion of any QC results greater than ±2s
from the mean
C. Using control results from all shifts on which the
assay is performed
D. Using limits determined by reference laboratories
using the same method

A

B

16
Q

Which of the following plots is best for detecting
all types of QC errors?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

A

17
Q

Which of the following plots is best for
comparison of precision and accuracy among
laboratories?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

B

18
Q

Which plot will give the earliest indication of a
shift or trend?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram

A

C

19
Q

All of the following are requirements for a
QC material except:
A. Long-term stability
B. The matrix is similar to the specimens being
tested
C. The concentration of analytes reflects the clinical
range
D. Analyte concentration must be independent of
the method of assay

A

D

20
Q

Examine the Levy–Jennings chart at the bottom of
the previous page and identify the QC problem
that occurred during the first half of the month.
A. Shift
B. Trend
C. Random error
D. Kurtosis

A

B

21
Q

Referring to the Levy–Jennings chart, what is the
first day in the month when the run should be
rejected and patient results should be repeated?
A. Day 6
B. Day 7
C. Day 8
D. Day 9

A

C

22
Q

Referring to the Levy–Jennings chart, what
analytical error is present during the second
half of the month?
A. Shift
B. Trend
C. Random error
D. Kurtosis

A

A

23
Q

What is the first day in the second half of the
month that patient results would be rejected?
A. Day 16
B. Day 17
C. Day 18
D. Day 19

A

B

24
Q

What is the first day in the second half of the
month that patient results would be rejected?
A. Day 16
B. Day 17
C. Day 18
D. Day 19

A

B

25
Q

What is the first day in the second half of the
month that patient results would be rejected?
A. Day 16
B. Day 17
C. Day 18
D. Day 19

A

B

26
Q

What is the minimum requirement for performing
QC for a total protein assay?
A. One level assayed every 8 hours
B. Two levels assayed within 8 hours
C. Two levels assayed within 24 hours
D. Three levels assayed within 24 hours

A

C

27
Q

Which of the following statistical tests is used to
compare the means of two methods?
A. Student’s t test
B. F distribution
C. Correlation coefficient (r)
D. Linear regression analysis

A

A

28
Q

When the magnitude of error increases with
increasing sample concentration, it is called:
A. Constant error
B. Proportional error
C. Random error
D. Bias

A

B

29
Q

What measurement in addition to true negatives
and prevalence is required to calculate the
predictive value of a negative test result (PV–)?
A. False negatives
B. Variance
C. True positives
D. False positives

A

A

30
Q

When comparing the laboratory’s monthly mean
to its peer group to determine if bias is present,
what statistic is most appropriate?
A. F test
B. Linear regression analysis
C. Correlation coefficient
D. Standard deviation index

A

D

31
Q

Which of the following methods is most useful
in order to detect sample misidentification?
A. Cumulative summation
B. Critical limit
C. Delta limit
D. Significant change limit

A

C

32
Q

Which of the following total quality management
tools can be used to calculate the analytical error
rate for an analyte in the clinical laboratory?
A. LEAN
B. Six sigma
C. ISO 9000
D. Laboratory information system

A

B

33
Q

In which circumstances is a validation study
(versus performing routine quality control)
required?
A. Instrument recalibration
B. Source lamp or ion selective electrode change
C. Change in reagent lot
D. Change in calibrator lot

A

C