Canadian Aviation Regulations 2

Question 1

A VFR aircraft has received a SVFR clearance to enter a control zone at night and has been cleared by the tower for a straight in approach to the active runway. Due to the prevailing low ceiling and reduced flight visibility, the pilot is unsure as to the exact location of a TV broadcast antenna in the immediate vicinity. The responsibility for avoiding this obstacle is:

A) Assumed by the tower controller who will provide vectors if required.
B) Shared equally by the tower controller and the pilot.
C) Assumed by the pilot.
D) Shared by both the nearest terminal control unit and the tower controller.

Answer 1

C) Assumed by the pilot.

Question 2

If an aircraft is required to cross over an uncontrolled airport to join the circuit, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least_____above the aerodrome elevation:

A) 500 feet.
B) 1000 feet.
C) 1500 feet.
D) 2000 feet.

Answer 2

C) 1500 feet.

Question 3

A true statement regarding an ATC clearance would be:

A) A clearance is authorization to proceed under specified conditions within controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
B) A clearance issued to an IFR aircraft is predicated on movements of all other IFR and VFR aircraft operating within a section of controlled airspace.
C) A clearance is a directive issued to an aircraft by an ATC controller that requires the pilot to take a specific action.
D) Once a pilot supplied a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance.

Answer 3

D) Once a pilot supplied a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance.

Question 4

An advisory area charted as CYA134(P) to 6000 informs a pilot that:

A) Parachuting is conducted in this area up to 6000 ASL.
B) Aircraft test flights take place in this area.
C) Aircraft test activities may be conducted up to, but not including 6000 ft ASL.
D) This advisory area is located in Ontario (due to its regional identifying number of 134).

Answer 4

A) Parachuting is conducted in this area up to 6000 ASL.

Question 5

The airspace classification that applies to that portion of Low-Level Air Route that extends above 12,500 ft ASL up to, but not including 18,000 ft ASL is :

A) Class G.
B) Class B.
C) Class E.
D) Class D.

Answer 5

A) Class G.

Question 6

You have just departed IFR on a planned flight between two aerodromes in the Standard Pressure Region and are climbing to a cruising level of FL130. You should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” HG):

A) Immediately prior to take off.
B) After ensuring that all obstacles along the departure track have been cleared by at least 1,000 feet.
C) Just after Level off at FL130.
D) Immediately prior to reaching FL130.

Answer 6

D) Immediately prior to reaching FL130.

Question 7

The pilot of an IFR aircraft that has departed from Edmonton International Airport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to Standard Pressure (29.92” HG) immediately:

A) After level off at FL270.
B) After climbing through 18,000 ft ASL.
C) Prior to reaching FL270.
D) Prior to reaching 18,000 ft ASL.

Answer 7

B) After climbing through 18,000 ft ASL.

Question 8

As you reach your destination airport, which is located within the Standard Pressure Region, you brief the instrument approach procedure to be used and prepare for the initial descent. The correct altimeter-setting procedure you should use for this approach is:

A) Continue with 29.92” on the altimeter until crossing the primary approach fix outbound, and then set the altimeter to the current airport setting.
B) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport setting 15 minutes prior to commencing the instrument approach.
C) Change the aircraft altimeter from 29.92” to the current airport setting immediately after intercepting the final approach track inbound during the approach.
D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with intention to land.

Answer 8

D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with intention to land.

Question 9

When conducting a holding procedure prior to landing at an aerodrome located within the Standard Pressure Region, the pilot in command of the aircraft shall:

A) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing immediately after completing the hold entry procedure.
B) Not set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome until departing the holding fix for the purpose of conducting an approach procedure.
C) Not set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.
D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome immediately prior to commencing the hold entry procedure.

Answer 9

C) Not set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.

Question 10

Within Designated Mountain Regions 1 and 5, the minimum IFR altitude to be used by an IFR aircraft that is operating outside of areas for which minimum IFR altitudes have been established is at least:

A) 3,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10NM of the aircraft.
B) 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.
C) 1,500 ft above the highest obstacle within 10NM of the aircraft.
D) 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.

Answer 10

B) 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.

Question 11

When flight planning over mountainous terrain during the winter months when air temperature may be much lower than ISA, pilots should select an operating altitude which is at least_____feet higher than the MEA/MOCA. the missing number is:

A) 2,500.
B) 2,000.
C) 1,500.
D) 1,000.

Answer 11

D) 1,000.

Question 12

As you analyze the weather for a proposed IFR flight, you determine that abnormally high pressure conditions will be present on arrival at the destination aerodrome producing an altimeter setting there of 31.29”. this aerodrome has an ILS approach with a Decision Height (DH) of 320(200- 3/4). since you are unable to set the current altimeter setting on the aircraft altimeter, you must apply adjustments to the weather requirements (Ceiling and visibility) which would now become:

A) 620-2 1/4.
B) 500-1 1/2.
C) 800-2 1/2.
D) 620-1 3/4.

Answer 12

B) 500-1 1/2.

Question 13

With respect to VFR flight operations within the Canadian ADIZ, the tolerances for ETA’s, projected ADIZ boundary entry point positions and flight plan track centerline deviation are:

A) +/-3 minutes and 20NM.
B) +/-3 minutes and 10 NM.
C) +/-5 minutes and 20NM.
D) +/-5 minutes and 10NM.

Answer 13

C) +/-5 minutes and 20NM.

Question 14

What is required to operate within the ADIZ?

A) An IFR flight plan or DVFR flight plan.
B) An IFR flight itinerary.
C) A VFR flight plan.
D) None of the above.

Answer 14

A) An IFR flight plan or DVFR flight plan.

Question 15

Any aircraft that is involved in forest fire control activities should not fly lower than_____feet AGL when operating closer than_____NM from the limits of a forest fire area. The missing numbers are, respectively:

A) 5,000 and 3.
B) 1,500 and 5.
C) 2,000 and 3.
D) 3,000 and 5.

Answer 15

D) 3,000 and 5.

Question 16

For wake turbulence categorization purposes, the term “HEAVY” is used to indicate an aircraft certified for a MTOW of:

A) 150,000 KG or more.
B) 200,000 LBS or more.
C) 300,000 KG or more.
D) 300,000 LBS or more.

Answer 16

D) 300,000 LBS or more.

Question 17

ICAO wake turbulence categories use the term “MEDIUM” to indicate an aircraft with a MTOW of:

A) 7,001 KG to less than 156,000 KG.
B) 7,001 LBS to less than 150,000 LBS.
C) More than 15,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.
D) 12,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.

Answer 17

C) More than 15,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.

Question 18

The radar separation minimum that ATC controllers will apply between a medium aircraft and a proceding IFR Super aircraft separated vertically by less than 1,000 feet is:

A) 7 Miles.
B) 6 Miles.
C) 5 Miles.
D) 4 Miles.

Answer 18

A) 7 Miles.

Question 19

With respect to the non-radar departure of a light aircraft from the threshold of the same runway as a preceding medium aircraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply?

A) A four minute interval.
B) A three minute interval.
C) A two minute interval.
D) No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

Answer 19

D) No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

Question 20

In Canada no person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet ASL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 KIAS unless:

A) The aircraft is on departure and the final flight plan altitude is above 10,000 feet ASL.
B) The crew advises ATC the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special operations certificate.
C) On departure the crew advises ATC of their intent to operate at speeds exceeding 250 KIAS and the reason for this action.
D) The crew requests a free speed.

Answer 20

C) On departure the crew advises ATC of their intent to operate at speeds exceeding 250 KIAS and the reason for this action.

Question 21

Unless otherwise authorized in an air traffic control clearance, the pilot of an aircraft that is operating below 3,000 feet AGL within 10NM of a controlled airport shall not operate at a speed of more than:

A) 200 KTS.
B) 230 KTS.
C) 250 KTS.
D) 265 KTS.

Answer 21

A) 200 KTS.

Question 22

An adjusted speed that has been assigned to an aircraft by an ATC radar controller should be maintained within:

A) +/- 20KTS.
B) +/- 15KTS.
C) +/- 10KTS.
D) +/- 5 KTS.

Answer 22

C) +/- 10KTS.

Question 23

The maximum holding speed for a civil turboprop aircraft at an assigned altitude of 7,000 feet ASL is:

A) 175 KIAS.
B) 200 KIAS.
C) 230 KIAS.
D) 265 KIAS.

Answer 23

C) 230 KIAS.

Question 24

To ensure that an aircraft does not exceed obstacle clearance protected airspace the crew of a civil turbojet aircraft cleared to shuttle climb from 6000 ft to 15,000 ft must not exceed:

A) 230 KIAS until above 14,000 ASL.
B) The airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or if no limit is published, 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above.
C) 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above 10,000 ASL.
D) 310 KIAS until cleared above 15,000 ft.

Answer 24

B) The airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or if no limit is published, 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above.

Question 25

When a turbojet aircraft is assigned a holding procedure at 6,000 ft ASL, the pilot must ensure that the holding pattern is entered and flown at or below:

A) 150 kts.
B) 175 kts.
C) 200 kts.
D) 230 kts.

Answer 25

C) 200 kts.

Question 26

The flight crew of a turbojet aircraft transitioning from oceanic airspace to Canadian Domestic Airspace with an assigned Mach number may:

A) Resume normal speed once being radar identified.
B) Must maintain within .01 the filed Mach number once in domestic airspace.
C) Must maintain within .01 of the assigned Mach number until ATC approval is obtained to make the change.
D) None of the above.

Answer 26

C) Must maintain within .01 of the assigned Mach number until ATC approval is obtained to make the change.

Question 27

From the statement concerning IFR flight planning which follow, identify the one which is correct:

A) An IFR flight plan from Montreal to Cancun, Mexico does not require the filing of an ICAO flight plan.
B) A composite flight plan may be filed for an aircraft that will enter American airspace controlled by the FAA.
C) An IFR flight plan will be automatically closed by ATC for an aircraft whose pilot has stated “cancelling IFR”.
D) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single IFR flight plan.

Answer 27

D) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single IFR flight plan.

Question 28

Consider a flight itinerary that was filed with an FIC and in which no SAR time was specified. The pilot who terminates this flight itinerary shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with the FIC as soon as possible after landing but no later than:

A) 48 hours after landing.
B) 12 hours after the last reported ETA.
C) 24 hours after the last reported ETA.
D) 48 hours after the last reported ETA.

Answer 28

C) 24 hours after the last reported ETA.

Question 29

090249 NOTAMN CYYT ST. JOHNS INTL ZYT-OUTER COVE NDB 246 U/S TIL APRX 0906101630. With respect to this NOTAM, a correct statement would be:

A) The referenced NDB will be usable at approximately 1630z on October 6, 2009.
B) The NOTAM will expire on October 6, 2009.
C) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB.
D) It was issued at 0249z, June 10, 2009 and operational use of the ZYT NDB will be permitted after 1630z unless a replacing NOTAM is issued.

Answer 29

C) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB.

Question 30

Consider the situation during which a CF-18 military aircraft assumes a position in front of, and to the left of, your civilian aircraft while in cruising flight and then commences to rock its wings. This visual signal initiated by the military jet means:

A) You are operating in an active restricted airspace; call the interceptor on 121.5 MHz for instructions.
B) You are to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and phone search and rescue in your region as soon as possible.
C) You have been intercepted.
D) You have been intercepted as not being hostile and may proceed to your destination aerodrome.

Answer 30

C) You have been intercepted.

Question 31

The “operator” of an aircraft is:

A) The pilot in command.
B) The owner of the aircraft.
C) The person in possession of the aircraft.
D) The Lessee of the aircraft.

Answer 31

C) The person in possession of the aircraft.

Question 32

No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft:

A) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol.
B) While using over the counter drugs without first getting permission from a civil aviation medical examiner.
C) Within eight hours of consuming alcohol.
D) Within twelve hours of consuming alcohol and/or cannabis.

Answer 32

A) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol.

Question 33

The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is:

A) 200NM.
B) 100NM.
C) 50NM.
D) 25NM.

Answer 33

C) 50NM.

Question 34

A transport category aeroplane which carries a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is about to operate a flight over the water. In this case, the maximum distance from a suitable emergency landing site that this aeroplane may fly without having to carry life rafts on board would be the lesser of:

A) 400NM or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
B) 200NM or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
C) 100NM or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
D) 50NM or the distance that can be covered in 15 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.

Answer 34

A) 400NM or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.

Question 35

The dimensions of a Mandatory Frequency Area associated with an aerodrome are published:

A) On the appropriate Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
B) In the applicable FIR General NOTAM Summary.
C) On the appropriate VNC or WAC VFR Navigation Charts.
D) In the Canadian Flight Supplement.

Answer 35

D) In the Canadian Flight Supplement.

Question 36

An uncontrolled aerodrome has no published MF or ATF. In this case, the common frequency to be used for the broadcast of aircraft position and the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of this aerodrome would be:

A) 122.8 MHz.
B) 123.2 MHz.
C) 126.7 MHz.
D) 122.3 MHz.

Answer 36

B) 123.2 MHz.