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cancer II brand/generic > cancer chapter ii > Flashcards

cancer chapter ii Flashcards

1
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Soltamox

- SERMs

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2
Q

Fulvestrant

A

Faslodex

- SERMs

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3
Q

Raloxifene

A

Evista

- SERMs

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4
Q

Toremifene

A

Fareston

-SERMs

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5
Q

Anastrozole

A

Arimidex

- aromatase inhibitor

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6
Q

Letrozole

A

Femara

- aromatase inhibitor

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7
Q

Exemestane

A

Aromasin

- aromatase inhibitor (AI)

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8
Q

Palbociclib

A

Ibrance

- cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor

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9
Q

Leuprolide

A

Lupin, Depot

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

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10
Q

Goserelin

A

Zoladex

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

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11
Q

Histrelin

A

Supprelin LA, Vantas

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

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12
Q

Triptorelin

A

Trelstar

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

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13
Q

Degarelix

A 
Firmagon 
- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )
- given SC monthly
- Osteoporosis RISK 
does not cause tumor flare
se: HYPERSENSITIVITY
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14
Q

Bicalutamide

A 
Casodex
- ANTIandrogen 
- used in combination with GnRH agonist
- start 1 week prior to LHRH
CONTRAINDICATION 
use in women, especially in pregnancy
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15
Q

Nilutamide

A

Nilandron

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16
Q

Enzalutamide

A

Xtandi

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17
Q

Abiraterone

A

Zytiga

-Androgen biosynthesis inhibitor

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18
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Cytoxan

- alkylating agents

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19
Q

Ifosfamide

A

Ifex

- alkylating agents

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20
Q

Carmustine

A

BiCNU, Gliadel

  • Use NON- PVC bag and tubing
  • alkylating agents
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21
Q

Dacarbazine

A

Protect from light
(decomposed drug turns pink)
- alkylating agents

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22
Q

Procarbazine

A

Matulane

- alkylating agents

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23
Q

Altretamine

A

Hexalen

- alkylating agents

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24
Q

Bendamustine

A

Bendeka, Treanda

- alkylating agents

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25
Q

Busulfan

A

Myleran, Busulfex

- alkylating agents

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26
Q

Lomustine

A

Gleostine

- alkylating agents

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27
Q

Mechlorethamine

A

Mustargen, Valchlor topical gel

- alkylating agents

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28
Q

Melphalan

A

Alkeran, Evomela

- alkylating agents

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29
Q

Temozolomide

A

Temodar

- alkylating agents

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30
Q

Cisplatin

A

platinum based

  • nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity ( <=100mg/m^2/cycle)
  • nephrotoxicity ( Ethyol to prevent nephrotoxicity)
  • ototoxicity
  • highly emetogenic
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31
Q

carboplatin

A

platinum based
Myelosuppression
Calvert formula AUC: 2- 8mg/ml *min
GFR capped 125 ml/min

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32
Q

Oxaliplatin

A

platinum based

- concerns: acute sensory neuropathy: occurs 1-7 days after administration and can be exacerbated by exposure to cold

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33
Q

DOXOrubicin

A

Adriamycin

- Antracyclines

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34
Q

Epirubicin

A

Ellence

- Antracyclines

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35
Q

IDArubicin

A

IDAmycin PFS

- Antracyclines

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36
Q

DOXOrubicin

A

DOXIL, lipodox50

- Antracyclines

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37
Q

MitoXANTRONE

A

Blue urine discoloration

- Antracyclines

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38
Q

VinCRIStine

A

Vincasar PFS

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39
Q

VinBLAStine

A

Navelbine

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40
Q

VinCRISTINE liposomal

A

Marqibo

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41
Q

PACLItaxel

A

Taxol

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42
Q

DOCEtaxel

A

Taxotere

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43
Q

Cabazitaxel

A

Jevtana

44
Q

Paclitazel albumin bound

A

Abraxane

45
Q

Irinotecan

A

Camptosar

  • Topoisomerase I
  • Diarrhea ( early and late)
  • Acute cholinergic symptoms: treat with atropine
  • Delayed diarrhea ( Tx with loperamide up to 24 mg/day)
  • pharmacogenomics: UGR1A1*28 allele are at incr risk for neutropenia and delayed diarrhea
46
Q

Topotecan

A

Hycaptin

Topoisomerase I

47
Q

Etoposide IV

A

Toposar

- Topoisomerase inhibitor ii

48
Q

Etoposide phosphate

A

Etopophos

- Topoisomerase inhibitor ii

49
Q

Etoposide capsules

A

VePESID

- Topoisomerase inhibitors II

50
Q

Flurouracil ( 5 FU)

A

Adrucil

51
Q

Capecitabine ( PO)

A

Xeloda (PO)

52
Q

Cytarabine Liposomal

A

DepoCyt ( IT )

53
Q

Gemcitabine

A

Gemzar

54
Q

MTX

A

Trexall, Otrexup, Rasuvo, Xatmep

55
Q

PEMEtrexed

A

Alimta

56
Q

PRALAtrexate

A

Folotyn

57
Q

Tretinoin

A

ATRA

58
Q

Arsenic trioxide

A

Trisenox

59
Q

Asparaginase

A

Erwinaze

60
Q

Pegaspargase

A

Oncaspar

61
Q

Bleomycin

A

Intercalating agent blocking topoisomerase II
test dose
box warning: Pulmonary fibrosis
max lifetime dose or 400 units due to pulmonary toxicity risk

62
Q

mITOMYCIN

A

free radical formation and alkylator

Vesicant

63
Q

Everolimus (mTOR inhibitor )

A

Afinitor

- CYP 3A4 substrate

64
Q

Everolimus

A

Fortress indicated for tranplantation

65
Q

Temsirolimus

A

Torisel injection

use NON- PVC bag & tubing

66
Q

Lanalidomide

A

Revlimid

  • Immunomodulators
  • fetal risk/pregnancy
    contraindication: pregnancy
67
Q

Pomalidomide

A

Pomalyst
Immunomodulators
- fetal risk/pregnancy
contraindication: pregnancy

68
Q

Thalidomide

A

Thalamid
Immunomodulators
- fetal risk/pregnancy
contraindication: pregnancy

69
Q

Bortezomib

A

Velcade
(proteasome inhibitor )
SC administration has less neuropathy than IV

70
Q

Cafrfilzomib

A

Kyprolis

  • premeditate with deja and fluids
  • SE: peripheral neuropathy ( but less than bortexomib)
71
Q

Bevacizumab

A

Avastin

  • VEGF inhibitor
  • Do not administer for 28 days before or after surgery
  • monitor BP
    se: HTN
72
Q

Ramucirimab

A

Cyramza

  • VEGF inhibitor
  • Do not administer for 28 days before or after surgery
  • monitor BP
    se: HTN
73
Q

Trastuzumab

A

Perception

  • HER2 inhibitors
  • test for HER2 gene expression
  • monitor LEVF ( ECHO)
74
Q

Pertuzumab

A

Perjeta

  • HER2 inhibitors
  • test for HER2 gene expression
  • monitor LEVF ( ECHO)
75
Q

Ado- Trastuzumab Emtansine

A

Kadcyla

  • test for HER2 gene expression
  • monitor LEVF ( ECHO)
  • Use 0.22 micron filter
76
Q

Cetuximab

A

Erbitux

  • use 0.22 filter
  • EGFR Inhibitor
  • KRAS WT to use
77
Q

Panitumumab

A

Vectibix

  • use 0.22 filter
  • EGFR Inhibitor
  • KRAS WT to use
78
Q

Rituximab

A

Rituxan

- tests for antigen CD-20

79
Q

Ofatumumab

A

Arzerra

80
Q

Obinutuzumab

A

Gazyva

81
Q

Brentuximab Vedotin

A

Adcetris

82
Q

Blinatimomab

A

Blincyto

83
Q

Daratumumab

A

Darzalex

- anti - CD 38 monoclonal antibody

84
Q

Pembrolizumab

A

Keytruda
- MedGuide
PD-1 inhibitor

85
Q

Nivolumab

A

Opdivo
PD-1 inhibitor
- MedGuide

86
Q

Atesolizumab

A

Tecentriq
PD-1 inhibitor
- MedGuide

87
Q

Ipilimumab

A

Yervoy
MedGuide REQUIRED
REMS program
CTLA 4 inhibitor

88
Q

Imatinib

A 
Gleevec
with food 
tyrosine kinase inhibitor 
used in CML 
mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie
89
Q

Dasatinib

A

Sprycel

tyrosine kinase inhibitor
used in CML
mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

90
Q

Nilotinib

medguide required

A

Tasigna
without food

tyrosine kinase inhibitor
used in CML
mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

91
Q

PONATinib

medguide required

A

Iclusig

tyrosine kinase inhibitor
used in CML
mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

92
Q

Bosutinib

A

Bosulif

93
Q

Vemurafenib

A

Zelboraf

BRAF INHIBITOR
must be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation positive

94
Q

Dabrafenib

A

Tafinlar

95
Q

Trametinib

A

Mekinist

96
Q

Cobimetinib

A

Cotellic

97
Q

Afatinib

A

Gilotrif
- EGFR mutation positive
(Exon 19 or 21)
- Acneiform rash, dry skin

98
Q

Erlotinib

A

Tarceva

- EGFR mutation positive
Exon 19 or 21
- Acneiform rash, dry skin

99
Q

Gefitinib

A

Iressa

- EGFR mutation positive
Exon 19 or 21
- Acneiform rash, dry skin

100
Q

Crizotinib

A

Xalkori

  • ALK inhibitor
  • ALK mutation positive
101
Q

Ceritinib

A

Zykadia

  • ALK inhibitor
  • ALK mutation positive
102
Q

Alectinib

A

Alecensa

  • ALK inhibitor
  • ALK mutation positive
103
Q

Lapatinib

A

Tykerb

TKI

  • Her2 overexpression to use in breast cancer
  • Decreased LVEF
  • QT prolongation
104
Q

SORAfenib

A

NexAVAR

105
Q

SUNItinib

A

Sutent

cancer II brand/generic (1 decks)

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