cancer chapter ii

Question 1

Tamoxifen

Answer 1

Soltamox

- SERMs

Question 2

Fulvestrant

Answer 2

Faslodex

- SERMs

Question 3

Raloxifene

Answer 3

Evista

- SERMs

Question 4

Toremifene

Answer 4

Fareston

-SERMs

Question 5

Anastrozole

Answer 5

Arimidex

- aromatase inhibitor

Question 6

Letrozole

Answer 6

Femara

- aromatase inhibitor

Question 7

Exemestane

Answer 7

Aromasin

- aromatase inhibitor (AI)

Question 8

Palbociclib

Answer 8

Ibrance

- cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor

Question 9

Leuprolide

Answer 9

Lupin, Depot

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

Question 10

Goserelin

Answer 10

Zoladex

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

Question 11

Histrelin

Answer 11

Supprelin LA, Vantas

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

Question 12

Triptorelin

Answer 12

Trelstar

- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )

Question 13

Degarelix

Answer 13

Firmagon 
- GnRH ( Gonadotropin- releasing hormone )
- given SC monthly
- Osteoporosis RISK 
does not cause tumor flare
se: HYPERSENSITIVITY

Question 14

Bicalutamide

Answer 14

Casodex
- ANTIandrogen 
- used in combination with GnRH agonist
- start 1 week prior to LHRH
CONTRAINDICATION 
use in women, especially in pregnancy

Question 15

Nilutamide

Answer 15

Nilandron

Question 16

Enzalutamide

Answer 16

Xtandi

Question 17

Abiraterone

Answer 17

Zytiga

-Androgen biosynthesis inhibitor

Question 18

Cyclophosphamide

Answer 18

Cytoxan

- alkylating agents

Question 19

Ifosfamide

Answer 19

Ifex

- alkylating agents

Question 20

Carmustine

Answer 20

BiCNU, Gliadel

• Use NON- PVC bag and tubing
• alkylating agents

Question 21

Dacarbazine

Answer 21

Protect from light
(decomposed drug turns pink)
- alkylating agents

Question 22

Procarbazine

Answer 22

Matulane

- alkylating agents

Question 23

Altretamine

Answer 23

Hexalen

- alkylating agents

Question 24

Bendamustine

Answer 24

Bendeka, Treanda

- alkylating agents

Question 25

Busulfan

Answer 25

Myleran, Busulfex | - alkylating agents

Question 26

Lomustine

Answer 26

Gleostine | - alkylating agents

Question 27

Mechlorethamine

Answer 27

Mustargen, Valchlor topical gel | - alkylating agents

Question 28

Melphalan

Answer 28

Alkeran, Evomela | - alkylating agents

Question 29

Temozolomide

Answer 29

Temodar | - alkylating agents

Question 30

Cisplatin

Answer 30

platinum based - nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity ( <=100mg/m^2/cycle) - nephrotoxicity ( Ethyol to prevent nephrotoxicity) - ototoxicity - highly emetogenic

Question 31

carboplatin

Answer 31

platinum based Myelosuppression Calvert formula AUC: 2- 8mg/ml *min GFR capped 125 ml/min

Question 32

Oxaliplatin

Answer 32

platinum based | - concerns: acute sensory neuropathy: occurs 1-7 days after administration and can be exacerbated by exposure to cold

Question 33

DOXOrubicin

Answer 33

Adriamycin | - Antracyclines

Question 34

Epirubicin

Answer 34

Ellence | - Antracyclines

Question 35

IDArubicin

Answer 35

IDAmycin PFS | - Antracyclines

Question 36

DOXOrubicin

Answer 36

DOXIL, lipodox50 | - Antracyclines

Question 37

MitoXANTRONE

Answer 37

Blue urine discoloration | - Antracyclines

Question 38

VinCRIStine

Answer 38

Vincasar PFS

Question 39

VinBLAStine

Answer 39

Navelbine

Question 40

VinCRISTINE liposomal

Answer 40

Marqibo

Question 41

PACLItaxel

Answer 41

Taxol

Question 42

DOCEtaxel

Answer 42

Taxotere

Question 43

Cabazitaxel

Answer 43

Jevtana

Question 44

Paclitazel albumin bound

Answer 44

Abraxane

Question 45

Irinotecan

Answer 45

Camptosar - Topoisomerase I - Diarrhea ( early and late) - Acute cholinergic symptoms: treat with atropine - Delayed diarrhea ( Tx with loperamide up to 24 mg/day) - pharmacogenomics: UGR1A1*28 allele are at incr risk for neutropenia and delayed diarrhea

Question 46

Topotecan

Answer 46

Hycaptin | Topoisomerase I

Question 47

Etoposide IV

Answer 47

Toposar | - Topoisomerase inhibitor ii

Question 48

Etoposide phosphate

Answer 48

Etopophos | - Topoisomerase inhibitor ii

Question 49

Etoposide capsules

Answer 49

VePESID | - Topoisomerase inhibitors II

Question 50

Flurouracil ( 5 FU)

Answer 50

Adrucil

Question 51

Capecitabine ( PO)

Answer 51

Xeloda (PO)

Question 52

Cytarabine Liposomal

Answer 52

DepoCyt ( IT )

Question 53

Gemcitabine

Answer 53

Gemzar

Question 54

MTX

Answer 54

Trexall, Otrexup, Rasuvo, Xatmep

Question 55

PEMEtrexed

Answer 55

Alimta

Question 56

PRALAtrexate

Answer 56

Folotyn

Question 57

Tretinoin

Answer 57

ATRA

Question 58

Arsenic trioxide

Answer 58

Trisenox

Question 59

Asparaginase

Answer 59

Erwinaze

Question 60

Pegaspargase

Answer 60

Oncaspar

Question 61

Bleomycin

Answer 61

Intercalating agent blocking topoisomerase II test dose box warning: Pulmonary fibrosis max lifetime dose or 400 units due to pulmonary toxicity risk

Question 62

mITOMYCIN

Answer 62

free radical formation and alkylator | Vesicant

Question 63

Everolimus (mTOR inhibitor )

Answer 63

Afinitor | - CYP 3A4 substrate

Question 64

Everolimus

Answer 64

Fortress indicated for tranplantation

Question 65

Temsirolimus

Answer 65

Torisel injection | use NON- PVC bag & tubing

Question 66

Lanalidomide

Answer 66

Revlimid - Immunomodulators - fetal risk/pregnancy contraindication: pregnancy

Question 67

Pomalidomide

Answer 67

Pomalyst Immunomodulators - fetal risk/pregnancy contraindication: pregnancy

Question 68

Thalidomide

Answer 68

Thalamid Immunomodulators - fetal risk/pregnancy contraindication: pregnancy

Question 69

Bortezomib

Answer 69

Velcade (proteasome inhibitor ) SC administration has less neuropathy than IV

Question 70

Cafrfilzomib

Answer 70

Kyprolis - premeditate with deja and fluids - SE: peripheral neuropathy ( but less than bortexomib)

Question 71

Bevacizumab

Answer 71

Avastin - VEGF inhibitor - Do not administer for 28 days before or after surgery - monitor BP se: HTN

Question 72

Ramucirimab

Answer 72

Cyramza - VEGF inhibitor - Do not administer for 28 days before or after surgery - monitor BP se: HTN

Question 73

Trastuzumab

Answer 73

Perception - HER2 inhibitors - test for HER2 gene expression - monitor LEVF ( ECHO)

Question 74

Pertuzumab

Answer 74

Perjeta - HER2 inhibitors - test for HER2 gene expression - monitor LEVF ( ECHO)

Question 75

Ado- Trastuzumab Emtansine

Answer 75

Kadcyla - test for HER2 gene expression - monitor LEVF ( ECHO) - Use 0.22 micron filter

Question 76

Cetuximab

Answer 76

Erbitux - use 0.22 filter - EGFR Inhibitor - KRAS WT to use

Question 77

Panitumumab

Answer 77

Vectibix - use 0.22 filter - EGFR Inhibitor - KRAS WT to use

Question 78

Rituximab

Answer 78

Rituxan | - tests for antigen CD-20

Question 79

Ofatumumab

Answer 79

Arzerra

Question 80

Obinutuzumab

Answer 80

Gazyva

Question 81

Brentuximab Vedotin

Answer 81

Adcetris

Question 82

Blinatimomab

Answer 82

Blincyto

Question 83

Daratumumab

Answer 83

Darzalex | - anti - CD 38 monoclonal antibody

Question 84

Pembrolizumab

Answer 84

Keytruda - MedGuide PD-1 inhibitor

Question 85

Nivolumab

Answer 85

Opdivo PD-1 inhibitor - MedGuide

Question 86

Atesolizumab

Answer 86

Tecentriq PD-1 inhibitor - MedGuide

Question 87

Ipilimumab

Answer 87

Yervoy MedGuide REQUIRED REMS program CTLA 4 inhibitor

Question 88

Imatinib

Answer 88

``` Gleevec with food tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie ```

Question 89

Dasatinib

Answer 89

Sprycel tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

Question 90

Nilotinib medguide required

Answer 90

Tasigna without food tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

Question 91

PONATinib medguide required

Answer 91

Iclusig tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML mUST be Philadelphia chromosome ( BCR-ABL) positivie

Question 92

Bosutinib

Answer 92

Bosulif

Question 93

Vemurafenib

Answer 93

Zelboraf BRAF INHIBITOR must be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation positive

Question 94

Dabrafenib

Answer 94

Tafinlar

Question 95

Trametinib

Answer 95

Mekinist

Question 96

Cobimetinib

Answer 96

Cotellic

Question 97

Afatinib

Answer 97

Gilotrif - EGFR mutation positive (Exon 19 or 21) - Acneiform rash, dry skin

Question 98

Erlotinib

Answer 98

Tarceva | - EGFR mutation positive Exon 19 or 21 - Acneiform rash, dry skin

Question 99

Gefitinib

Answer 99

Iressa | - EGFR mutation positive Exon 19 or 21 - Acneiform rash, dry skin

Question 100

Crizotinib

Answer 100

Xalkori - ALK inhibitor - ALK mutation positive

Question 101

Ceritinib

Answer 101

Zykadia - ALK inhibitor - ALK mutation positive

Question 102

Alectinib

Answer 102

Alecensa - ALK inhibitor - ALK mutation positive

Question 103

Lapatinib

Answer 103

Tykerb TKI - Her2 overexpression to use in breast cancer - Decreased LVEF - QT prolongation

Question 104

SORAfenib

Answer 104

NexAVAR

Question 105

SUNItinib

Answer 105

Sutent