Cancer Chemotherapy and General Anesthetics Flashcards

(120 cards)

1
Q

what is the pathophysiology of cancer?

A

malignant forms of neoplastic disease

uncontrolled proliferation of cells

exact cause is unknown

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2
Q

what is the dif bw benign and malignant cancers?

A

benign tumors have normal cells

malignant tumors have abnormal cells

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3
Q

what are the options for cancer treatment?

A

surgery

radiation

chemotherapy

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4
Q

what are the 2 types of chemotherapy for cancer?

A

antineoplastic agents

gene therapy

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5
Q

what are the general principles of cancer chemotherapy?

A

cytotoxic strategy

cell kill hypothesis

cell cycle specific vs cell cycle non-specific

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6
Q

what is the basic strategy of anticancer drugs to stop cells from growing?

A

the cytotoxic strategy

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7
Q

how does the cytotoxic strategy limit cell proliferation?

A

by killing or attenuating the growth of the cancerous cells

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8
Q

what is the cell kill hypothesis?

A

theoretical ability of chemo to kill a % of cancer cells, never 0 cancer cells left in the body , it only takes care of a proportion of cancer cells

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9
Q

what are cell cycle non-specific drugs?

A

cancer drugs that attack cells in any stage

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10
Q

what are cell cycle specific drugs?

A

cancer drugs that only target actively dividing cells

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11
Q

t/f: many anticancer drugs are non-specific

A

true

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12
Q

what cells are affected by chemo?

A

hair follicles

bone marrow

immune cells

epithelial cells in skin and GI tract

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13
Q

what are the side effects of chemo?

A

hair loss

anemic symptoms

easier to get sick

fragile skin

nausea/vomiting

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14
Q

what are the 3 classes of anticancer drugs?

A

drugs that act on DNA

drugs that act on mitotic spindles

hormonal agents

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15
Q

what are the MOAs of cancer drugs that act on DNA?

A

damage DNA

inhibit DNA synthesis or fxns

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16
Q

what cancer treatments damage DNA?

A

alkylating agents

free radical formation

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17
Q

what cancer treatments inhibit DNA synthesis or fxns?

A

antimetabolites

toposomerase inhibitors

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18
Q

what cancer drugs act on mitotic spindles?

A

microtubule inhibitors

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19
Q

t/f: there are agonist and antagonist hormonal agents to treat cancer

A

true

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20
Q

what are alkylating agents?

A

cell cycle non-specific drugs that work by damaging the DNA chain to prevent replication and translation

one of the largest categories of anticancer drugs

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21
Q

what are some alkylating agents?

A

cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan, Neosar)

chlorambucil (Leukeran)

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22
Q

what are the drug interactions with alkylating agents?

A

anticoagulants effects may be increased, increasing the risk of bruising and bleeding

digoxin with alkylatng agents can cause a Dec in plasma levels of digoxin

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23
Q

what are free radical formation/anticancer antibiotics?

A

cell cycle non-specific drugs that are reserved for cancer due to its toxicity

using free radicals to kill cancer cells

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24
Q

what are the anticancer antibiotics?

A

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

Dounorubicin (Cerubidine)

Mitomycin (Mutamycin)

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25
what do the anticancer antibiotics end in?
- mycin - rubicin
26
what are the drug interactions with anticancer antibiotics?
alkylating agents as the combo may inc risk of cardiotoxicity
27
what are antimetabolites?
cell cycle specific drugs that attack cells in the S phase related to DNA synthesis and replication
28
what are the antimetabolite drugs?
Methotrexate Fluorouracil (Adrucil)
29
what are plant alkaloids?
cell cycle specific drugs that inhibit mitosis
30
what two categories of drugs are plant alkaloids?
microtubule inhibitors toposomerase inhibitors
31
what do microtubule inhibitors do?
they disrupt the fxn of the mitotic apparatus
32
what is one of the most toxic microtubule inhibitors?
Vinca alkaloids
33
what are the vinca alkaloids (plant alkaloids-microtubule)?
Vincristine vinblastine vinorelbine vindesine
34
what are the microtubule drugs?
vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine, vinorelbine, vindesine) Paclitaxel (Taxol)
35
what do topoisomerase inhibitors do?
they inhibit the enzymes needed for DNA replication
36
what are the topoisomerase inhibitors?
Etoposide (VP-16) Irinotecan (Camptosar)
37
what cancers can use hormonal agents?
hormone sensitive cancers like breast, prostate, endometrial, Hodgkin's lymphoma, and some leukemias
38
what hormonal agents can treat Hodgkin's lymphoma and some leukemias?
glucocorticoids
39
what hormonal agents can treat breast cancer?
Tamoxifen (Soltamox) androgens anti-estrogens
40
what hormonalagents can treat prostate cancer?
estrogens anti-androgens
41
what hormonal agent can treat breast cancer, endometrial cancer, and prostate cancer?
progesterones
42
what are some of the bolded side effects of anti-cancer drugs?
neuropathy cardiotoxicity
43
what is chemotherapy induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)?
numbness and tingling pain (burning, shooting, stabbing) hypersensitivity to hot or cold or touch or pressure hypo- or areflexia muscle weakness trouble swallowing balance problems constipation BP changes
44
do we usually see motor or sensory problems first with cancer treatment?
sensory
45
t/f: once CIPN has started there is nothing to stop or slow it
true
46
are the symptoms of CIPN short or long term?
can be either
47
what % of pts on chemo experience "chemo brain"?
82%
48
what are the s/s of chemo related cognitive and memory problems?
mental fog ST memory problems difficulty concentrating confusion fatigue
49
what may be the cause of "chemo brain"?
lower perfusion of the pre-frontal cortex w/chemo
50
what are the drugs that decrease non-neural side effects of chemo?
corticosteroids Ondansetron (Zofran) IV fluids with potassium, magnesium, calcium
51
what do corticosteroids do for chemo side effects?
they prevent allergic rxns to chemo meds
52
what does Ondansetron (Zofran) do for chemo side effects?
it reduces nausea and vomiting
53
what are the PT implications of chemo?
acknowledge the severe toxic effects address deconditioning with a combo of aerobic and anaerobic exercises starting at low doses and working up pain management pt support
54
what are severe toxic effects of chemo that PTs should be aware of?
neurotoxicity loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting fluid and electrolyte imbalances myelosuppression (reduced WBCs, RBCs, or platelets) fatigue, weakness
55
how do general anesthetics work?
CNS depression absence of all perceived sensations
56
general anesthesia is characterized by...
analgesia unconsciousness amnesia skeletal muscle relaxation inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
57
why does general anesthesia lead to depression in HR and BP?
it inhibits autonomic reflexes leading to unresponsive baroreceptors
58
what is stage 1 CNS depression?
analgesia conscious and aware of surroundings begin to lose somatic sensations good for local surgeries that don't require full body anesthesia
59
what is stage 2 CNS depression?
excitement/delirium agitated and disturbed state loss of consciousness, amnesia rapid/irregular breathing, vomiting
60
what is stage 3 CNS depression?
surgical amnesia unconsciousness rhythmic and deep respirations desirable for surgical procedures
61
what is stage 4 CNS depression?
DANGER meduallry paralysis resp control centers and vasomotor center inhibition ventilatory and circulatory support needed
62
what are the inhaled anesthetics?
gas-nitrous oxide volatile liquids-halothane and isoflurane
63
which inhaled anesthetic is used for short surgeries or dental work?
nitrous oxide
64
which inhaled anesthetics is used for longer surgeries?
volatile liquids
65
what are the IV anesthetics?
barbiturates (thiopental) dissociative s (ketamine) opioids (fentanyl) benzos (midazolam) miscellaneous (etomidate, propofol)
66
what general anesthetics are given to calm pts pre-op?
opioids and benzos
67
what are the general anesthetics that increase inhibition?
benzos barbiturates propofol
68
what are the general anesthetics that decrease excitation?
halogenated liquids ketamine nitrous oxide opioids
69
what receptors do benzos act on?
GABA
70
what receptors do barbiturates act on?
GABA Glycine
71
what receptors do propofol act on?
GABA Glycine
72
what receptors do halogenated liquids act on?
GABA K+ channels ACh
73
what receptors does ketamine act on?
NMDA
74
what receptors does nitrous oxide act on?
NMDA
75
what receptors do opioids act on?
opioid receptors
76
what kind of drugs are Midazolam, fentanyl, proprofol, isoflurane
sedation/general anesthesia
77
what kind of drugs are lidocaine and bupivacaine?
local anesthesia
78
what kind of drug is Rocuronium?
neuromuscular blocker
79
what kind of drug is Neostigmine?
neuromuscular blocker reverser
80
what kind of drug is Ondansetron (Zofran)?
antiemetic
81
what kind of drugs are fentanyl, hydromorphone, morphine?
analgesia/pain control
82
what kind of drug is glycopyrrolate?
anticholinergic
83
what is the goal of step 1: pre-op meds?
sedation and anti-anxiety
84
what are the classifications of Midazolam (Versed)?
Benzo, anxiolytic, amnesia
85
t/f: Midazolam (Versed) is usually given 1-2 hours b4 surgery
true
86
when the pt is brought to the OR in step 2, what med is given?
Fentanyl
87
what is the classification of fentanyl?
opioid analgesic, anesthetic
88
t/f: side effects of fentanyl are more severe in older adults
true
89
what drugs are given in step 3?
lidocaine (xylocaine) propofol (diprivan)
90
how does lidocaine work?
interrupting nerve conduction relieve pain w/o systematic effects and loss of consciousness minimize the stinging of propofol
91
what are the classifications for lidocaine?
local anesthetic antiarryhthmic
92
what are the side effects of lidocaine?
hypotension, arryhthmia
93
which drug mimics the effects of deep sleep?
propofol
94
what is the classification of propofol?
sedative-hypnotic
95
what are the side effects of propofol?
nausea/vomiting, involuntary muscle movements, hypotension
96
what drug is involved in paralysis of step 4?
rocuronium (Zemuron)
97
what does Rocuronium (Zemuron) do?
binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptors to induce neuromusclar blockade and relaxation of vocal cords for intubation
98
what are the classifications of Rocuronium (Zemuron)?
neuromuscular blocker paralytic
99
what drug is used in step 5 to induce and maintain general anesthesia?
Isoflurance (Forane)
100
what are the classifications of Isoflurane (Forane)?
inhalation anesthetic volatile liquid
101
what does Isoflurane (Forane) do?
achieves unconsciousness, muscles relaxation. and reduced pain sensitivity diffuses into adipose tissue due to lipid solubility
102
how is Isoflurane (Forane) eliminated?
expiration
103
what are the side effects of Isoflurane (Forane)?
shivering, nausea, vomiting, resp depression, hypotension, arryhthmia, slowing psychomotor skills, delirium potential CV and pulm toxicity
104
what 3 drugs are involved in step 6 before the end of surgery?
Ondansetron (Zofran) Neostigmine (Bloxiverz) Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
105
what are the classifications of Ondansetron (Zofran)?
antiemetic serotonin receptor antagonist
106
what drug reduces post op, chemo , or radiation induced nausea/vomiting?
Ondonsetron (Zofran)
107
what are the side effects of Ondansetron (Zofran)?
confusion, dizziness, tachycardia, fever, headache, trouble breathing
108
what is the classification of Neostigmine (Bloxiverz)?
neuromuscular blocker reversal
109
what does Neostigmine (Bloxiverz) do?
counteracts Rocuronium (Zemuron)
110
what are the side effects of Neostigmine (Bloxiverz)?
GI distress, abdominal cramps, headache, fever
111
what is the classification of glycopyrrolate (Robinul)?
anticholinergic
112
what does Glycopyrrolate (Robinul) do?
minimizes the side effects of Neostigmine
113
what are the side effects of Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)?
blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth
114
what drugs are given in the recovery room?
Bupivacaine (Marcaine) Hydromorphone (Exalgo ER)
115
what is the classification of Bupivacaine (Marcaine)?
local anesthetic (spinal or epidural)
116
is Bupivacaine (Marcaine) long or short acting?
long acting (about 6 hours)
117
what are the side effects of Bupivacaine (Marcaine)?
pruritis, CNS depression, cardiotoxicity, bradycardia, arryhthmia, hypotension, resp arrest, urinary retention
118
what is the classification of hydromorphone (exalgo ER)?
opioid analgesic
119
what are the PT implications of general anesthetics?
nausea/vomiting resp compromise sedation, lethargy muscle weakness OH ST confusion
120
what are the populations of concern with general anesthetics?
obesity elderly comorbidities children