Cancer in Children Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

What are the most common cancers in 0-14 years?

A
  • leukaemia
  • CNS
  • lymphomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the most common cancer in 15-19 years?

A
  • lymphomas
  • carcinomas and melanomas
  • CNS
  • leukaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the problem with chemotherapy and radiation with children?

A
  • chemo -> toxic in children as many dividing cells

- radiation -> damage growing cells leading to development of other tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is cancer?

A
  • mutation of the genome
  • accumulation of genetic abberations in somatic cells consisting of mutations and chromosome defects
  • lead to altered gene expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are oncogenes?

A
  • dominant (1 allele activated needs to be present)
  • act by gain of function
  • encode protein capable of inducing cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are oncogenes activated by?

A
  • mutation
  • chromosome translocation
  • gene amplification
  • retroviral insertion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A
  • act by loss of function
  • recessive (2 inactivated alleles need to be present)
  • cause genetic predisposition in cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes inactivated by?

A
  • mutations
  • deletions
  • DNA methylation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Wilms tumour?

A
  • aggressive tumour of kidney
  • nephroblastoma
  • asymptomatic abdominal mass without metastasis
  • spreads via growth or lymph/blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Wilms syndrome associated with?

A
  • Aniradia
  • Genito-urinary abnormalities
  • Mental retardation
  • Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the cellular origins of WIlm’s tumour?

A
  • pluripotent embryonic renal precursors
  • resembles nephrogenic mesenchyme
  • contains blasterma, epithelia, stroma (3 cell types in embryonic kidney)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the somatic genetic alterations of Wilm’s tumour?

A
  • inactivated WT1, WTX, TP53 genes
  • activated beta catenin (oncogene)
  • epigenetic alterations at IGF2/H19 locus
  • cells kept in embryonic state and proliferate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the key role of WT1 in Wilm’s tumour?

A
  • ureteric branching
  • activated by beta catenin
  • epithelial induction of metanephric mesenchyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is Wilm’s tumour treated?

A
  • surgery then chemo (or vice versa)

- radiotherapy use decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the clinical presentation of retinoblastoma?

A
  • retina tumour
  • leukocoria (white pupil when light shone into it)
  • eye pain
  • redness
  • vision problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the cellular origins of retinoblastoma?

A
  • originates from cone precursor cells

- signalling pathways promote cell survival after RB1 loss

17
Q

What is the role of RB1? **

A
  • retinoblastoma
  • in normal cells RB1 gets phosphorylated allowing cells to move through cycle
  • in cancer cells no RB1 so E2F released inducing G1-S transition
  • also activates MYCN for proliferation
18
Q

How is retinoblastoma treated?

A
  • small tumours = cryotherapy, laser, thermotherapy
  • more advanced = chemotherapy, surgery, radiation

(chemotherapy shrinks tumour before cryotherapy and laser)

19
Q

What is the presentation of neuroblastoma?

A
  • SymNS tumour arising in adrenal gland/sympathetic ganglia

- many metastasise to liver and skin via N4S

20
Q

What are the cellular origins of neuroblastoma?

A
  • derived from sympatho-adrenal linage of neural crest during development
  • originates from incompletely committed precursor cell
  • key genes are MYCN and ALK and PHOX2B
21
Q

What is the pathology of high risk neuroblastoma?

A
  • MYCN amplification (TF)

- ATRX and ALK mutations

22
Q

What is the pathology of low risk/intermediate neuroblastoma?

A
  • numerical chromosomal gains
23
Q

What is the pathology of hereditary neuroblastoma?

A
  • germline ALK mutations
24
Q

How is neuroblastoma treated?

A
  • high risk = high dose chemo and stem cell transplantation
  • targeted therapy = crizotinib against ALK mutations
  • immunotherapy
25
What are some complications of chemotherapy on neuroblastoma?
- hearing loss - infertility - cardiotoxicity
26
How is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia clinically presented?
- most common malignancy in children - bruising/bleeding - pallor/fatigue due to anaemia - infection as neutropenia - clonal expansion of immature lymphocytes
27
What are the cellular origins of leukaemia?
- haematopoiesis - CD19+ on cell surface - CD19+ and CD10+ - have specific genetic changes causing different leukaemia types
28
What are the standard treatment phases for leukaemia?
- induction - consolidation - maintenance - bone marrow transplantation
29
Who are high risk groups for cancer?
- tumour diagnosed in perinatal period suggests genetic predisposition syndrome - bilateral/multifocal disease associated with congenital malformations - cancer in close relatives - same rare tumour in more than 1 family member (retinoblastoma)
30
What are the stages of Wilm's tumour?
- invasion of ureteric bud - condensation - comma shape formation - S shape - tubule elongation - nephron maturation
31
What is a bilateral tumour indicative of?
Hereditary disposition | If just 1 - preserve function of other kidney