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Cancer Registry Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What level of protection is needed for confidential health information within an organization?

A

REASONABLE PROTECTION

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2
Q

In the central registry record consolidation process, reports of cancer submitted to the central registry from hospital cancer registries, pathology laboratories, radiation therapy centers, and other sources are:

A

SOURCE RECORDS

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3
Q

What is the primary resource for documentation of cancer program activity in a CoC accredited cancer program?

A

CANCER COMMITTEE MINUTES

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4
Q

Central Registry A matched its data with data from the Department of Motor Vehicles in state A to determine date last alive for patients in the database. This process is:

A

DATA LINKAGE

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5
Q

Peyer patches are often located in which organ?

A

SMALL INTESTINE

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6
Q

What is the class of case for a patient who was diagnosed and received beam radiation for painful bone metastasis at the reporting facility?

A

14

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7
Q

Tumor histology is rhabdomyosarcoma. Primary site is most likely:

A

SKELETAL MUSCLE

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8
Q

What is a pathological staging system based on resection of the tumor and measures the depth of invasion through the mucosa and bowel wall?

A

DUKE’S

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9
Q

To be compliant with Standard 4.8 Quality Improvements, who needs to be notified of the patient care improvements each year?

A

MEDICAL STAFF AND ADMINISTRATION

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10
Q

The following data set is ages of patients diagnosed with osteosarcoma: [5, 7, 10, 12, 12, 14, and 17]. What is the mean of the data set?

A

11

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11
Q

Which member of the cancer committee cannot fulfill the role of community outreach coordinator for the cancer committee?

A

CANCER REGISTRAR

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12
Q

If the administration and medical staff of a facility are planning patient care activities for breast cancer patients, they will analyze breast cancer:

A

PREVALENCE

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13
Q

Patient’s primary tumor was biopsied and that was followed by tumor resection. The histology is coded from the:

A

MOST REPRESENTATIVE SPECIMEN

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14
Q

Melanoma is most likely to develop in the:

A

EPIDERMIS

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15
Q

The highest value minus the lowest value in a data set is the:

A

RANGE

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16
Q

A patient had a breast core biopsy in a doctor’s office, and the physician was not on staff at the reporting facility. The specimen was read at the reporting facility’s lab, and the diagnosis was “infiltrating ductal carcinoma”. The patient was treated at the reporting facility with lumpectomy and axillary node dissection. What is the class of case code for the reporting facility?

A

22

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17
Q

The best way to display the survival rate by year of diagnosis for female patients at St. Elsewhere Hospital diagnosed with breast cancer between 2006-2015 is with a:

A

LINE GRAPH

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18
Q

In 2016 the population of Buncombe County, North Carolina was 229,000. During the same time period in Buncombe County, there were 120 newly diagnosed cases of colorectal cancer and 250 existing cases of colorectal cancer. When calculating the crude incidence rate of colorectal cancer in Buncombe County in 2016, the numerator and denominator are:

A

120/229,000

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19
Q

The serosa of the colon is:

A

VISCERAL PERITONEUM

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20
Q

The investigation of cancer frequencies and patterns in a defined population is:

A

DESCRIPTIVE EPIDEMIOLOGY

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21
Q

Pathology reports are what type of source?

A

CASEFINDING

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22
Q

The first course of treatment consists of

A

ALL CANCER DIRECTED TREATMENT REGARDLESS OF WHERE IT TAKES PLACE

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23
Q

Casefinding timeliness in a central registry is determined by

A

TIMELINESS OF THE REPORTING OF THE HOSPITAL REGISTRIES

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24
Q

Name a systemic method of locating all eligible cases.

A

CASEFINDING

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25
How often does NPCR require central registries to do hospital casefinding or reabstracting audits on each hospital?
EVERY FIVE (5) YEARS
26
A patient has urine cytology suspicious for urothelial carcinoma. Is this case reportable or non-reportable?
REPORTABLE IF THERE IS CONFIRMATION BY POSITIVE PATHOLOGY AND/OR BY CLINICIAN DIAGNOSIS
27
The sequence number tells you...
HOW MANY PRIMARY TUMORS THE PATIENT HAS
28
Surgically creating a passage between the stomach and intestines is called...
GASTROENTEROSTOMY
29
Alpha-fetoprotein is a blood serum test for which site?
LIVER
30
The United States authority on Tumor-Node-Metastasis staging is the:
AMERICAN JOINT COMMITTEE ON CANCER
31
The most common cancer in both males and females is:
LUNG
32
Would a lymphoma or leukemia be more likely to arise in a Waldeyer's ring?
LYMPHOMA
33
What type of agent is Methotrexate?
CHEMOTHERAPY
34
What type of specimens, when positive, would be considered cytologic diagnostic confirmation of malignancy?
NEEDLE ASPIRATION OF TUMOR
35
The three leading cancer sites among white American males are:
1. PROSTATE 2. COLORECTAL 3. LUNG
36
The "N" in the AJCC staging system represents:
REGIONAL LYMPH NODE INVOLVEMENT
37
Peau d'orange is a condition associated with:
DERMAL LYMPHATIC INVASION BY BREAST CANCER
38
A hemiglossectomy is a procedure performed on what organ?
TONGUE
39
What is a tumor of the covering of the brain?
MENINGIOMA
40
Peristalsis is a physiologic function of the:
MUSCULARIS PROPRIA OF THE INTESTINES
41
A colectomy is a procedure which is performed on which organ?
COLON
42
The prefix "endo" in the word endocardium means:
WITHIN
43
A sarcoma is a malignancy arising from:
MESODERMAL TISSUE
44
What carries de-oxygenated blood?
PULMONARY ARTERY
45
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used for which cancer?
COLON
46
Adenocarcinomas arise from which type of tissue?
GLANDULAR TISSUE
47
Palliative is best defined as:
TREATMENT FOR RELIEF OF PAIN OR TO RELIEVE SYMPTOMS
48
A transurethral resection is a procedure that:
REMOVES TISSUE FROM THE BLADDER OR PROSTATE
49
What is a neoplasm of smooth muscle origin?
LEIOMYOSARCOMA
50
The tonsils are masses of what kind of tissue?
LYMPHOID
51
One of the most common sites of metastatic spread of cancer is:
LIVER
52
Fulguration is a biopsy procedure that uses what?
ELECTRIC SPARKS CONTROLLED BY A MOVING ELECTRODE
53
The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is diagnostic of:
HODGKIN'S DISEASE
54
Salpingostomy is a procedure on which organs?
FALLOPIAN TUBE
55
An oophorectomy is a procedure for which of the following:
CARCINOMA OF THE OVARY(IES)
56
The surgical approach for a transurethral resection (TUR) of a bladder tumor is:
ENDOSCOPIC
57
A tumor described as anaplastic should be coded as:
UNDIFFERENTIATED
58
Human papilloma virus is a causal agent implicated in cancer of which site?
UTERINE CERVIX
59
The hypothalamus is located in which organ?
BRAIN
60
Enucleation is a surgical procedure for what type of cancer?
OCULAR MELANOMA
61
Why is neoadjuvant treatment given?
TO SHRINK THE TUMOR TO INCREASE THE POSSIBILITY OF RESECTABILITY
62
What is the largest organ?
SKIN
63
The "T" in the AJCC staging system represents:
TUMOR SIZE AND/OR EXTENSION
64
Mesothelioma typically arises where?
PLEURA
65
What is the main purpose of a cholecystectomy?
TO REMOVE THE GALLBLADDER
66
Supraglottis, glottis and subglottis are subsites of the:
LARYNX
67
The sequence number tells you:
HOW MANY PRIMARY TUMORS THE PATIENT HAS
68
The mucous membrane lining the inner cheeks is called the:
BUCCAL MUCOSA
69
The "M" in the AJCC staging system represents:
METASTATIC INVOLVEMENT AT A DISTANCE FROM THE PRIMARY
70
The date of first contact for a patient at a facility is:
THE DATE THE PATIENT FIRST HAD CONTACT WITH THE FACILITY FOR THE DIAGNOSIS AND/OR FIRST COURSE OF TREATMENT
71
The vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the extremities are:
ARTERIES
72
The islets of Langerhans are located in:
THE PANCREAS
73
Integumentary relates to which of the following sites?
SKIN
74
A cystadenocarcinoma would most likely arise in which of the following organs?
OVARY(IES)
75
A neoplastic disease characterized by an excess of red blood cells is known as:
POLYCYTHEMIA VERA
76
According to Cancer Program Standard 5.3, what percent of a follow-up rate on all eligible analytic cases must be maintained from the cancer registry reference date?
80%
77
The best source for follow-up information is considered to be...
THE PATIENT'S PRIMARY PHYSICIAN
78
The percent follow-up rate that is maintained for all eligible analytic cases diagnosed within the last five years is:
90%
79
Passive follow-up means:
CHECKING THE HOSPITAL DATABASE FOR READMISSION OF PATIENTS IN THE REGISTRY DATABASE
80
According to the Commission on Cancer (CoC), the number of studies that measure quality of care, undertaken by a cancer program is determined based on _______ ________.
PROGRAM CATEGORY
81
According to the Commission on Cancer (CoC) of the American College of Surgeons (ACoS), a case may be excluded from the follow-up requirement if:
THE PATIENT RESIDES IN OR MOVES TO A FOREIGN COUNTRY
82
According to the Commission on Cancer (CoC), the cancer registry policy and procedure manual must include:
CONFIDENTIALITY AND RELEASE OF INFORMATION
83
The ______ _______ ____ required by the CoC for hospital cancer registries is an example of quality control.
ANNUAL CONTROL PLAN
84
A source for quality improvements may include:
CHANGES TO IMPROVE UPON ACCEPTABLE PATIENT CARE
85
A characteristic of data quality is:
ACCURACY
86
The establishment and implementation of a plan to annually evaluate the quality of the cancer registry data and activity is the responsibility of the:
CANCER COMMITTEE
87
The cancer committee is accountable for the quality control of the registry as determined by:
THE COMMISSION ON CANCER (CoC)
88
According to the Cancer Program Standards: Ensuring Patient-Centered Care, 2016, Standard 4.8, the quality improvement coordinator, under the direction of the cancer committee, implements how many cancer care improvements, annually?
2
89
Each and every calendar year the cancer committee establishes what two (2) goals?
ONE CLINICAL AND ONE PROGRAMMATIC GOAL FOR THE ENDEAVORS RELATED TO CANCER CARE
90
Routine and automated edit checks should be applied to ___% of a registry's cases.
100%
91
What does a computer data edit do?
VERIFIES DATA ACCURACY
92
According to the Commission on Cancer (CoC), the maximum number of cancer registry cases that need to have quality control is:
300
93
The cancer committee monitors the program's Estimated Performance Rates (EPR) for all quality measures using...
CP3R
94
Cases originally diagnosed in your hospital are:
ANALYTIC
95
Who is responsible for implementing the quality control plan in the cancer registry?
THE CANCER REGISTRY QUALITY COORIDINATOR
96
The NAACCR standard for reporting expected cases of reportable cancer occurring in residents during that year should be reported within ____ months of the close of the diagnosis year.
23
97
Each year CoC-accredited cancer programs must submit complete data for all requested analytic cases to the:
NCDB
98
What should the abstractor record in the First Name field if a patient goes by his nickname, Jerry, rather than his given name of Jerome?
RECORD ONLY JEROME IN THE FIRST NAME FIELD | Do not record nicknames in the First Name field. Record nicknames in the Alias field
99
A clear, thick gel containing carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and other chemicals that surrounds the nucleus in a cell
CYTOPLASM
100
The condition where internal and external environments remain constant and in balance
HOMEOSTASIS
101
What are the Four Phases of Mitosis?
1. Prophase 2. Metaphase 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase
102
The description of the form and structure of tissues on the body
MORPHOLOGY
103
What is hypertrophy?
AN INCREASE IN THE SIZE OF A TISSUE
104
What is atrophy?
A DECREASE IN THE SIZE OF A TISSUE
105
A body tissue that covers the surfaces of the body, inside and out
EPITHELIAL TISSUE
106
The most abundant and most widely distributed of all tissues
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
107
What are the Three Elements of Connective Tissue?
1. Cells 2. Ground substance (or matrix) 3. Fibers
108
What are meninges?
THREE PROTECTIVE MEMBRANES THAT SURROUND THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
109
A thick, tough membrane lining the skull
DURA MATER
110
The thin innermost layer that is in contact with the brain
PIA MATER
111
What is the middle meningeal layer called?
ARACHOID MATER
112
The formation of new foci of disease in a distant part of the body
METASTASIS
113
What are the three types of metastasis?
1. SYNCHRONOUS 2. METACHRONOUS 3. PRECOCIOUS
114
What is synchronous?
DIAGNOSED AT THE SAME TIME AS THE PRIMARY SITE
115
Diagnosed after the primary site had been diagnosed and treated is called...
METACHRONOUS
116
What does precocious mean?
DIAGNOSED WITH AN UNKNOWN PRIMARY SITE, FIRST INDICATION OF CANCER IN A PATIENT
117
A malignant neoplasm that occurs in epithelial tissue
CARCINOMAS
118
Carcinomas that are predominantly glandular or ductal
ADENOCARCINOMAS
119
Carcinomas that arise from stratified squamous epithelium
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMAS (SqCCa)
120
Carcinomas with mixed glandular and squamous
TRANSITIONAL CELL CARCINOMAS
121
Malignant tumors of mesenchymal origin, embryonic connective tissue
SARCOMAS
122
Cells that originate in the neural crest
NEUROENDOCRINE TUMORS
123
What is another word for benign pituitary tumors?
ADENOMAS
124
What organ relates to islet cells tumors?
PANCREAS
125
What is the process of the formation and development of cancer?
CARCINOGENESIS/ONCOGENESIS
126
What are the Breast Cancer Proto-Oncogenes?
1. HER2 2. Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) 3. p53
127
What is HER2?
A CANCER RELATED PROTEIN (Over-expression of this protein is associated with a poor prognosis. It is also used to identify those who may receive a targeted therapy)
128
Associated with large tumors.
EGFR | patients with large amounts of EGFR have a less favorable prognosis than those with small amounts of this receptor
129
What is the most common genetic change?
p53. (It is a tumor suppressor gene. In breast cancer, the p53 mutation is associated with a more aggressive disease and poorer survival rates)
130
Occurs when there is a need for new blood vessels to support the growth of the tumor
ANGIOGENESIS
131
What is the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors?
THEY BLOCK DEVELOPMENT OF NEW BLOOD VESSELS TO CUT OFF THE TUMOR'S SUPPLY OF OXYGEN AND NUTRIENTS; THEREFORE, LIMIT OR DESTROY THE TUMOR'S CONTINUED GROWTH AND SPREAD TO OTHER PARTS OF THE BODY.
132
The study of the distribution and determinants of disease in a population
EPIDEMIOLOGY
133
What are the two types of epidemiology?
1. DESCRIPTIVE | 2. ANALYTIC
134
What is descriptive epidemiology?
EXAMINES PATTERNS OF DISEASE OCCURRENCE IN POPULATIONS, DISTRIBUTION OF DISEASE IN A POPULATION.
135
Explores etiologic relationships, investigating possible determinants associated with the occurrence of disease
ANALYTIC EPIDEMIOLOGY
136
What is prevalence?
THE TOTAL NUMBER OF PEOPLE IN A POPULATION AT A GIVEN POINT IN TIME WITH A DISEASE. [Prevalence measures the existence of disease]
137
The number of NEW cases of a disease in a population over a period of time. Also measures the appearance of disease.
INCIDENCE
138
What are the three levels of prevention?
1. PRIMARY 2. SECONDARY 3. TERTIARY
139
What is the most common cancer in women?
BREAST CANCER
140
What is the most common cancer in men?
PROSTATE CANCER
141
What is the second most common cancer among men and women in the United States, but the leading cause of total cancer deaths?
LUNG CANCER
142
What is the third most common cancer among men and women in the United States, and the second leading cause of total cancer deaths?
COLON CANCER
143
The examination of a piece of bone marrow by puncture or trephine, removing a circular disc of bone
BONE MARROW BIOPSY

Cancer Registry (1 decks)

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