Canine Pathogen Flashcards

Question

Extraocular polymyositis

Answer 1

golden retriever

Answer 2

high fever and unilateral or bilateral tarsal swelling. The swelling affects tissues around the joint, rather than with the tarsus itself. FSF also predisposed to amyloidosis, resulting in proteinuria.

Answer 3

are renal disorder of dogs in which the proximal renal tubules of the kidney do not properly reabsorb electrolytes and nutrients back into the body, but instead "spill" them in the urine - particularly Basenjis dogs. Leads to hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis.

Answer 4

Typically occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. Right lateral best positions for revealing a gas filled left dorsally-displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band (compartmented stomach). The stomach is likely to rotate in a counter-clockwise direction if looking att eh patient from cranial to caudal, clockwise from surgeon's perspective (caudal to cranial)

Answer 5

In chondrodystrophic breeds such as the dachshund and the bassett hound, the nucleus pulposus undergoes chondroid degeneration. These breeds are genetically predisposed to such pathology and changes such as mineralisation are normally apparent in more than one disc by the time the dog is one year old. The abnormal disc may bulge, chronically impinging on the ventral cord and producing slow onset of clinical signs

Answer 6

more common in older, large breed dogs such as the German Shepard Dog. IVDD type II involves fibroid degeneration of the nucleus pulposus and protrusion of the annulus fibrosis. Over time the fibroid tissue in the disc is replaced by collagenous tissue. At the same time, hypertrophy of the surrounding annulus occurs, causing progressive compression of the spinal cord. Mineralisation of the discs is rare. Clinical signs are normally insidious but the dog may present acutely. It is common for the dog to only show signs of dynamic compression of the spinal cord, for example when jumping. As the onset of disease is normally gradual and progressive, so clinical signs are normally less severe on presentation

Answer 7

ivermectin or milbemycin once monthly

Answer 8

regenerative anemia

Answer 9

severe form of gastrointestinal disease that is very common among small dogs. Aggressive fluid therapy is extremely important for these patients to prevent shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure. And abnormally high PCV can be a good indicator of this disease if there is a history of bloody diarrhea. Anti-nausea and gastroprotective medications may help the patient to feel better, but aggressive fluid therapy is the most important treatment for these patients.

Answer 10

In young dogs, localized masses along the head, ears, and limbs - a benign collection of histiocytes with a few other inflammatory cells present. They occur in young dogs and often resolve after a few months. A few histiocytomas can ulcerate, and multiple histiocytomas can be found on one animals. Those that do not regress on their own can be surgically excised. FNA will often give a conclusive diagnosis.

Answer 11

"Cushing's disease" more commonly occurs in older, large breed dogs. Thinning and increased fragility of the skin, Calcinosis cutis, weight gain due to slower metabolism, usually have normal appetite, PU/PD

Answer 12

affects the metaphysis condition seen in young, growing large breed dogs. Affects the metaphyses of all long bones and appears as an abnormal radiolucent line within the metaphysis. The disease is usually self-limiting but can cause limb deformities or systemic illness. The etiology is unknown but may be correlated with Ca/P levels and balance, vitamin C deficiency, and certain diseases including distemper

Answer 13

hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, and low resting cortisol level or low ACTH stimulation test result.

Answer 14

low calcium but does not typically result in clinical signs of hypocalcemia in dogs. The calcium measured on a chemistry panel is the protein bound calcium, which will appear low if the animal is hypoproteinemic. The ionized calcium is the active form and is not affected by an animal having a low blood protein level; therefore the total calcium on a chemistry panel is low due to hypoproteinemia, you should not see clinical signs of hypocalcemia as long as the ionized calcium is normal.

Answer 15

fat, lazy, heat seeking missiles for skin disease weight gain, alopecia, pyoderma, lethargy, seborrhea. prognosis good, continued therapy required. Low serum T4 and high serum cTSH (but not PU/PD) Treatment: Sodium levothyroxine (Soloxine) which is a synthetic T4

Answer 16

erosive (rare; \<1%) and non-erosive forms Akitas and Shar-pei predisposed associated with a variety of system disease or precipitating factors. Diagnosed by synovial fluid analysis Treatment: of idiopathic IMPA centers on immunosuppressive therapy, often staring with prednisone and sometimes including an additional immunosuppressive drug such as azathioprine or cyclophosphamide.

Answer 17

spherocytes, autoagglutination, and positive Coombs test are all specific to IMHA, will also see regenerative anemia

Answer 18

microcytic, hypochromic, non-regenerative anemia. (reticulocyte counts under 60,000/ul are typically considered non-regenerative in most labs) The most common cause is from chronic blood loss in gastrointestinal tract disease such as an ulcer or cancerous lesion.

Answer 19

(70 x BW^0.75) or (30 x BW +70)

Answer 20

"dry eye" most commonly immune-mediated, also from long term atropine and sulfonamide toxicity

Answer 21

congenital ocular anomaly

Answer 22

caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and transmitted through the bites of female phlebotomine sand flies promastigotes invade host macrophages and replicate as intracellular amastigotes Treatment: Allopurinol - can remain carriers after treatment

Answer 23

Produce a red-brown discoloration. Clinical signs: biting at the nails (sing of pruritis), multiple claws are infected, and the dog has other symptoms of allergy (pruritis in the summer months), which could be this patient's underlying disease.

Answer 24

Wedge resection (deeper trochlear groove for the patella to slide in), lateral imbrication, transposition of the tibial tuberosity (both will help pull the patella a little more laterally, as they are usually predisposed to luxating medially)

Answer 25

Options include prostaglandins to induce regression of corpora lutea, which relaxes the cervix and stimulates myometrial contractions, promoting expulsion of the uterine contents. Additional options include dopamine agonists (such as cabergoline and bromocriptine), which act to inhibit prolactin production from the pituitary gland. Patients should be monitored frequently during and after medical management of pyometra and should improve within 2-4 days. Successfully treated bitches should be bred during their next cycle after treatment.

Answer 26

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Cat source of primary infection.

Answer 27

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Soil source of primary infection. Common is dogs that dig - prevention of digging part of treatment plan.

Answer 28

Focal fibrous hyperplasia

Answer 29

Substance responsible for the wrinkled appearance of Shar Peis

Answer 30

Usual presentation is a mass on the neck that may be painful and may produce saliva on aspiration.

Answer 31

Diagnosis requires a least two of the following criteria: 1. Monoclonal gammopathy 2. radiographic evidence of osteolytic lesions 3. \>5% neoplastic cells or \>10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow 4. Immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria (Bence-Jones proteinuria)

Answer 32

Clinical signs: megaesophagus and weakness Treatment: Pyridostigmine

Answer 33

definitive diagnosis provided by histopathology

Answer 34

"salmon poisoning" etiologic agent which is vectored by the intestinal fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola. Dog gets the disease by eating the salmonid fish infected with the cercaria of the fluke, which harbors rickettsia. Clinical signs along with finding fluke eggs int he feces of the dog is usually enough to make the diagnosis. Treatment: tratracycline antibiotics

Answer 35

Dogs on high-fat diet at risk, both in frequency and severity.

Answer 36

auto-immune disease causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be sudden (acute) or gradual over many weeks (chronic). The disorder is caused by an IgG autoantibody that binds to intracellular adhesion molecules (desmoglein) causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventual ulceration. The treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term. Prognosis is poor and euthanasia is often performed.

Answer 37

testosterone dependent

Answer 38

Primarily immune-mediated. Treat with immunosuppressive therapy, perhaps with cyclosporine, is the initial treatment choice. Surgical used to be treatment of choice, but carries a guarded prognosis due to the risk of fecal incontinence. German Shepherds are predisposed to development of perianal fistulas.

Answer 39

Nasal mite than can result in facial pruritus. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

Answer 40

Toy breeds, particularly Yorkshire Terriers, are predisposed to congenital, single, extrahepatic portosystemic shunts. Large breed dogs with congenital liver shunts tend to develop intrahepatic shunts. Acquired shunts in older animals are almost always extrahepatic.

Answer 41

if one eye is affected, the other will also develop glaucoma in 6-12 months

Answer 42

Enrofloxacin

Answer 43

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius. Pyoderma is common in dogs because the canine stratum corneum is a less efficient barrier to bacteria than in other species. Dogs lack an ostial plug in their follicles, a characteristic which allows bacteria to invade and colonize more readily. Mixed bacterial infections are possible, but Staph. pseudintermedius is the most common primary bacterial invader.

Answer 44

e. coli most common bacteria cultured

Answer 45

Hemimelia is a developmental anomaly that is caused by the absence or shortening of a section of bone in the associated limb. Radial hemimelia has been reported in the dog.

Answer 46

leveling of the tibial plateau, cranial transportation of the fibular head, and weight reduction

Answer 47

Ruminant is intermediate host and dog definitive host. Life-cycle involves carnivore eating an infected cow which has cysts in the muscle. Then the cyst eventually forms sporocysts which are shed in feces and subsequently eaten by more cows. The sporocysts then hatch and penetrate artery walls and hang out in the endothelium to develop into sporozoites and eventually become merozoites at which time they invade and encyst as sarcocysts.

Answer 48

Sarcoptic mange is a highly contagious skin disease found in dogs, caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. These mites will burrow through the skin causing intense itching and irritation. The scratching that results from mange is what causes the majority of the animal's hair to fall out zoonotic

Answer 49

normal inhabitant of the nasopharynx

Answer 50

esophageal worm, found in the esophageal, aortic, and gastric walls of dogs that have eaten infected dung beetles, chickens, reptiles, or rodents. Chronic infection may cause neoplastic transformation of the surrounding tissues into sarcomas or rupture and life-threatening hemorrhage of the aorta. Treatment is ivermectin or doramectin.

Answer 51

Stage 1: Typically 6-12 hours and can persist for up to 36 hours. In this stage, it is expected fro the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. At this point, there is subclinical uterine contraction and dilation of the cervix. Stage 2: will also last 6-12 hours (and persist up to 36 hours) as is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during stage 2 at an interval of 30-60 min (up to 4 hours). Stage 3 involves expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed 5-15 minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn. Thick greenish discharge (lochia) is seen in all stages of labor and may persist for up to three weeks. Complete uterine involution and endometrial recovery in approximately 3 months.

Answer 52

Primary bacteria cultured in canine pyoderma

Answer 53

treat with beta-blockers such as atenolol to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, less the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias, and provide cardiac muscle protection. Owners should be warned that the dog should receive prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia since subaortic stenosis is known to carry a high risk of developing infective endocarditis (i.e. prior to surgical or dental procedures)

Answer 54

Dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have an increased incidence of SARDS. SARDS is frequently seen in middle-aged obese spayed females and often have signs of PU/PD and polyphagia as well as increased liver enzymes and cholesterol. The reason for the association of Cushing's disease and SARDS is poorly understood

Answer 55

results in severe splitting and deformation of the nails.

Answer 56

Type III hypersensitivity reaction complex autoimmune disease occurs in dogs, is rare in cats, and has been reported in large animals. It has two consistent immunologic features: immune complex disease and a tendency to produce multiple autoantibodies Antibodies to nucleic acids are the diagnostic hallmark of SLE Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia, or both, are the most common presentations of SLE in animals usually can be treated with glucocorticoids

Answer 57

Proziquantel

Answer 58

Canine roundworm that is passed along to puppies transplacentally. The roundworm migrates from the small intestines through the liver and lungs, which is what causes the animal to cough. Beyond 6 months of age, the larvae distribute to the somatic tissue, where their development is arrested.

Answer 59

canine roundworm

Answer 60

TVT is a sexually transmitted tumor found throughout the world, particularly in areas with high populations of stray dogs. The tumor cells are transferred from one dog to the next by physical contact, which typically consists of sniffing, licking, and copulation. The tumor is often curable with vincristine chemotherapy

Answer 61

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Rodents source of primary infection. Hunting dogs and roaming cats most often affected.

Answer 62

canine whipworm - treat with Fenbendazole

Answer 63

hookworm - intestinal parasite that suck blood and can cause anemia, enteritis, coughing during larval migrans, and dermatitis. Transmitted in utero, during nursing, or via 3rd stage larva penetrating the skin. Can be cause of failure to thrive in puppies.

Answer 64

infection (bacterial, viral, fungal, riskettsial), immune-mediated (lens-induced uveitis), neoplasia, hypertension, and trauma. Over 50% of the time, the cause is not found and the uveitis is termed idiopathic.

Answer 65

mexiletine - oral class I antiarrhythmic well tolerated in dogs