CAOM Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
What is the T10 dermatome associated w/?
A
Umbilicus
2
Q
What spinal segment is related to the sympathetic innervation of the ovaries?
A
T10-11
3
Q
When is the hormone relaxin at the highest concentrations?
A
1st trimester
4
Q
A 47-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a history of dysmenorrhea and heavy flow. On physical examination, it is determined that she has a fibroid tumor and a hysterectomy is recommended. Pre-and postoperatively, where should you look for the viscerosomatic reflex related to pain which of the following areas?
A
T10-L1
5
Q
A 24 year old female at 36 weeks gestation comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain. On structural exam you found L3 F RSr. You decide to perform an indirect myofascial release to help relieve muscle tension before treating the segmental this dysfunction. While you were doing, so you felt an articulation under your hands in the patient tells you that she heard a pop. The case with which this happened may be due to increased levels of?
A
Relaxin
6
Q
On structural examination, you note an ease of translation to the left in flexion at the level of T6. If you were to use muscle energy technique to resolve this dysfunction in what direction would you direct the patient to make their effort?
A
T6 E SRr
They direct their effort towards the Dx
7
Q
Which of the following is true regarding thoracic outlet syndrome?
A
Venous compression is a common problem
8
Q
What is the name of the test in which the patient’s affected arm is abducted while the physician monitors the patient’s pulse and the patient turns their head toward the arm, extends the neck and takes a deep breath?
A
Adson’s test
Looking for thoracic outlet syndrome
9
Q
Where will the T5 spinous process be located?
A
Halfway between the transverse process above in the transverse process below
10
Q
Which spinal segment is most related to somatic or sympathetic dysfunction as seen with pneumonia, COPD or asthma?
A
Thoracic spine, and therefore ribs
11
Q
What is the mechanism by which asthma or COPD cause a flattening of the diaphragm?
A
Air trapping
12
Q
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system serving the lungs will cause?
A
Increased vasoconstriction within the lungs
13
Q
Which of the following muscles is a muscle of inhalation?
A
External intercostals
14
Q
In a patient with migraine, which of the following dysfunctions would be critical to address?
A
Temporal bone dysfunction
15
Q
A 14-year-old female presents to the clinic with decreased stature, bowed legs, and a lack of sexual development. Which cranial area is likely to be affected?
A
Sella turcica
16
Q
The zygomatic bone presented in external rotation is an expected, finding in normal CRI if the sphenoid is in what position?
A
Flexion
17
Q
Which of the following is most likely to play a role in the maintenance of a headache?
A
Facial nerve
18
Q
During the pregnancy, the center of gravity is maintained against the growing abdomen by?
A
Increased lumbar lordosis
19
Q
During pregnancy, it is important to remember that prolonged supination of the pregnant patient’s body can increase the risk of?
A
Compression of the vena cava
20
Q
In pregnancy joint laxity begins during the first trimester due to?
A
Relaxin
21
Q
What test do you use to evaluate for hypertonicity of the psoas muscle?
A
Thomas test
22
Q
The hormone relaxin is at it’s highest levels during what trimester?
A
First trimester
23
Q
If the hormone relaxin is present in excess levels, how can this impact the prolongation of gestation?
A
Increased risk of preterm labor
24
Q
Which hormone helps to increase the glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy?
A
Relaxin
25
Tell me an epidural increase the risk of pubic dysfunction in the postpartum period?
* An epidural will decrease the patient's ability to sense pressure and pain equally across both legs
* This presents the opportunity for a symmetry to occur along the pelvis, due to the flexion required in the McRoberts position
* The flexion can be maintained an unequally as two individuals are required to hold her legs
26
What structures the secrete relaxin?
* Corpus luteum
* Decudua basalis
27
What structures, secrete progesterone?
Corpus luteum
28
{{BLANK}} dysfunctions of the lumbar spine are expected to be seen in a pregnant patient
Extended
29
A {{BLANK}} rotation of the pelvis is expected to be seen in pregnancy.
Anterior
30
Due to the increased load, a pregnant patient will carry what is expected to be seen with their sacrum?
Anterior rotation
31
What type of dysfunction do you expect to see along the cervical spine in a pregnant patient?
Increased kyphosis
32
What nodes are the primary lymphatic drainage points for the breast?
Axillary nodes
33
What are some common contraindications to OMT for a pregnant patient?
* Unexplained vaginal bleeding
* Threatened abortion
* Ectopic pregnancy
* Placenta previa or abrupta
* Preterm labor
* Prolapsed cord
* Eclampsia or severe preeclampsia
34
What are the primary muscles of respiration?
* Intercostal muscles
* Diaphragm
35
What are the secondary muscles of respiration?
* Scalenes
* Pectoralis minor
* Quadratus lumborum (attached via caliper ribs)
* Psoas (attached via MAL)
36
What symptom will patients suffer from with an exhaled rib?
Coughing
37
Inhaled ribs are common of obstructive pathologies regarding the pulmonary system. Name two pathologies in which you will see this occur.
* COPD
* Asthma
38
How can the depth of breathing affect the respiratory circulatory model of OMM?
* Decrease depth of breathing will lead to any Factive movement of fluids in the low pressure, circulatory system
* This results in venous and lymphatic stasis
39
Which thoracic inlet diagnoses can be treated with one step at HVLA?
the ones in which side bending occurs in a different direction than rotation
40
What is a contraindication for the side lying rib raising technique
They shoulder pathology, creating pain or discomfort for the patient
41
When you are evaluating a patient in the ER complaining of chest pain, you place one palm on the patient sternum and the other palm along the vertebral bodies of T3 to T7. When you can press slightly, the patient says that their pain level drops from 8/10 to 4/10. This helps to rule out which of the following differential diagnoses?
Myocardial infarction
42
Which muscle is responsible for the depression or opening of the mandible?
Lateral pterygoid
43
What is the most common position of displacement seen in TMJD?
anterior
44
Regarding TMJD what type of risk factors do you see?
**Lifestyle**, e.g., smoking jaw, injury, rheumatoid arthritis, orthodonture, stress, and neck pain
45
A patient comes in complaining of intermittent, sharp electric pains in the forehead and around their eyes. Sometimes this causes tearing in rhinorrhea. What is most likely cause of the symptoms and what nerve is likely the eliciting this response?
* Trigeminal neuralgia
* Ophthalmic branch (V1)
46
The ophthalmic branch of trigeminal enters its position out of the cranium via what hole?
Superior orbital fissure
| Union of sphenoid & frontal bones
47
The maxillary branch of trigeminal reaches its position out of what structure of the cranium?
Foramen rotundum
| Base of greater wing of sphenoid
48
The mandibular branch of trigeminal reaches its position via what structure of the cranium?
Foramen ovale
| Greater wing of sphenoid
49
The facial nerve reaches its position via what hole of the cranium?
Stylomastoid foramen
| Temporal bone between the mastoid and styloid processes
50
The glossopharyngeal nerve reaches its position via what foramen?
Jugular foramen
| Temporal and occiput
51
The glossopharyngeal nerve which exit out of the jugular foramen, can become dysfunctional, resulting in impaired sensation along the tongue. What type of technique treating what structure can relieve this dysfunction?
The V spread technique treating the occipitomastoid suture
52
The hypoglossal nerve exits out of what hole of the cranium?
Foramen magnum
| Occiput
53
The hypoglossal nerve which exit out of the skull via the foramen magnum, can become dysfunctional, which would impair the motor function of the tongue. What type of technique do you propose to treat this dysfunction?
Condylar decompression
54
The trapezius muscle will have what effect on the occiput?
Pull inferolaterally
55
The trapezius will have what effect on normal extension or flexion of the SBS?
* restricts normal extension
* stuck in flexion
56
The sternocleidomastoid will have what effect on the temporal bone?
Restricts motion
57
The sternocleidomastoid will have what effect on the SBS regarding extension and flexion?
* Restricts extension
* Favors flexion
58
The suboccipital triangle will have affect on the SBS regarding extension and flexion?
* Restricts extension.
* Favors flexion
59
The anterior cervical musculature, e.g., the longus capitis, and longus Colli will have what effect on the SBS regarding flexion and extension?
* Restricts flexion.
* Favors extension
60
You're observing a preceptor form a cranial technique. They say they chose this technique because the CRI was **sluggish** and felt some areas of **congestion** in the cranium. They placed a **thumb in an X pattern** and gently rest the cranium on these two fingers. You know that this is above the area you would find the lambda.
What is the likely suture being influenced?
What is the name of this technique?
* Sagittal sinus.
* Dural venous sinus drainage
61
What is the indication for the CV4 technique?
Diminished CRI
62
What is the indication for the dural venous sinus drainage technique?
* Sluggish fill of the CRI and cranium.
* General patient malaise
63
What is the indication for the parietal lift technique?
* Sinus congestion.
* Restriction of the squamous suture
64
What is the indication for the V spread technique?
Specific suture restriction
65
What is the orientation of the superior facets of the T-spine?
Backward, upward, lateral (BUL)
66
What is the main motion of the T-spine?
Rotation
67
Scoliotic curvature of the T-spine is named for what?
The convexity
| E.g., if the convexity is on the right = dextroscoliosis
68
The thoracic inlet is made up of what structures?
* T1
* 1st rib.
* Manubrium
69
What test is used to determine if a patient has scoliosis?
The Adams test
70
What is the "Rule of 3s"?
* T1-3: TP @ same level of SP
* T4-6: TP 1/2 segment above SP
* T7-9: TP 1 segment above SP
* T10: TP 1 segment above SP
* T11: TP 1/2 segment above SP
* T12: TP @ same level of SP
71
Regarding vertebral attachment to ribs, a vertebra is attached to the same # rib and to the one directly {{BLANK}}
To the same # rib, and to the one below
72
SANS for the **Head** and **Neck** originates from?
T1-4
73
PANS for the **Head** and **Neck** originates from?
CN III, VII, IX, X
74
SANS for the **Heart** originates from?
T1-5
75
PANS for the **heart** originates from?
Vagus N
76
SANS for the **lungs** originates from?
T1-6
77
PANS for the **lungs** originates from?
Vagus N
78
SANS for the **kidneys** originates from?
T10-11
| K 2U TOUF
79
SANS for the **upper 2/3 of ureters** originates from?
T10-11
| K 2U TOUF
80
SANS for the **testes** and **ovaries** originates from?
T10-11
| K 2U TOUF
81
SANS for the **upper fallopian tubes** originates from?
T10-11
| K 2U TOUF
82
PANS for the **kidneys, upper 2/3 of ureters, testes/ovaries, upper fallopian tubes** originates from?
Vagus nerve
| K 2U TOUF
83
SANS innervation for the **lower 1/3 ureters** originates from?
T12-L2
| L1U B LF UPET
84
PANS innervation for the **lower 1/3 ureters, bladder, lower fallopian tubes, uterus/prostate, and erectile tissue** originates from?
S2-4
| L1U B LF UPET
85
SANS innervation for the **bladder** originates from?
T12-L2
| L1U B LF UPET
86
SANS innervation for the **lower fallopian tubes** originates from?
T12-L2
| L1U B LF UPET
87
SANS innervation of the **uterus/prostate** originates from?
T12-L2
| L1U B LF UPET
88
SANS innervation of the **erectile tissue** originates from?
T12-L2
| L1U B LF UPET
89
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **prostate** and **broad ligament**?
Lateral iliotibial bands
90
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **prostate** and the **broad ligament**?
PSIS
91
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **uterus**?
Inferior pubic rami
92
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **uterus**?
L5 TPs
93
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **urethra** and **ovaries**?
Pubic tubercles
94
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **urethra**?
L3 TPs
95
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **ovaries**?
T10 TPs
96
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **bladder**?
Periumbilical
97
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **bladder**?
L2 TPs
98
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **kidneys**?
1 inch lateral, and 1 inch superior to the umbilicus
99
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **kidneys**?
L1 TPs
100
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **lower lungs**?
Medial 4th ICS
101
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **lower lungs**?
T4 TPs
102
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **upper lungs**?
Medial 3rd ICS
103
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **upper lungs**?
T3 TPs
104
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **bronchus, esophagus, thyroid, and heart**?
Medial 2nd ICS
105
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **bronchus, esophagus, thyroid, and heart**?
T2 TPs
106
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **tongue**?
Medial 2nd ribs
107
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **tongue**?
C2 APs
108
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **tonsils**?
middle lateral edge of manubrium
109
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **tonsils**?
C2 APs
110
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **pharynx**?
Superior lateral edge of manubrium
111
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **pharynx**?
C2 APs
112
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **sinuses**?
Medial inferior clavicles
113
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **sinuses**?
C2 APs
114
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **middle ear**?
Medial superior clavicle
115
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **middle ear**?
C1 TPs
116
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **cerebellum**?
Tip of coracoid process
117
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **cerebellum**?
Superior to C1 TPs
118
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **neck**?
Medial superior humerus
119
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **neck**?
C3-7 TPs
120
Where is the anterior Chapman point for the **retina** or **conjunctiva**?
Lateral superior humerus
121
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the **retina** or **conjunctiva**?
**Suboccipital nerve**; level of **mastoid process**
122
What tenderpoint is found at the **sternal notch**? How is it treated?
AT1; flexion
123
What tender point is found at the **middle of the manubrium**? How is it treated?
AT2; flexion
124
What tender points or located midline to the corresponding ribs 3-6? How are they treated?
AT3-6; flexion
125
What tender point is either located at the tip of the xiphoid or a quarter from the xiphoid to the umbilicus displaced 1 to 2 cm laterally? How is this tender point treated?
AT7; F StRa
| Seated; knee under good side
126
What tender point is located halfway from the xiphoid to the umbilicus displaced 2 to 3 cm laterally? How is this tender point treated?
AT8; F StRa
| Seated; knee under good side
127
What tender point is located 3/4 of the way from the xiphoid to the umbilicus displace 2 to 3 cm laterally? How is this tender point treated?
AT9; F StRa
| seated; knee under good side
128
What tenderpoint is found a quarter from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis displaced 2 to 3 cm laterally? How is this tender point treated?
AT10; F StRa
| Supine; good over evil
129
What tenderpoint is found halfway from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis displaced 2 to 3 cm laterally? How is this tenderpoint treated?
AT11; F StRa
| Supine; good over evil
130
What tender point is located along the superior aspect of the iliac crest? How is the tender point treated?
AT12; F StRa
| Supine; good over evil
131
What tender point is found along the T1 and T2 spinous processes? How are they treated?
* PT1-2
* Midline: Extension
* Inferolaterally: E SaRa
| Supine
132
What tender points are found along the thoracic spine vertebrae (spinous processes) levels 3-10? How are they treated?
* PT3-10
* Inferolaterally or Midline: E SaRa
| Prone; lift good shoulder for S & R
133
What tender points are found along the thoracic spine vertebrae levels 1&2 transverse processes? How are these tender points treated?
* PT1-2 TP
* E SaRt
| Supine
134
What tender points are found along the thoracic spine levels 3-10 transverse processes? How are these treated?
* PT3-10 TPs
* E SaRt
| Prone; Put bad arm up to S away
135
What tender points are found along the thoracic spine levels 11-12 transverse processes? How are these treated?
* PT11-12 TPs
* E SaRt
136
In lower crossed syndrome, the pelvis tilt anteriorly, and there's increased lumbar lordosis. What muscles do you expect to be tightened or hypertonic in this syndrome?
* Iliopsoas.
* Rectus femoris
* thoracolumbar extensors
137
In lower crossed syndrome, there is anterior pelvic tilt with increased lumbar lordosis. What muscles do you suspect to be weak in the syndrome?
* Abdominals
* Gluteals (min, max, med)
138
Which suboccipital triangle muscle has a dural attachment and when spasm occurs the underlying "core link" is impeded?
Rectus capitus posterior minor
139
A shifting of the {{BLANK}} suture can mimic ear pain & tinnitus seen in **TMJD**.
Sphenosquamosal (sphenoid & temporal) suture
140
The {{BLANK}} ligament connects from the **malleus** to the **articular disc** and **sphenomandibular ligament** resulting in ear pain associated with TMJD.
Discomallear ligament
| Canal = Huguier's canal; petrotympanic fissure
141
Ribs will articulate with what part of the thoracic spine?
* Vertebral body (above)
* Vertebral body + TP (same #)
142
Ribs 11-12 do not articulate with which part of the thoracic spine?
TPs
143
Rib 1 articulates with only?
T1
144
What are the key points considering acute somatic dysfunction versus chronic somatic dysfunction?
* Acute: Red, Wet, Boggy/Spongy, Tight, sharp, stabbing, throbbing
* Chronic: Cool, thin & dry, stringy/fibrotic, achy, dull, burning
145
What changes do you expect to see of the **pelvic diaphragm** considering pregnancy
* The pelvic diaphragm can be **overstretched and weekend.**
* Can **spasm** secondary to pelvic somatic dysfunction.
* **Strain** and/or **spasm** this muscle can make **delivery difficult and result in tearing** of the perennial area
146
Which ligaments do you test by having the pregnant patient lay supine while flexing their hip and applying axial compression to relieve strain on the joint?
* Sacrospinous
* Sacrotuberous
| As weight increases 20%, strain increase 100% on the SI joint
147
The **Pelvic Diaphragm** made up of the {{BLANK}} muscle and the {{BLANK}} muscle is a common site of lymphatic and venous obstruction. It can become overstretched or weakened during pregnancy.
* Coccygeus
* Levator Ani
148
The {{BLANK}} is a common site of lymphatic and venous obstruction seen in pregnancy. It can suffer from reduced fluid movement but can be treated with doming.
Respiratory diaphragm
149
The {{BLANK}} nerve is also responsible for dural sensory innervation.
Trigeminal nerve
150
A patient has bilateral parasternal chest wall pain that is exacerbated by deep breaths, coughing, and stretching. What do you suspect because if palpation of the costochondral junction produces pain?
Costochondritis
150
What nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?
CN V3 (mandibular)
151
When performing two-step HVLA for thoracic inlet dysfunction in what direction do you apply your force when treating side bending? What about rotation?
* Sidebending: Angle of Louis or ASIS
* Rotation: Axilla
| If one-step: between Angle of Louis & Axilla
