CAPM Practice Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
A
B. Majority.
2
Q
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life
cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
A
D. Repeatedly
3
Q
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
A
A. Accepted deliverables,
4
Q
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
A
C. Project management plan
5
Q
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
A
B. Tornado diagram.
6
Q
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,
managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
A
A. Plan Schedule Management.
7
Q
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
A
A. Deliverables.
8
Q
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
A
A. Performance measurement baseline.
9
Q
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
A
B. Claims administration
10
Q
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
A
C. Analogous
11
Q
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and
high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.
A
B. Project charter.
12
Q
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of
communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
A
D. Push
13
Q
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that
has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
A
C. Positive
14
Q
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons
learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
A
D. Close Procurements
15
Q
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
16
Q
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical
project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
A
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
17
Q
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an
example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
A
B. Effective
18
Q
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
A
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
19
Q
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
A
20
Q
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
A
C. Monitoring and Controlling
21
Q
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
A
D Checksheets
22
Q
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
A
A. Products, services, and improvements.
23
Q
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular
application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though
there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
A
D. Discretionary
24
Q
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete
project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
A
A. Estimate Costs
25
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
A. Liabilities
26
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies
required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
27
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
28
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
D. Project Time Management
29
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable
portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
B. Create VVBS
30
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
D. Communications management plan
31
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
32
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
A. change requests
33
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
A. Business case.
34
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
D. Prototyping.
35
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
C. Affinity diagram
36
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value
are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
B. Analytical techniques.
37
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team.
38
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
C. A stakeholder register.
39
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of
the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
C. transfer
40
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any
decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
B. Tree diagram
41
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
42
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
43
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
44
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project
teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
A. Supportive
45
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
C. The project charter
46
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
A. Initiating
47
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their
active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
A. Power/influence grid
48
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Durations
49
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.
D. Change requests.
50
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis
are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
D. Analytical techniques
51
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
A. Project
52
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
53
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing
changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
B. Control Costs
54
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which
process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A. Identify Risks
55
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
B. Market research
56
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all
activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
57
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
A. Early
58
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
59
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by
or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
60
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life
cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
B. Predictive
61
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be
addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
A. Human resource management plan.
62
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise
are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
B. Business partners.
63
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
64
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are
called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
A. Enterprise environmental factors
65
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
C. Procurement documents.
66
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
C. Plan Scope Management
67
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
A. Scope baseline.
68
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
D. Product analysis
69
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
70
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
A. Mandatory
71
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
A. Procurement statement of work
72
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
73
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
A. Project charter
74
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
75
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
76
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
B. Planning
77
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on
requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
A. Stakeholder register
78
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication
technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
B. Facilitation
79
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or
results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
A. Plan Procurement Management
80
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
C. Closing
81
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into
a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
82
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
A. Projectized
83
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or
rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
C. Change control board
84
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the
project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
85
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required
investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
D. Business case
86
The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
D. Attitude
87
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known
as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
A. Work packages.
88
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
C. Objective
89
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
D. Identify Risks
90
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of
information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
C. Progressive elaboration.
91
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
C. Vendor bid analysis
92
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
93
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
94
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
D. Control Risks
95
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
96
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
C. Analytical techniques
97
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is
completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
C. Close Project or Phase
98
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources
expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
99
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is
provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
C. Work performance information.
100
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
C. Seller proposals.
101
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
D. Project Integration Management
102
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
D. Scope baseline
103
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
104
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
B. Requirements traceability matrix
105
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Plan Human Resource Management
106
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
A. Acceptance criteria.
107
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs
process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
C. Enterprise environmental factors
108
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
109
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties
related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
C. Project charter
110
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
111
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail
depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
D. Rolling wave planning
112
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is
known as:
A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
113
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components
associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
C. Activity attributes
114
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project
objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
D. Plan Risk Responses
115
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
A. Work performance reports.
116
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
117
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
D. Focus group
118
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
A. Planning
119
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the
project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
A. Timing
120
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives
to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile
C. collaborate/problem solve,
121
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk
by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
C. Exploit
122
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be
concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
C. Project environment
123
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
B. Variance analysis.
124
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
A. Change request
125
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system
for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
B. Project documents
126
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
C. Inspection
127
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete
are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
D. Work performance information.
128
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
A. A process improvement plan,
129
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which
Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
B. Project Integration Management
130
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance
measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
A. Cost management plan.
131
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
B. Performance reporting.
132
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
A. Change control tools
133
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
B. Expert judgment
134
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
D. Expert judgment
135
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $175
C. $125
136
EAC Formula
EAC = BAC / CPI
137
Schedule Performance index (SPI)
SPI = EV / PV
138
Planned Value Equation
PV= Planned % Complete
x BAC
139
Earned Value Equation
EV= Actual % Complete
x BAC
140
Cost variance equation
CV = EV - AC
141
Cost Performance Index
CPI = EV / AC
142
Variance at completion
VAC = BAC - EAC
143
144
To-Complete Performance index
TCPI = (BAC – EV) /
(BAC – AC)
145
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur
during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
B. Change log
146
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
A. Executing
147
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
D. A stakeholder register.
148
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
149
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
D. Activity network diagram
150
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
C. Initiating
151
152
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
B. Quality metrics
153
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
A. 10.
154
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
D. Meetings
155
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all
parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
C. Compromise/reconcile
156
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting
relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Plan Human Resource Management
157
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
D. Expert judgment
158
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
159
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
160
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
A. 0.50
161
Question 1 exam topic 2The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
162
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
163
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
A. Customer
164
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed
in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram
D. Scatter diagram
165
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram
A. Control chart
166
Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?
A. Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors
B. Historical information and change control procedures
C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix
D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
167
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables
is called a:
A. triangular distribution
B. tornado diagram
C. beta distribution
D. fishbone diagram
B. tornado diagram
168
Which item is a cost of conformance?
A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap
A. Training
169
Q 9 Exam topic 2 The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
A. 10
170
When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
A. realigned.
B. performed.
C. improved.
D. controlled.
A. realigned.
171
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively;
persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known
as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
C. communication skills
172
Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Close Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
173
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or
a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
C. Discrete
174
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality
process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
A. Verified deliverables.
175
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:
A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.
B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
176
Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
177
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project
deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis
A. Decomposition
178
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
A. work package
179
Question 19 Exam topic 2
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.25
D. 1.8
C. 1.25
180
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on
stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
A. Available organizational assets
181
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
182
The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost
Management?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
D. Determine Budget
183
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for
limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
B. Critical chain method
184
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
B. expert judgment
185
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of
the project's:
A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.
A. Level of control.
186
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting
B. Historical relationships
187
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
C. costs associated with travel
188
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk
Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
189
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
B. Configuration control
190
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the
scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.
D. work performance information.
191
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
B. tolerance
192
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets
C. Project management plan updates
193
A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of
communication?
A. Formal
B. Informal r
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial
B. Informal r
194
Question 34 Exam topic 2
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?
A. 0.83
B. 0.9
C. 1.11
D. 1.33
C. 1.11
195
In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work
habits and behavior to support the team?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming
C. Norming
196
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of
which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
C. Requirements documentation
197
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.
B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
198
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
D. secondary risk
199
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process
should be:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
A. Continuous
200
40. - (Exam Topic 2)
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. expert judgment
B. seller proposals
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
D. the project management plan
201
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can
obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
D. training needs
202
Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Project reports
B. Issue log
C. Lessons learned documentation
D. Work performance information
B. Issue log
203
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which
interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
B. Motivation
204
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying
causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis
D. Root cause analysis
205
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program
C. portfolio
206
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution
of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
B. Inspection and audits
207
Which element does a project charter contain?
A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
C. Stakeholder list
208
Question 48 Exam topic 2
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11
A. 4
209
Question 49 Exam topic 2
The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
D. A-C-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
210
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
A. Collect Requirements
211
Question 51 Exam topic 2
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
C. 5
212
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate
(0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
B. 0.06
213
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to
the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.
C. Control Scope.
214
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate
the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
A. influencing
215
Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and
actual performance?
A. Schedule network analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Alternative analysis
D. Variance analysis
D. Variance analysis
216
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to
apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Charter
217
Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:
A. project management office
B. portfolio manager
C. program manager
D. project manager
D. project manager
218
One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
219
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
D. the project management plan
220
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
D. appetite
221
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
222
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
B. sellers
223
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team
A. Manage Project Team
224
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
C. managing conflicting interests
225
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an
example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
A. lead
226
Question 66 exam topic 2
The following is a network diagram for a project.
How many possible paths are identified for this project?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
B. 4
227
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the
project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
D. Corrective action
228
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.
C. Plan Scope Management.
229
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
C. the project management plan
230
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining
A. tracking
231
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability
and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team.
B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
A. Acquire Project Team.
232
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.
B. In each phase of the project.
233
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
234
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project
performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
A. Earned value management.
235
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
A. tangible
B. targeted
C. organized
D. variable
A. tangible
236
76. - (Exam Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
D. 17
237
The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
238
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
D. Project team members and stakeholders
239
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.
B. work performance information and change requests.
240
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:
A. prototypes
B. requirements
C. analyses
D. benchmarks
B. requirements
241
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action
A. defect repair
242
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's
proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents
requirements?
A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest
A. Technical approach
243
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
244
The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
245
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest
D. Power/influence
A. Salience
246
The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
247
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying
on:
A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Expert judgment
248
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work
breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Affinity diagrams
249
89. - (Exam Topic 2)
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
A. -2,000
B. 0
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
D. 2,000
250
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact
of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
C. mitigate
251
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?
A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts
C. Customers or sponsors
252
92. - (Exam Topic 2)
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project
Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?
A.--2,000
B.-1,000
C.1,000
D.2,000
B.-1,000
253
93. - (Exam Topic 2)
The chart below is an example of a:
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Requirements traceability matrix
254
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects
A. Marketplace conditions
255
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
A. Executing
256
While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to
guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
A. ends.
B. begins.
C. delays.
D. deviates.
A. ends.
257
Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
D. Determine Budget
258
98. - (Exam Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
B. 9
259
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
C. Flowcharts
260
A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external
stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This
could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
A. Quality assurance.
B. A stakeholder management plan.
C. Project team building.
D. Integrated change control.
D. Integrated change control.
261
101. - (Exam Topic 2)
Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
B. Projectized
262
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
A. a Knowledge Area
263
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register
C. stakeholder notifications
264
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
A. Estimate Activity Resources
265
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
266
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
C. Control Risks
267
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
C. Long in duration
268
108. - (Exam Topic 2)
Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
A. Work breakdown structure
269
Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred
logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
270
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
B. source selection criteria
271
An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming.
C. Historical databases.
D. Cost of quality.
D. Cost of quality.
272
A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar.
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).
B. Project organization chart.
273
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time
to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and
followed a:
A. risk management plan
B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan
D. procurement management plan
274
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
C. The change log.
275
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management
process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
C. Requirements documentation
276
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
277
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of
the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
278
Which items are components of a project management plan?
A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix
A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
279
When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis
B. Regression analysis
280
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
281
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs
required to complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
A. Activity cost estimates
282
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
A. Accuracy
283
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive
stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
A. adaptive
284
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
C. Communication models
285
In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating
D. Communicating
286
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary
milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
C. Project charter
287
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
A. Conduct Procurements
288
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.
B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
289
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to
create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
A. improvement
290
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
D. Determine Budget
291
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to
which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
292
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be
resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
293
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and
facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
A. Information management systems
294
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
B. program
295
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
C. Project charter
296
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available.
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise
297
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an
organizational structure with which type of matrix?
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced
D. Balanced
298
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying
on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
D. Influencing
299
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
C. Tolerance
300
