Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

3P > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Treatment for HTN (general drug classess)

A

think “CAT”

Calcium channel blockers
Ace/Arbs
Thiazide diuretics

**Remember – BB not first line, unless another more prominent indications such as afib/angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

White coat hypertension vs Masked HTN

A

WC - BP elevated in presence of medical professional but normal at home

Masked - High BP at home but normal at office

**Ambulatory BP x3months at home, base tx off that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what medication class is chlorthalidone?

A

thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a good 1st choice medication class for HTN?

A

Ace/Arbs

** Unless African American with CKD, then no Ace/Arb since HTN not as driven by RAAS system

** any population = good start low dose amlodipine –> can cause feet swelling

*** can start on thiazide diuretic (chlorthalidone or HCTZ) then if needed can add ace/arb on pill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the ABCDs of HTN?

A 
A = Ace/Arbs
B = Beta blockers 
C = Calcium Channel blockers
D = Diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do we use ace inhibitors for?

A

DM /scleroderma –> protects kidneys

CHF/p MI –> caridoprotective

Young pts (caucasian) w/ HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Beta blockers used for what DDx?

A

CHF/p MI –> improves survival (carvedilol/metoprolol for CHF)

young pts (Caucasian) w/ HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Calcium Channel blockers used in…

A

meds do not improve survival

Useful in AA & elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SE of Ace/Arbs

A

Angioedema –> emergency

Cough (Ace) –> switch to Arb
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia

Creatine increased in renal artery stenosis (contra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SE of Beta blockers

A

bradycardia

Increase lipids/cholesterol
increase depression

worsen asthma/copd –> bronchospasm (contra)

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SE of calcium channel blockers

A

based on category

Dihydropyridines (-pine) nifedipine, amlodipine

  • peripheral vasodilation
  • HR Increases/stays the same (except for amlodipine which decreases HR)

Non-dihydropyridines; diltiazem, verapamil
-reduction in inotrope (reduces contractility of heart) –> decreased HR
usefull in afib RVR

Other SE
edema, constipation, HF (d/t negative inotrope effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SE of Diuretics (loop vs HCTZ)

A

Loop:

  • decreases Ca, K, Na
  • Increase Creatine –> AKI

HCTZ: ascending limb
increases: Ca level serum but decreases Ca excretion, uric acid (worsens gout), lipids, glucose
Decreases: K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ace & Arb MOA

A

MOA: block conversion of angiotensin I -> II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the typical medication suffix for the medication classes ACE/ARBs

A

Ace: “-pril”

ARB: “-sartan”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first choice medication for tx of HTN in pts with DM or renal disease?

A

Ace/Arbs —> Unless in black pts (then 1st line is diuretic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effects for Ace/Arbs

A

Ace — Dry hacking cough 1-2 weeks after tx start –> switch pt to Arb

  • First dose hypotension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Acute renal failure
  • Angioedema

***Do not combine both ACE/ARBS –> increased AE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should you avoid the use of ACE/ARB ?

A

Pregnancy
Renal artery stenosis
Acute renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of a murmur?

A

sound detected when there is turbulent blood flow through the great vessels or across a heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 2 vavles cause nearly all of the trouble in adults?

A

Aortic and mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Amelies 3 rules for murmurs

A
  1. Stenosis vs Regurgitation (where is it heard / check pulse)
  2. Where is it heard the loudest?
  3. Are there associated findings (CP, SOB, cyanosis, exercise intolerance, palpitations, BP, thrill, changes with positioning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Systolic murmurs

Mr. Peyton Manning AS MVP

A

Mr. = Mitral Regurgitation (SOB/ fatigue, HF)

Peyton Manning = Physiologic Murmur (Asymptomatic, can be normal. Kids & young adults)

AS = Aortic stenosis (angina, syncope, HF) 
MVP = Mitral valve prolapse (palpitatiosn, CP, "click"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diastolic Murmurs

Mnemonic: ARMS!

A

All diastolic murmurs are abnormal!

AR = Aortic regurgitation (Angina, syncope, HF) 
MS = Mitral stenosis (Dyspnea, Afib) - can be caused by rheumatic heart disease from strept throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are associated findings with aortic stenosis?

A

“ASC” (Aortic stenosis Complications)

Angina, Synocpe, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1 choice for HTN in pregnancy?

A

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Heart failure (patho)
Not enough forward flow in the heart --> leads to back up and congestion -Kidney function decreases (reduced perfusion) -> activates RAAS & ADH system -> increased fluid retention --> symptoms - Pulm system- congestion affects lungs first --> pulm edema - Liver congestion --> Increased AST/ALT = "nutmeg liver" - Elevated pulm artery pressures - Pedal edema
26
Systole
"Lub" active contraction --> blood pumped to systemic circulation closure of AV valves (3-leaf)
27
Diastole
"dub" Relaxation - blood enters into the heart and fills -minimum arterial pressure exerted during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles Closure of semilunar valves (2-leaf)
28
systolic dysfunction
heart cant contract EF will decrease
29
Diastolic dysfunction (HFpEF)
heart can relax unchanged EF Normal EF -> blood cant get in --> Blood cant get pumped out which preserves EF -Causes: Prolonged HTN --> muscles to thicken preventing relaxation of heart (L ventricular hypertrophy)
30
What is the most important aspect in controlling CVD?
``` Controling LDL (bad cholesterol) VLDL (very bad ) ``` *HDL = good cholesterol
31
what medication class is used to treat hyperlipidemia? examples of "big guns"
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 40-80mg Rosuvastatin (Crestor) 20-40mg ** these decrease LDL by 50%
32
What is the #1 of pathogen of endocarditis? What are the most common causes?
Staph Aureus Causes: skin lesions, IV drug use, Dental work
33
what is endocarditis?
inflammation of the endocardium (inner lining of the heart) affects heart valves - most often Mitral
34
What are Janeway Lesions? what do they indicate?
non-tender small erythematous lesions (macular, papular, or nodular) on the palms indicate infective endocarditis!
35
Pt has chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward... what is a possible DDx?
Endocarditis
36
What is the mechanism of action of Prostaglandin in a pt with transposition of the great vessel?
to produce vasodilation and provide adequate oxygenation **prostaglandin slows down the closing of ductus arteriosus and PFO allowing O2 blood to cross from pulm circulation to systemic circulation through congenital pathway
37
What causes Afib?
Heart failure, Electricity issue, pMI, valve issues
38
how do we treat afib?
ventricular rate control : Betablocker or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker rhythm control with antiarrhythmic drug anticoagulation: warfarin
39
how long does it take proximal afib to terminate?
7 days
40
How is peripheral artery disease (PAD) defined?
Ankle-brachial index (ABI) of <0.90 | compare BP of lower extremity and upper extremity
41
Assessment finding for PAD
- Most asymptomatic - Intermittent Claudication - earliest manifestation. pain in legs with exercise relieves with rest (2-5 mins) . only 10% of pts - pain, ache, cramp of feeling tired in extremity foot, calf, thigh or buttocks with exercise * narrow lumen produces characteristic pain distal to site - lack of hair growth - thickened toenails - diminished pulses - pale, cool extremities - dependent rubor - prolonged cap refill - bruit in abd, fem or popiteal
42
Gold standard for PAD diagnosis
Contrast angiography - highly sensitive also do duplex Us & doppler, ABI
43
Treatment for PAD
Antiplatelet: Petal, Plavix, ASA Pentoxifylline - decreases blood viscosity High intensity statin - atorvastatin, rosuvastatin
44
Varicose Veins physical assessment
Assess by having pt STAND Trendelenburg Maneuver - assess valves of peripheral veins supine leg 90degrees occlude greater saphenous Have pts stand continuing to occlude saphenous for 20 seconds then have pt stand to "map" veins ?
45
Tx for varicose veins
cosmetic laser therapy/abaltion sclerotherapy surgery
46
when starting coumadin, when should you get your first INR based off of known half life?
3 days
47
Missed dose for warfarin.... what are next steps?
<12 hours --> take dose and continue on. INR in 1 week >12 hours = take next dose at time due. Notify MD. INR in 3-7 days
48
What is the antidote for warfarin?
Vitamin K
49
Reversal agents for DOACs (direct oral anticoagulants)
(becoming more prevalent then warfarin, less interaction, but equal therapeutic effect) 1. Andexanet alfa (Andexxa) --> reverses effect of Rivaroxabn (xeralot) & Apixaban (Elliquis) Idarucizumab (Praxbind) --> reverses Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
50
What is the reversal agent of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Med is a Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) Reversal = Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
51
Normal CV changes in pregnancy
- Systemic Vasodilation (Decrease SVR/BP) - Renal vasodilation - increased CO -- may causes systolic flow murmur - Increased total RBC production / Blood volume - Increased HR
52
Stenotic vs Regurgitant valves
stenotic = valves dont OPEN properly Regurgitation = valves dont CLOSE properly
53
Sick sinus syndrome (patho)
destruction of the SA node and changes in the nerves and ganglia SA node doesn't fire to initiate a heartbeat
54
what type of angina involves nocturnal symptoms?
unstable angina symptoms at rest and at night!
55
What causes Prinzmetals angina? aka Variant angina
coronary artery vasospasm occurs in atypical patterns can cause ST elevation
56
Pt experiences chest pressure, heaviness on exertion. what type of angina is this?
Classic/Stable Angina relieved by rest
57
What bacteria is responsible for rheumatic fever
Group A streptococcus
58
What regulates MAP?
Caridac output Systemic vascular resistance central venous pressure (pressure exerted by heart)
59
what are the four defects of tetralogy of Fallot
1. large ventricular septal defect 2. pulmonary stenosis 3. Right ventricular hypertrophy 4. overriding aorta
60
which can cause both a systolic and diastolic timed murmur?
Tricuspid regurgitation - causes blood to flow backward into R atrium when ventricles contract - murmur increases intensity with inspiration
61
Which cardiac rhythm has prolonged QT interval?
Torsades de pointes
62
what organ synthesized triglycerides?
Liver
63
pts with ventricular septal defect have which type of murmur?
Holosystolic heard throughout systole, usually asymptomatic
64
What peptide hormone causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure
Angiotensin
65
T/F Does Raynaud phenomenon cause reactive hyperemia?
True. occurs when blood vessel is constricted for a prolonged period then dilates suddenly producing substantially increased blood flow to the area.
66
What is the name of a condition that is acute, febrile, immune-mediate disease characterized by vasculitis leading to coronary artery aneurysm ?
Kawasaki syndrome
67
when does the ducus arteriosus close?
1-2 days after birth
68
which congenital heart defects result in RIght to LEFT shunting and requires emergency surgical intervention?
Tetralogy of Fallot | Pulmonary Atresia
69
What differentiates unstable angina vs NSTEMI?
elevated troponins NSTEMI - elevated trops present Unstable angina - same symptoms but trops negative
70
what is a cyanotic mixed defect with increased pulm flood flow?
transposition of the great arteries

3P (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions