Cardio Resp GI mix Flashcards

(280 cards)

1
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome- causes?

A

caused by thrombosis of the hepatic vein:

hepatomegaly,

ascites

abdo pain.

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2
Q

liver metastases

A

history of breast cancer and nodular liver on examination

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3
Q

intraperitoneal organs

A

Some Drunk Japs Invented tequila shots
Stomach
Duodenum
Juojenum
Ilium
Transverse Colon
Sigmoid Colon

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4
Q

Coeliac trunk level

A

T12

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5
Q

Left renal artery level

A

L1

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6
Q

Testicular or ovarian arteries level

A

L2

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7
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery

A

L3

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8
Q

Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

A

L4

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9
Q

Hesselbach triangle

M= R
L= I
I= I

A

Medial= Rectus Abdominis
Lateral= Inferior Epigastric Vessels
Inferior= Inguinal ligament

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10
Q

indirect inguinal hernia

A

deep inguinal ring

and

exits the inguinal canal at the superficial inguinal ring

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11
Q

where would you palpate the trachea?

A

Jugular notch at level of T2

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12
Q

Sternal angle at

A

level of 2nd rib// T4 -T5

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13
Q

Xiphoid process at level …

A

T10

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14
Q

Superior & inferior facets

A

articulate with the heads of the ribs

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15
Q

Costal facets
on transverse processes articulate with the tubercles of

A

the
ribs present on T1 T10

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16
Q

Trachea bifurcates to L&R main bronchi at the point of the
carina

A

T4/5

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17
Q

Larynx becomes trachea at level

A

of C6
vertebra

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18
Q

bucket handle

A

External, internal
and innermost intercostal muscles alter thoracic
dimensions

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19
Q

NVB (intercostal
vein, artery, nerve) runs …

A

in the costal groove

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20
Q

‘C3, 4, 5 keeps the …

A

diaphragm alive’

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21
Q

Phrenic nerve fires

A

diaphragm flattens

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22
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity/cytotoxic

A

Generally Autoimmune conditions

IgM IgG

1) haemolytic anaemia

2) thyroid issue

overactivity of the thyroid gland

3) Goodpasture’s syndrome

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23
Q

Type 3/immune complex
hypersensitivity

A

1)Pneumonitis

IgG against inhaled antigens produced immune complexes formation –>
deposition in lung tissue

2) Lupus

3Local deposition of anti nuclear antibodies in complex with released
chromatin –> complement system activation –> inflammation

3)Serum sickness

antibody against foreign serum –> complex formation –> deposition anywhere in
the body (systemic inflammation)

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24
Q

Type 4/cell
mediated/delayed
type hypersensitivity

A

1) TB

2) IBD

  1. Sarcoidosis

T cell responses
against microbiota/self antigens

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25
Pneumothorax
Small <2cm rim of air Large >2cm rim of air (measured at level of hilum)
26
Pneumothorax No SOB and < 2cm
No SOB and < 2cm No treatment as usually spontaneous resolves Follow up in 2 weeks 4 weeks of CXR to see if resolved
26
Primary Pneumothorax SOB or >2cm Secondary Pneumothorax SOB or >2cm with lung disease
Primary SOB or >2cm - Aspiration If aspiration fails twice Chest drain Secondary Chest drain+admit straight up
26
Site of aspiration in tension Ptx
2nd intercostal space mid clavicular line
27
Triangle of safety
*The 5th intercostal space (or the inferior nipple) *The mid axillary line (or the lateral edge of the latissimus dorsi) *The anterior axillary line (or the lateral edge of the pectoris major *Insert just above the rib to avoid NV bundled that runs underneath
28
Excess ADH, name condition:
Condition SIADH (Hyponatremia). Associated: SCLC
28
Small cell lung carcinoma - produces what? leads to what
produce ACTH lead to cushing's
29
Lambert Eaton syndrome (LEAC)
muscle weakness as antibodies against Ca2+ receptors.
30
Horner’s syndrome, which tumour
Pancoast tumour - Miosis = pupil constriction - Ptosis = eyelid drooping - Anhidrosis= lack of sweating
31
Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP), which bacteria
Strep. Pneumonia
32
HAP bac
Gram -VE MRSA H. influenza Klebsiella
33
Aspiration pneumonia which bacteria
enterococcus
34
Atypical pneumonia , what caused it
Birds/ Chlamydia psittaci
35
Pneumocystis jirovecii
GAYS/ FREDDIE MERCURY
36
Legionella
Hot tubs/ Air Con
37
Mycoplasma (3 points) youth
Infects younger people. "Walking pneumonia" Less severe symptoms e.g. dry cough PCR test
38
Mycobaterium tuberculosis bacteria. Cowboy
1) Rod shaped bacteria (bacillus). 2) Strict aerobes (require oxygen). 3_ Has a waxy coating 4) acid fast bacilli
39
Tuberculosis - 4 things about it
1)Granuloma 2) 'Caseous necrosis' / cheesy 3) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. 4) South Asia/South Africa
40
Latent TB, ghost
Ghon Focus
41
Miliary TB
haematogenous spread throughout the body. Potentially life threatening.
42
TB prevention and test
BCG vaccine/ Mantoux test
43
Night sweats Weight loss?
TB
44
Test for TB
Ziehl Neelson stain acid fast bacilli Turns TB bacteria bright red
45
Rifampicin
= red/orange discolouration of secretions like urine and tears (red pissing)
46
Isoniazid
= peripheral tingling hands feet
47
Pyrazinamide tb drug
= hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels) resulting in gout.
48
Ethambutol
= colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.
49
associated with hepatotoxicity? TB drugs
R.I.P
50
Interstitial Lung disease, R or O?
Restrictive: FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - normal or increased
51
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
** Amiodarone ** 1) finger clubbing . 2) Bi basal fine inspiratory crackles, 3) breathlessness 4) dry cough HONEYCOMB
52
HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS Lung which Hypersensitivity, and what type of person gets smashed by this
1) Type 3 Hypersensitivity 2) farmer / birdworker Chronic low dose exposure can lead to a type 4 hypersensitivity transformation
53
Pneumoconioses (J.P)
'Simple' pneumoconiosis = asymptomatic ''egg shell opacification'' appearance on CXR at the lung hila.
54
'Complicated' pneumoconiosis (john prescott)
the same hilar egg shell opacification on CXR, but with symptoms a productive cough and breathlessness. (Unlike other ILD where there is a dry cough, the cough with pneumoconiosis may be productive of sputum/mucus).
55
Sarcoidosis (six)
1. Granulomas 2. (CtX) bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy 3. erythema nodosum 4. lupus pernio 5. Black ladies 6. Raised serum ACE , raised calcium RESTRICTIVE
56
Other extrinsic causes of a restrictive pattern on spirometry
Obesity Kyphosis Neuromuscular disorders
57
The parasympathetic nervous system which causes bronchoconstriction and increases mucus secretion via which receptors?
M3
58
Non Atopic asthma
TH1/ IgG
59
Atopic asthma
1. TH2 Secrete IL4 + IL13 -> B cells -> IgM to IgE 2. Mast cells + eosinophils express receptors for Fc region of IgE 3. release of histamine
60
Chronic asthma
1. Increased smooth muscle Oedema 2. Increased mucus secretion 3. Epithelial damage (exposing sensory nerve endings) 4. Sub epithelial fibrosis
61
Peak Flow test Asthma- Obstructive
FEV1 - significantly reduced
62
1st line Asthma
SABA (Salbutomol)+ ICS (Beclo)
63
2nd line Asthma
SABA Salbutamol + ICS Beclometasone + LABA Salmeterol 1. If no response consider stopping LABA Salmeterol and increase ICS Beclometasone 2.If some response continue LABA Salmeterol and increase ICS Beclometasone
64
3rd line Asthma
Add LTRA eg montelukast or Xanthines eg Theo
65
4th line Asthma
Add oral steroid eg prednisalone and anti IgE Omalizumab anti IL5 ? anti IL4 alpha ?
66
LABA
Salmeterol/ Formoterol 1) Salmeterol Phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP 2) formoterol binds B-2 receptors, leading to an increase in (cAMP) levels, which activates protein kinase A (PKA). PKA then phosphorylates specific proteins, resulting in the relaxation of the smooth muscle in the bronchi and bronchioles.
67
LAMA for COPD
Tiotropuim (M3) Aclindinium Glycopyrronium Blocks acetylcholine, Ach causes smooth muscle contraction in the airways
68
Inhaled ICS
Beclometasone, Budesonide glucocorticoid binds to GRα and enters the nucleus.
69
montelukast
cysLT1 receptors act competitively at the cysLT1 receptor derived from mast cells and infiltrating inflammatory cells cause smooth muscle contraction mucus secretion and oedema antagonist .
70
Beclometasone, Budesonide side affects (ICS, 2nd line part 2)
Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) Dysphonia (hoarse and weak voice)
71
Asthma mnemonic
Acute presentation (O SHITMAn) ● Oxygen (at least 60%) ● Salbutamol (neb) ● Hydrocortisone (IV) OR oral prednisolone ● Ipratropium (neb) ● Theophylline (oral) ● Magnesium sulphate (IV) ● An anesthetist (to intubate)
72
Moderate Asthma attack
PEF = 50-75%
73
Severe Asthma attack
PEF= 33-50% Resp rate above 25 Tachy can't complete sentences
74
Life threatening Asthma
Silent chest, PEF <33%, cyanosis / blue
75
Raised CO2 Ashtma
Near fatal
76
COPD ALPHA WHAT
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
77
CHRONIC BRONCHITIS, secretion of what
hypersecretion of mucus by goblet cells
78
EMPHYSEMA
Inflammation neutrophils release proteases break down elastin walls of alveoli loss of elastic recoil abnormally increased compliance
79
Obstructive lung disease
FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - significanly reduced
80
EXAMPLE 3 O.L.D's
Asthma COPD Bronchiectasis
81
Restrictive lung disease
FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - normal or increased
82
EXAMPLE 3 R.L.D's ,
Pulmonary fibrosis Asbestosis Sarcoidosis
83
HRCT for bronchiectasis screening. how to qualify?
Anyone with more than 3 exacerbations in 6 months should get HRCT for bronchiectasis screening.
84
DLCO decreased or increase in emphysema
decrease
85
COPD home management
Oral prednisolone ● Increase SABA/SAMA ● Antibiotics if evidence of infection
86
COPD hospital Management
Hospital management ISOAP ●Ipratropium ● Salbutamol ●Oxygen (target spO2 88 92% ●Amoxicillin (/doxycycline) ●Prednisolone
87
Virchow’s Triad ChineSe Eat Humans
Hypercoagulable state - malignancy, pregnancy, peripartum period, IBD, thrombophilia, sepsis. Circulatory Stasis - LV dysfunction, immobility or paralysis, venous insufficiency or varicose veins, obesity, pregnancy, venous obstruction from tumour. Endothelial injury - venous disorders, venous valvular damage, trauma, surgery, indwelling catheters
88
PE signs *HTH*
Signs ● Hypoxia ● Tachycardia ● May be hypotensive
89
PE investigation
Wells Score - >4 - do a CTPA. <4 - do a D-Dimer
90
Test for PE x 2
CTPA - can identify a large embolism. V/Q scan sometimes used in pregnant patients
91
PE management
High risk / unstable patient- thrombolysis (alteplase) then DOAC (Riva). Intermediate or low risk / stable patient- DOAC ONLY. Warfarin - not used as much. LMWH - still used in patients with active cancer and PE. NOT TO GIVE WHEN PREGNANT!!
92
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax:
patients without clinically apparent underlying lung disease
93
Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax, complication of which underlying lung disease
Cf,IPF,Marfan syndrome, Ehlers- Danlos syndrome
94
Bronchiolitis, age? and which virus/
Under 18 months tachypnoea RSV Respiratory Syncytial Virus ● poor feeding ● irritating cough / grunting ● apnoea (in small babies)
95
Croup which virus
Symptoms: Parainfluenza virus ● barking cough ● stridor ● difficulty breathing (fast onset) ● described as 'already having a cold' Treatment: ● oral or IM corticosteroids (eg dexamethasone)
96
Cystic Fibrosis, stats, gene , which chromosome, and what key indiciator
1 in 25 CFTR gene chromosome 7. Symptoms: ● salty sweat
97
Tetralogy of Fallot Boot shaped heart
1) VSD 2) RVH 3) Pulmonary stenosis 4)Over riding Aorta
98
Pneumotaxic center
Upper Pons. Fine tunes resp rate
99
Apneustic centre
Lower Pons voluntary promoting inhalation and prolonging inspiratory duration Apneusis= respiratory distress
100
DIVE
Dorsal= Inspiratory Ventral= Expiratory
101
Negative chronotropic effect
Decrease H.R
102
Negative Inotropic effect
Decrease Contractibility
103
Baroreceptors
Aortic Arch + Carotid sinus
104
PR interval
Time period between Atrial and Ventricular Deporisation
105
1st Degree H.B
PR more than 0.2 secs
106
Mobitz type 1 (Wenky's)
Lengthed PR, Missed QRS
107
Mobitz type 2 HB
Fixed PR, missed QRS
108
3rd degree HB
No relationship between PR and QRS
109
Tunica Intima
Endothelial
110
Tunica Media
Smooth
111
Tunica Adventitia
Vasorum, Fibroblast, Collagen
112
ductus arteriosus
Foetal issue. Pulmonary artery to ascending aorta
113
Foramen Ovale
Atrial Septum hole , right to left shunt
114
Life threatening Asthma Co2
PaCo2 5.3 (5.1-5.6)
115
Why stems shows COPD over Asthma,
Productive cough = COPD Dry cough = Asthma
116
Pneumonia sputum?
Yes, green sometimes
117
Montelukast (scary)- what side effect
Nightmares
118
Hyponatremia, which disease
SIADH, SCLC
119
hypersensitivity pneumonitis Fibrosis which zone
Upper
120
location IPF
Lower zone
121
PE signs
SOB,chest pain, Tachy, hypoxia, hypertension
122
bronchiectasis main bug
H. Influenza
123
HRCT in COPD what terms?
3 exacerbations in 6 months
124
Signet ring shows
Bronchiectasis/ Recurrent chest infections
125
Acute Asthma attack, which drug
Hydrocortisone
126
Chronic drug for mainstay Asthma severe
Beclomethasone
127
Mesothelioma signs on xray
Pleural thickening like plaques/ lining lungs
128
SIQIIITIII
negative deflection (S wave) in lead I negative deflection (Q wave) in lead III along with an inverted T wave in lead III.
129
Respiratory Distress syndrome, deficient in what in pre natal
Surfactant deficiency Type 2 pneumocytes. Pre natal.
130
Resp tract, which cells
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
131
What is the alcohol score
CAGE
132
ACE 3 test
cognitive impairement
133
CHA₂DS₂-VASc Score
for Atrial Fibrillation Stroke Risk
134
Farmer lung + Lupus
type 3 hypersensitivity
135
Hyper resonance percussion
Pneumothorax
136
Stony dull percussion
Pleural effusion
137
Pressure gradient in lungs
Transmural
138
Fine expiratory crackles
I.P.F
139
Long Thoratic nerve
Serratus anterior muscle
140
COPD with Pneumonia give which drug never?
NO ICS! beclo
141
Sail Sign xray
Left lower lobe collapse
142
Decrease intra alveolar pressure
Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles of inspiration, When contract, increase lung volume , decrease alveolar pressure
143
Drooling and stridor
Epiglottits
144
External oblique, putting pockets in hands
Inferomedial, external intercostal muscles
145
Haldene effect
O2 binds to haemoglobin, causes decrease affinity of haemoglobin to CO2
146
Product cough, 3 diseases
COPD, Pneumonia , Bronchiectasis (dilation and thickening of the bronchial tubes)
147
Bronchiolitis, which bug
RSV
148
Right lung anatomy 3 parts (holes)
Top= Bronchus Middle = Pulmonary artery Lower= Pulmonary Vein
149
Alveolar surface tension
Attraction between h20 mol and air fluid interface that produces a force which resists stretching of the lungs
150
Bohr effect
o2 Affinity for Haemoglobin decreases as concentration of CO2 / acitidity of blood increases. RIGHT SHIFT in Ox Diss curve
151
The L rule
Shifts to L → Lower oxygen delivery, caused by Low [H+] (alkali solution then) Low pCO2 Low 2,3-DPG Low temperature
152
Epiglottitis, which virus? Croup, which virus?
Epiglottitis -H. influenzae B Croup- Parainfluenza
153
bronchiolitis is caused by ...
RSV
154
Cystic Fibrosis, which chromosome mutation
CFTR gene , chromosome 7
155
COPD leads to increase in which numbers
CD8+ T cells
156
COPD patients have increase eosinophilia .but if they don't
If non-eosinophilic, providing an ICS (beclometasone) can increase the risk of pneumonia
157
Bronchiectasis, which pathogen
h. influenzae is the most common pathogen for infections H.INFLUENZA BABY
158
bronchiectasis treatment
Clarithromycin 25mg OD, + azithromycin 250mg three times a week.
159
Latent TB - which antibiotics
R+I for 3 months or I alone for 6 months.
160
rhinovirus
Common cold
161
dyspnea on exertion, cough, and wheezing restrictive or obstructive?
obstructive lung disease FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced
162
reduced lung volumes, normal breath sounds, and no wheezing
Restrictive lung disease FEV1/FVC ratio Normal /increased
163
ALT double or more AST =
Fatty (check bmi baby) Colin lol
164
AST double or more ALT
= Alcohol cause
165
Sensitivity=
true positives
166
Specificity=
proportion of those who test positive who DO actually have the disease
167
0.6 = exudative which disease
Pneomnoia (most common) TB
168
Unstable angina: rise or no rise troponin
no rise in cardiac troponin levels
169
NSTEMI:
Dynamic changes in cardiac troponin levels (meaning that they are rising over time).
170
STEMI:, troponin levels
significant rise in cardiac troponin levels.
171
mesenteric ischaemia
HR irregularly irregular = AF which basically guarantees mesenteric ischaemia being the answer in MCQs, especially if older + central abdo pain
172
Pernicious anaemia predisposes to ?
gastric carcinoma
173
iSOAP COPD
i - ipratropium s - salbutamol o - oxygen a - amoxicillin p - prednisolone
174
Boyle's law:
If you squeeze a balloon, its volume decreases and the pressure inside increases.
175
LaPlace's law:
relationship between the wall tension, pressure, and radius of a spherical structure (e.g., alveolus).
176
Dalton's law:
Air is a mixture of gases, with nitrogen making up about 78% of the total pressure, oxygen making up about 21%, and other gases making up the remaining 1%.
177
Henry's law:
distribution of gases in the body,
178
Bohr effect:
Oxygen dissociation curve
179
Haldane effect:
when hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen, haemoglobin has a lower affinity for carbon dioxide, so more carbon dioxide can be carried in the blood.
180
Muscarinic receptors in airway smooth muscle, which M2 or M3
M3, airway smooth muscle cause constriction when activated
181
Foetal haemoglobin is comprised of X alpha and Y gamma subunits and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. what are x and y?
2 and 2
182
Neo-adjuvant treatment is given
before surgery to shrink the tumour for surgical removal
183
Adjuvant treatment is given
after surgery, aimed at reducing the risk of recurrence
184
Neoplasia
is new growth which occurs in the absence of a normal stimulus
185
Proto-oncogenes
normal genes that stimulate cell division
186
cancer, these proto-oncogenes are changed to
oncogenes which enable uncontrolled cell proliferation
187
- **Point mutations:**
substitution, deletion or insertion of a single nucleotide base.
188
**Missense mutation:**
results in change of amino acid sequence, can be neutral
189
- **Nonsense mutation:**
creates new stop codon most serious
190
- **Silent mutation:**
no change of amino acid sequence
191
- **Frameshift mutation:**
nucleotides are **added or deleted**, causing a shift in the **reading frame** of the genetic code. This can lead to altered amino acid sequences or premature termination of the protein.
192
holoenzyme possess a co-factor,
which is an associated substance essential for that enzyme’s function.
193
An apoenzyme
has no cofactor
194
Glycogenesis (synthesis of glycogen from glucose)
Glycogen synthase
195
Glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to release glucose), which enzyme
Glycogen phosphorylase
196
Gluconeogenesis (synthesis of glucose within the body from non-carbohydrate precursors)
Fructose 1,6-bisphosphonate
197
Lipogenesis (the metabolic formation of fat)
Glycogen phosphorylase
198
1. The most abundant immunoglobulin found in blood serum
IgG
199
2.Found in breast milk, saliva and tears
IgA
200
3. Mediates type I hypersensitivity reactions
IgE
201
4.Produced first in the adaptive/humoral immune response
IgM
202
5. Responsible for foetal immune protection
IgG
203
Responsible for neonatal immune protection
IgA
204
Dominant in the secondary (memory) immune response
IgG
205
Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with
c-MYC
206
Neuroblastoma is associated with
n-MYC
207
follicular lymphoma with type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
BCL-2
208
pancreatic cancer with
RAS gene
209
chronic myeloid leukaemia
ABL gene
210
Gel and Coomb’s classification
hypersensitivity reactions
211
HPV types
16 and 18
212
Purple cocci in clusters, coagulase positive; identified on nasal swab from asymptomatic patient
Staphylococcus aureus
213
Purple cocci in chains, undergoes ‘green’ haemolysis on blood agar; identified in sputum sample from patient presenting with cough and fever
Streptococcus pneumoniae
214
Large pink bacilli; identified in stool sample from patient presenting with bloody diarrhoea
Escherichia coli
215
Immunoglobulin with a pentameric shape -
IgM
216
kidney-bean shaped nucleus -
Neutrophil
217
Responsible for the destruction of large parasites which cannot be phagocytosed -
Eosinophil
218
HC class II molecules
B Cells, cd4 +
219
activation of the complement system via the classical pathway
IgG
220
Sarcodosis which type?
Type 4
221
If ΔH is negative (exothermic) and ΔS is positive (increase in entropy), what will reaction be?
the reaction will be spontaneous at high temperatures.
222
Cleavage:
The rapid division of the zygote
223
Fertilisation:
sperm+egg= Gamete
224
Gametogenesis:
The process by which haploid gametes (sperm and egg cells) are produced from diploid germ cells through meiosis.
225
Implantation:
blastocyst enters uterus and begins to establish a connection with the mother's blood supply.
226
Gastrulation
embryo folds inward to form a three-layered structure, the gastrula.
227
incidence
New cases of a disease occurring in a population in a defined time period
228
A microbiology film shows circular organisms arranged into lines. Which genus does this organism belong to?
Streptococci lines= Streptococci
229
Rod-shaped organisms which release exotoxins
G Positive Bacili
230
Alpha haemolysis- partial- what colour
Partial- Green
231
beta hemolysis, what colour
Yellow
232
Rolling: who is involved?
White blood cells
233
Margination:
white blood cells move closer to the endothelial cells,
234
Pavementing:
Once the white blood cells have margined, they begin to attach to the endothelial cells and form a layer that looks like pavement stones.
235
Diapedesis:
In the final step, the white blood cells migrate through the vessel wall
236
Fibrous joint:
Sutures between the bones of the skull.
237
Primary cartilaginous joint:
Epiphyseal plates (growth plates) in children/ ribs and the sternum
238
Secondary cartilaginous joint:
Intervertebral discs between the vertebrae/pubic symphysis
239
Hinge type synovial joint:
Elbow joint between the humerus, radius, and ulna
240
Saddle type synovial joint:.
Carpometacarpal / thumb
241
The midgut is supplied by the
superior mesenteric artery
242
foregut supply
supplied by the celiac trunk
243
The hindgut is supplied by the
inferior mesenteric artery
244
The middle colic artery is a branch of the x, and it supplies the y
superior mesenteric artery transverse colon
245
marginal artery of Drummond is formed what by and supplies what
superior and inferior mesenteric artery, it supplies the distal part of the transverse colon and the descending colon
246
Subluxation is
reduced area of contact between articular surfaces
247
Which organism commonly causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, HIV
Pneumocystis jirovecii
248
Small PE , stable
LMWH
249
Normal/Large PE, unstable
thrombolysis (...ASE)+ DOAC i.e. Riva
250
Sarcodosis which type of hypersensitivity?
Type 4
251
Squamous cell carcinoma location
centrally from major bronchi hypercalcaemic
252
The "R" in ROME
If the pCO2 is high, it suggests respiratory acidosis,
253
The "O" in ROME stands for opposite,
if the pH is low (acidotic), the pCO2 is expected to be high, while if the pH is high (alkalotic), the pCO2 is expected to be low.
254
The "M" in ROME stands for metabolic,
If the HCO3- level is low, it suggests metabolic acidosis, while if it is high, it suggests metabolic alkalosis.
255
The "E" in ROME stands for
equal, which means that the pH and HCO3- have a direct relationship. If the pH is low (acidotic), the HCO3- level is expected to be low, while if the pH is high (alkalotic), the HCO3- level is expected to be high.
256
solitary right lung nodule is found adjacent to the right main bronchus.
Scamous cell carcinoma
257
Central lung mass
Small cell lung cancer
258
Basal and subpleural ground glass appearance
IPF
259
Streptococcus pneumoniae, positive or negative? cocci or bacillius?
Gram-positive cocci
260
legionella positive or negative cocci or bacilli
Gram-negative bacilli
261
H. influenzae is a
Gram-negative coccobacillus
262
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found where
respiratory epithelium
263
Skin cells? Old ship
stratified squamous epithelium
264
epithelium cells within the gastrointestinal tract. stomach
simple columnar epithelium
265
Transitional epithelium is also known as. Where?
urothelium and is found in the bladder.
266
Klebsiella pneumonia is in alcoholics with a
redcurrant jelly sputum
267
Mycoplasma pneumonia
young people
268
The middle lobe of the right lung stethoscope, where to hear?
4th and 6th ribs between the mid-clavicular and mid-axillary lines.
269
HBsAg
acute hepatitis B infection/chronic hepatitis B infection
270
HBsAb
sAb=safe
271
SIADH Lung issue, which cancner?
Small Cell Cancer
272
ACTH
Cushing/Lambert Eaton
273
urine antigen test
Legionella pneumophila= legionaire's disease pnemonia
274
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which disease
CF
275
H. influenzae is most common for which chronic disease
COPD exacerbation
276
GI tract- in to out E- everyday L- Lisa Prepares and M- Makes Munich S - Sausages, M- Mash & Peas, A- with Gravy
Epithelium Lamina Propria Muscarlais Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis Propia Adventicia
277
M3 receptors M2 receptors
M3-contraction or constriction of airway smooth muscle in the lungs, M2- relaxation of the airway smooth muscle. This relaxation can help to widen the airways, making it easier to breathe.