cardiology Flashcards

(202 cards)

1
Q

Truncus arteriosus GIVES RISE TO

A

Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

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2
Q

Bulbus cordis GIVES RISE TO

A

Smooth parts (outflow tract) of left and right ventricles

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3
Q

Endocardial cushion GIVES RISE TO

A

Atrial septum, membranous interventricular septum; AV and semilunar valves

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4
Q

Primitive atrium GIVES RISE TO

A

Trabeculated part of left and right atria

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5
Q

Primitive ventricle GIVES RISE TO

A

Trabeculated part of left and right ventricles

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6
Q

Primitive pulmonary vein GIVES RISE TO

A

Smooth part of left atrium

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7
Q

Left horn of sinus venosus GIVES RISE TO

A

Coronary sinus

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8
Q

Right horn of sinus venosus GIVES RISE TO

A

Smooth part of right atrium (sinus venarum)

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9
Q

Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein GIVES RISE TO

A

Superior vena cava (SVC)

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10
Q

First functional organ in vertebrate embryos

A

heart

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11
Q

Primary heart tube loops to establish _____

A

left-right polarity

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12
Q

Cardiac looping begins in week ____ of gestation.

A

week 4

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13
Q

Defect in left-right dynein (involved in L/R asymmetry) can lead to ____

A

dextrocardia

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14
Q

dextrocardia seen in____

A

Kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)

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15
Q

Septum secundum and septum primum fuse to form the___

A

atrial septum

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16
Q

Patent foramen ovale is caused by ____

A

failure of septum primum and septum secundum

to fuse after birth

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17
Q

Patent foramen ovale can lead to

A

paradoxical emboli

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18
Q

abnormalities associated with failure of neural crest cells to migrate:

A

ƒ-Transposition of great vessels.
ƒ -Tetralogy of Fallot.
ƒ -Persistent truncus arteriosus.

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19
Q

Aortic/pulmonary valve derived from ___

A

endocardial cushions of outflow tract

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20
Q

Mitral/tricuspid valve derived from ___

A

fused endocardial cushions of the AV canal.

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21
Q

3 important fetal circulation shunts:

A

1 Ductus venosus
2 Foramen ovale
3 Ductus arteriosus

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22
Q

Blood entering fetus through the___

A

umbilical vein

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23
Q

Blood entering fetus through the umbilical vein is conducted via the _____

A

ductus venosus

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24
Q

Blood entering fetus through the umbilical vein is conducted via the ductus venosus into the ____

A

IVC

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25
Blood entering fetus through the umbilical vein is conducted via the ductus venosus into the IVC, bypassing ____
hepatic circulation
26
Most of the highly oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the ____
IVC
27
Most of the highly oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the IVC is directed through the __
foramen ovale
28
Most of the highly oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the IVC is directed through the foramen ovale and pumped into the ___
aorta
29
Most of the highly oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the IVC is directed through the foramen ovale and pumped into the aorta to supply the ____
head and body
30
Deoxygenated blood from the SVC passes through the RA -> 􏰀RV􏰀 ->____ -> ___ -> ___
main pulmonary artery patent ductus arteriosus descending aorta
31
At birth, infant takes a breath; ___ resistance | in pulmonary vasculature, causing ___ left atrial pressure vs right atrial pressure, causing ____ to close􏰀
↓ ↑ foramen ovale
32
At birth, infant takes a breath... __ O2 (from respiration) and ___ prostaglandins (from placental separation)􏰀 leads to closure of ____
ductus arteriosus
33
Indomethacin helps ___
close PDA
34
remnant of ductus arteriosus)
ligamentum arteriosum
35
Prostaglandins E1 and E2
kEEp PDA open
36
SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by ___
Right coronary artery (RCA)
37
RCA supplies ___
SA and AV nodes
38
Right-dominant circulation %
85%
39
Right-dominant circulation (85%) = PDA arises from __
RCA.
40
Left-dominant circulation ___
(8%)
41
Left-dominant circulation (8%) = PDA arises from ___
Left circumflex coronary artery (LCX)
42
Codominant circulation (7%) = PDA arises from both ____ and ___
LCX and RCA
43
Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in the ___
Left anterior descending | artery (LAD)
44
Coronary blood flow peaks in __
early diastole
45
most posterior part of the heart
left | atrium
46
left atrium enlargement can cause ___ (due to compression of the ___) or ___ (due to compression of the____, a branch of the ___).
dysphagia esophagus hoarseness left recurrent laryngeal nerve vagus
47
Pericardium consists of 3 layers (from outer to inner):
``` 1) Fibrous pericardium ƒ 2) Parietal layer of serous pericardium ƒ 3) Visceral layer of serous pericardium ```
48
Pericardial cavity lies between __ and | __ layers.
parietal visceral
49
stroke volume (SV) × heart rate (HR)
CO
50
Fick principle:
CO = rate of O2 consumption/ | arterial O2 content − venous O2 content
51
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) =
CO × total peripheral resistance (TPR)
52
2 ⁄3 diastolic pressure + 1⁄3 systolic pressure =
MAP
53
Pulse pressure =
systolic pressure – diastolic pressure
54
Pulse pressure is proportional to ___ and inversely proportional to ___
SV arterial compliance
55
proportional to SV, inversely proportional to arterial compliance.
Pulse pressure
56
SV =
= (EDV) − (ESV)
57
During the early stages of exercise, CO is maintained by ___
↑ HR and ↑ SV
58
During the late stages of exercise, CO is maintained by ___
↑ HR only (SV plateaus)
59
Diastole is preferentially shortened with ___ causing ___ filling time leading to ___ 􏰀􏰁(eg, ventricular tachycardia).
↑ 􏰂HR less ↓CO
60
Inc. in pulse pressure is seen in ___
hyperthyroidism aortic regurgitation
61
Dec. pulse pressure is seen in ___
aortic stenosis cardiogenic shock cardiac tamponade HF
62
↑ SV with: "SV CAP"
↑ Contractility (eg, anxiety, exercise) ƒ 􏰂 ↑ Preload (eg, early pregnancy) ↓ ƒ􏰁Afterload
63
Contractility (and SV)􏰂 ↑ with:
Catecholamines increased 􏰂intracellular Ca2+ ↓ extracellular Na+
64
Catecholamines (inhibition of | ___ ) →__ Ca2+ entry into__→Ca2+ induced ___ release)
phospholamban increase sarcoplasmic reticulum􏰀 Ca2+
65
Contractility (and SV)􏰂 ↓ with:
- β1-blockade (􏰁 dec. cAMP) - HF with systolic dysfunction - Acidosis - Hypoxia/hypercapnia - Non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers
66
↑ MyoCARDial O2 demand is􏰂 ↑ by: ƒ 􏰂 __ Contractility ƒ 􏰂 __ Afterload (proportional to ___) ƒ􏰂heart Rate __ ƒ􏰂Diameter of ventricle (􏰂__ wall tension)
↑ Contractility ↓ Afterload arterial pressure ↑ ƒ􏰂Diameter of ventricle ↑ wall tension
67
Preload approximated by ___
ventricular EDV
68
VEnodilators (eg, ___) .... __ preload
nitroglycerin ↓ preload
69
Afterload approximated by ___
MAP
70
LV compensates for􏰂afterload by ___ in order to __ 􏰁wall tension
thickening (hypertrophy) ↓
71
VAsodilators (eg, ___) .... ___ 􏰁Afterload (Arterial).
hydrAlAzine ↓
72
ACE inhibitors and ARBs 􏰁both ____ preload and afterload.
73
Chronic hypertension (􏰂__MAP) leads to ___.
increases 􏰀LV hypertrophy.
74
Left ventricular EF is an index of ____
ventricular contractility
75
normal EF is ___
≥ 55%
76
EF􏰁 ___ in systolic HF. | EF ___ in diastolic HF.
↓ normal
77
Force of contraction is proportional to ___
preload
78
increase 􏰂contractility with ___
- catecholamines | - positive inotropes (eg, digoxin)
79
decrease 􏰂contractility with ___
- loss of myocardium (eg, MI) - β-blockers (acutely) - non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers - dilated cardiomyopathy
80
ΔP =
Q × R a change in pressure in a vessel is equal to flow times resistance this is similar to Ohm's law where a change in voltage is equal to current times resistance: ΔV = IR
81
Volumetric flow rate (Q) =
flow velocity (v) × cross-sectional area (A)
82
Resistance
(driving pressure ΔP) / (flow Q) = 8η (viscosity) x length / (πr4)
83
Total resistance of vessels in series:
RT = R1 + R2 + R3 . . .
84
Total resistance of vessels in parallel:
1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
85
Viscosity depends mostly on ____
hematocrit
86
Viscosity􏰂 increases in ____ states (eg, | _____ ) and _____
``` hyperproteinemic states (eg, multiple myeloma) ``` polycythemia
87
Viscosity decreases 􏰁in ____
anemia
88
Removal of organs in parallel arrangement (eg, ____)􏰀􏰁 = ___TPR and􏰂 ___CO.
nephrectomy ↓ TPR increase CO
89
Pressure gradient drives flow from __ pressure to ___ pressure.
high low
90
____ account for most of TPR.
Arterioles
91
___ provide most of blood storage capacity.
Veins
92
Inotropy curve Effects
Changes in contractility􏰀 → altered CO for a given RA pressure (preload) or EDV.
93
⊕ Intropy
Catecholamines digoxin
94
⊝ Intropy
Uncompensated HF narcotic overdose
95
Venous return curve Effects
Changes in circulating volume or venous tone → 􏰀altered RA pressure for a given CO. Mean systemic pressure (x-intercept) changes with volume/venous tone.
96
⊕ volume, venous tone
Fluid infusion, sympathetic activity
97
⊝ volume, venous tone
Acute hemorrhage spinal anesthesia
98
Total peripheral resistance curve Effects
At a given mean systemic pressure (x-intercept) and RA pressure, changes in TPR􏰀 → altered CO.
99
⊕ TPR
Vasopressors
100
⊝ TPR
Exercise AV shunt
101
exercise: __ 􏰂inotropy and ___ 􏰁TPR to maximize ___
↑ ↓ CO
102
HF: ___ 􏰁inotropy → 􏰀fluid retention to __ preload to maintain ___
↓ ↑ CO
103
fetal erythropoiesis WK 3-10
yolk sac
104
fetal erythropoiesis WK 6-birth
liver
105
fetal erythropoiesis WK 15-30
spleen
106
fetal erythropoiesis WK 22-adult
bone marrow
107
fetal hemoglobin
A2Y2
108
adult hemoglobin
A2B2
109
truncal and bulbar ridges spiral and fuse to form
aorticopulmonary septum
110
___ separates the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
aorticopulmonary septum
111
aorticopulmonary septum formed from ___
cardiac neural crest
112
notocord postanatal called ___
nucleus pulposus
113
foramen ovale postnatal called ____
fossa ovalis
114
period between mitral valve closing and aortic valve opening;
Isovolumetric contraction
115
period between aortic valve opening and closing
Systolic ejection
116
period between aortic valve closing and mitral valve opening
Isovolumetric relaxation
117
period just after mitral valve opening
Rapid filling
118
period just before mitral valve closing
Reduced filling
119
period of highest O2 consumption
Isovolumetric contraction
120
4 phases of cardiac cycle :
1. Isovolumetric contraction 2. Systolic ejection 3. Isovolumetric relaxation 4. Rapid filling 5. Reduced filling
121
mitral and tricuspid valve closure. heart sound?
S1
122
S1 loudest at _____
mitral area
123
S2 Loudest at ____
left upper sternal border.
124
aortic and pulmonary valve closure. heart sound?
S2
125
in early diastole during rapid ventricular | filling phase. heart sound?
S3
126
heart sound associated with􏰂filling pressures (eg, mitral regurgitation, HF) and more common in dilated ventricles (but can be normal in children and young adults).
S3
127
late diastole (“atrial kick”). heart sound?
S4
128
heart sound best heard at apex with patient in left lateral decubitus position.
S4
129
heart sound associated with ventricular noncompliance (eg, hypertrophy). Left atrium must push against stiff LV wall. Consider abnormal, regardless of patient age.
S4
130
[JVP] a wave—
atrial contraction
131
Absent in atrial fibrillation (AF). [JVP]
a wave
132
c wave— [JVP]
``` RV contraction (closed tricuspid valve bulging into atrium). ```
133
x descent— [JVP]
atrial relaxation and downward | displacement of closed tricuspid valve during ventricular contraction.
134
Absent in tricuspid regurgitation. [JVP]
x descent
135
Prominent in tricuspid insufficiency and right HF. [JVP]
x descent
136
v wave— [JVP]
􏰂right atrial pressure due to filling (“villing”) against closed tricuspid valve.
137
y descent— [JVP]
RA emptying into RV
138
Prominent in constrictive pericarditis [JVP]
y descent
139
absent in cardiac tamponade. [JVP]
y descent
140
Continuous machine-like murmur. Loudest at S2. Often due to congenital rubella or prematurity.
Patent ductus arteriosus
141
Best heard at left infraclavicular area.
Patent ductus arteriosus
142
Holosystolic, harsh-sounding murmur. Loudest at tricuspid area.
Ventricular septal defect
143
continuous heart murmur
Patent ductus arteriosus
144
Diastolic heart murmurs:
Aortic regurgitation Mitral stenosis
145
Systolic Heart murmurs:
Aortic stenosis Mitral/tricuspid regurgitation Mitral valve prolapse Ventricular septal defect
146
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur
Aortic stenosis
147
murmur Loudest at heart base; radiates to carotids.
Aortic stenosis
148
murmur with “Pulsus parvus et tardus”—pulses are weak with a delayed peak.
Aortic stenosis
149
murmur Can lead to Syncope, Angina, and Dyspnea on exertion (SAD).
Aortic stenosis
150
Murmur most commonly due to age- related calcification in older patients (> 60 years old) or in younger patients with early-onset calcification of bicuspid aortic valve.
Aortic stenosis
151
Holosystolic, high-pitched “blowing murmur.”
Mitral/tricuspid regurgitation
152
murmur loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla.
Mitral regurgitation
153
murmur is often due to ischemic heart disease (post-MI), MVP, LV dilatation.
Mitral regurgitation
154
murmur loudest at tricuspid area and radiates to right sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
155
murmur commonly caused by RV dilatation.
tricuspid regurgitation
156
Rheumatic fever and infective endocarditis can cause what murmurs?
Mitral regurgitation | tricuspid regurgitation
157
Late systolic crescendo murmur with midsystolic click (MC; due to sudden tensing of chordae tendineae).
Mitral valve prolapse
158
Murmur most frequent valvular lesion.
Mitral valve prolapse
159
Murmur loudest just before S2. Usually benign.
Mitral valve prolapse
160
Murmur best heard over apex.
Mitral valve prolapse
161
murmur can predispose to infective endocarditis.
Mitral valve prolapse
162
murmur can be caused by myxomatous degeneration (1° or 2° to connective tissue disease such as Marfan or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome), rheumatic fever, chordae rupture.
Mitral valve prolapse
163
High-pitched “blowing” early diastolic decrescendo murmur. Long diastolic murmur, hyperdynamic pulse, and head bobbing when severe and chronic. Wide pulse pressure.
Aortic regurgitation
164
murmur often due to aortic root dilation, bicuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, rheumatic fever. Progresses to left HF.
Aortic regurgitation
165
murmur follows opening snap (OS; due to abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole, after rapid opening due to fusion at leaflet tips).
Mitral stenosis
166
murmur with delayed rumbling late diastolic murmur (􏰁interval between S2 and OS correlates with􏰂severity). LA >> LV pressure during diastole.
Mitral stenosis
167
murmur often occurs 2° to rheumatic fever. Chronic MS can result in LA dilatation.
Mitral stenosis
168
rapid upstroke and depolarization—voltage-gated Na+ channels open.
Myocardial action potential Phase 0
169
initial repolarization—inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels. Voltage-gated K+ channels begin to open.
Myocardial action potential Phase 1
170
plateau—Ca2+ influx through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels balances K+ efflux. Ca2+ influx triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum and myocyte contraction.
Myocardial action potential Phase 2
171
rapid repolarization—massive K+ efflux due to opening of voltage-gated slow K+ channels and closure of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
Myocardial action potential Phase 3
172
resting potential—high K+ permeability through K+ channels.
Myocardial action potential Phase 4
173
In contrast to skeletal muscle ...Cardiac muscle: (3 differences)
1. Cardiac muscle action potential has a plateau, which is due to Ca2+ influx and K+ efflux. ƒ 2. Cardiac muscle contraction requires Ca2+ influx from ECF to induce Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum (Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release). ƒ 3. Cardiac myocytes are electrically coupled to each other by gap junctions.
174
Occurs in the SA and AV nodes only
Pacemaker action potential
175
upstroke—opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. Fast voltage-gated Na+ channels are permanently inactivated because of the less negative resting potential of these cells. Results in a slow conduction velocity that is used by the AV node to prolong transmission from the atria to ventricles.
Phase 0
176
what 2 phases are absent in Pacemaker action potential
Phases 1 and 2
177
inactivation of the Ca2+ channels and􏰂activation of K+ channels􏰀􏰂K+ efflux.
Phase 3
178
slow spontaneous diastolic depolarization due to If (“funny current”). If channels responsible for a slow, mixed Na+/K+ inward current; different from Ina in phase 0 of ventricular action potential. Accounts for automaticity of SA and AV nodes.
Phase 4
179
The slope of phase 4 in the SA node determines
HR
180
ACh/adenosine ___ 􏰁the rate of diastolic depolarization and􏰁 ___HR
↓ ↓
181
catecholamines􏰂 ___ depolarization and ___ 􏰂HR
↑ ↑
182
Conduction pathway
SA node → 􏰀atria→ 􏰀AV node→􏰀bundle of His→􏰀right and left bundle branches→􏰀Purkinje fibers→􏰀ventricles
183
SA > AV > bundle of His/ Purkinje/ventricles.
Pacemaker rates
184
Purkinje > atria > ventricles > AV node.
Speed of conduction
185
Long QT interval predisposes to ____
torsades de pointes.
186
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, characterized by shifting sinusoidal waveforms on ECG; can progress to ventricular fibrillation (VF)
torsades de pointes.
187
Torsades de pointes caused by
drugs,􏰁 ↓ K+ ↓ 􏰁Mg2+ congenital abnormalities
188
Torsades de pointes tx
magnesium sulfate
189
Drug-induced long QT (ABCDE):
AntiArrhythmics (class IA, III) AntiBiotics (eg, macrolides) Anti“C”ychotics (eg, haloperidol) AntiDepressants (eg, TCAs) AntiEmetics (eg,ondansetron)
190
Inherited disorder of myocardial repolarization, typically due to ion channel defects
Congenital long QT syndrome
191
􏰂in Congenital long QT syndrome there is ↑ risk of ____ due to torsades de pointes.
sudden cardiac death (SCD)
192
Congenital long QT syndrome 2 types:
Romano-Ward syndrome Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
193
Congenital long QT syndrome type that is "autosomal dominant, pure cardiac phenotype (no deafness)."
Romano-Ward syndrome
194
Congenital long QT syndrome type that is "autosomal recessive, sensorineural deafness."
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
195
Brugada syndrome genetically ___
Autosomal dominant disorder
196
Brugada syndrome most common in ___
Asian males
197
ECG pattern of pseudo-right bundle branch block and ST elevations in V1-V3.􏰂risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias and SCD
Brugada syndrome
198
Prevent SCD with ____
implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
199
Most common type of ventricular pre- excitation syndrome.
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
200
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome ECG findings:
- characteristic delta wave - widened QRS complex - shortened PR interval
201
Abnormal fast accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricle (bundle of Kent) bypasses the rate-slowing AV node􏰀ventricles begin to partially depolarize earlier
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
202
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome- May result in reentry circuit... leading to ___
supraventricular tachycardia.