Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PANRE > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

(61 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What clinical syndrome is characterized by dyspnea, edema, and abnormal retention of water and sodium?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Plain chest film signs of cardiomegaly, pulmonary effusions, and Kerley B lines are consistent with what condition?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common cause of elevated blood pressure?

A

Primary (essential) hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Metabolic syndrome is a major contributor to coronary heart disease and is associated with development of diabetes. What are the criteria?

A 
3 or more of the following:
abdominal obesity (>35" for women and >40 for men)
triglycerides > 150mg/dl
HDL <40 for men and <50 for women
FBG >110
Pre-hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Severe cardiovascular failure caused by poor blood flow or inadequate distribution and delivery of oxygen is generally classified as what?

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This condition, which can be related to reduced cardiac output, low blood volume or medications, is a reversible cause of syncope and a major cause of falls in the elderly.

A

Orthostatic (postural) hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 5 causes of secondary hypertension.

A 
Sleep Apnea
estrogen use
pheochromocytoma
coarctation of the aorta
renal artery stenosis
thyroid/parathyroid disease
Cushings syndrome
chronic steroid therapy
pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common symptom of hypertension?

A

Nonspecific headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two major Duke criteria?

A

Positive blood cultures and

Findings on echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What EKG finding would you expect in a patient with pericarditis?

A

Diffuse ST elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hypertensive crisis encompasses both hypertensive urgency and emergency. Which one is associated with end organ damage?

A

Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common cause of diastolic heart failure?

A

Ventricular hypertrophy (poor filling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medication class is preferred to treat hypertension in a patient with Raynauds?

A

Calcium channel blockers i.e Nifedipine Amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction to isoniazid in the treatment of tuberculosis?
A. glaucoma
B. headache
C. hepatitis
D. hypoglycemia
A

C. Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This chronic inflammatory disorder causes facial flushing in response to heat stimuli, telangiectasias, and has a peak incidence between 40 and 50 years of age.

A

Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What condition is characterized by unregulated release of gastrin resulting in gastric acid hypersecretion? Most patients complain of diarrhea and peptic ulcer disease.

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Upper extremity hypertension with lower blood pressures in the lower extremities would be consistent with what congenital abnormality?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted infection?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What vaccine is contraindicated for pregnant women?

A

Varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A gray pharyngeal pseudomembrane is a classic finding noted with what condition?

A

Diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A false positive VDRL and a positive ANA should lead you to what Rheumatoid condition?

A

SLE (lupus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Female with DM presents with new sxs of sweating, nervousness, irritability, and fatigue. She has had 10 lbs of unexplained weight loss in 4 weeks. What is the most likely cause?

A

Graves Disease (hyperthyroidism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary Carcinoma (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?
Peptic ulcer disease
26
Thrombophilia is a generic term for a disorder causing increased clotting. What is the most common inherited thrombophilia?
Factor V Leiden
27
What is the most common cause of lower GI bleeding?
Diverticular disease
28
This vascular condition is a common complication of Kawasaki's syndrome.
Coronary artery aneurysm
29
At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female without secondary sexual characteristics?
14 years
30
At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female with secondary sexual characteristics?
16 years
31
Where is the most common site of endometriosis?
The ovary
32
32 y/o AA obese female with dysmenorrhea and history of PCOS presents with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Urine hcg is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uterine Fibroids (Leiomyoma)
33
What is the most common gynecological malignancy in the United States?
Endometrial Cancer
34
Pleural plaques noted in the lungs are consistent with what chronic lung disease?
Mesothelioma
35
What disorder commonly presents with optic neuritis, focal weakness, numbness or tingling, balance problems and/or urinary symptoms?
Multiple Sclerosis
36
What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?
MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson's fingers)
37
What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?
MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson's fingers)
38
This condition presents with vertigo, nausea and vomiting without hearing loss or tinnitus. It is related to viral URIs.
Acute labyrinthitis
39
What drug class is the treatment of choice for a patient with BPH and hypertension?
Alpha blockers (-zosin)
40
Rib notching on plain films are pathognomonic for what congenital abnormality?
Coarctation of the aorta
41
What congenital abnormality is most commonly associated with coarctation of the aorta?
Bicuspid aortic valve
42
What is the most common cause of sudden onset of floaters and flashing lights in the eye?
Vitreous hemorrhage or detachment in the posterior compartment of the eye.
43
What is the most common cause of blindness in adults under the age of 60 in the US?
Diabetes Mellitus
44
What is the most common cause of blindness in adults over the age of 60 in the US?
Macular degeneration
45
A continuous, "machinelike" holosystolic and holodiastolic murmur heard best of the left sternal border in a patient that is not cyanotic is consistent with what anomaly?
Patent ductus arterious
46
A mid to late systolic click heard best at the apex is most consistent with what valve abnormality?
Mitral valve prolapse
47
Barretts esophagus can lead to what type of cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
48
Target lesions associated with fever and recent viral infection are consistent with what dermatologic condition?
Erythema Multiforme
49
What category of tumor are the most common malignant heart tumor?
Sarcomas
50
What is the most common form of esophageal neoplasm? This type of cancer affects AAs 3 times as 9ften as Caucasians.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
51
What medication would be indicated for prophylactic therapy in an HIV patient with CD4 counts less than 200?
TMP-SMX Bactrim
52
Which medication used to treat active TB can cause optic neuritis with high doses as well as loss of red-green color perception?
Ethambutol
53
Which three leads on an EKG correspond with the right coronay artery which supplies the SA Node, AV Node, right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle?
II, III, and aVF
54
Which leads on the EKG correspond with the circumflex artery which supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle?
V5, V6, I and aVL
55
What is the most common valvular disorder in the US?
Aortic stenosis
56
What type of medication is most appropriate to treat hypertension in a patient who also has Raynauds?
CCBs Nifedipine, Amlodipine
57
What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia?
B12 and Folate
58
What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Iron deficiency
59
A positive Schillings test and hypersegmented neutrophils are signs of what disorder?
B12 deficiency
60
A patient with abdominal pain and clumsiness also has signs of episodic paralytic ileus and basophilic stippling on a peripheral smear. What is at the top of your differential?
Lead Poisoning (sideroblastic anemia)
61
What is the most common type of breast cancer?
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

PANRE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions