Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

finals > cardiology > Flashcards

cardiology Flashcards

(79 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

describe aortic stenosis

A

ejection systolic murmur radiating to carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe aortic regurgitation

A

high pitch early diastolic murmur best heard with patient sitting forward and breath held at expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe mitral stenosis

A

low pitched mid diastolic murmur best heard with patient lying on left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe mitral regurgitation

A

pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

classic triad of aortic stenosis

A

angina
HF
syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes of Aortic regurg.

A

connective tissue disease
infective endocarditis
ascending aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

causes of aortic stenosis

A

bicuspid valve
calcification
RHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

presentations of mitral stenosis

A

fatigue
AF
pulmonary hypertension resulting in dyspnoea and haemoptysis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which murmurs are associated with LV heave and RV heave respectively

A

aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of STEMI

A

morphine
oxygen
nitrate
aspirin + ticagrelor + unfractionated heparin
PCI within 120 mins, (alteplase within 12 hours if unable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what makes up the tetralogy of fallot

A

ventricular septal defect
right ventricular outflow obstruction
overriding aorta
right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a tet spell

A

an acute hypoxic episode in someone with TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does a tet spell present

A 
abrubt onset of rapid shallow breathing
agitation
increasing cyanosis
LoC
loss of/decreased intensity of murmur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Presentation of TOF

A 
cyanosis
dyspnoea
poor somatic growth
finger clubbing
ejection systolic murmur at upper left sternal border
tet spells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

investigations for Tetralogy of fallot

A

Transthoracic ECHO - RVH, overriding aorta, VSD
colour doppler ECHO - assesses degree of RV obstruction
CXR - boot shaped heart
ECG - right axis deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

management of tet spells

A

manoeuvres that increase venous return (knee to chest, in mothers arms)
oxygen
propranolol
phenylephrine - increases venous resistance -> increases blood to the lungs
bicarbonate if acidotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

management of tetralogy of fallot

A

alprostadil - maintains patency of ductus arteriosus
BT shunt
ECMO
Definitive treatment = complete surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

presentation of transposition of the great arteries

A 
cyanosis
tachypnoea
clubbing
poor weight gain/difficulty feeding
failure to thrive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

investigations of transposition of the great arteries

A

in utero via ultrasound
Transthoracic ECHO
CXR - ‘egg on a string’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

management of transposition of great arteries

A

prostaglandins to maintain ductus arteriosus to allow time for surgery
surgery = arterial switch or atrial switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

presentation of patent ductus arteriosus

A 
tachypnoea/apnoea
widened pulse pressure
gibson murmur (machine like, under left clavicle)
bounding femoral pulse
failure to thrive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

management of patent ductus arteriosus

A

IV indomethacin/ibuprofen - COX inibitors inhibit prostaglandins
surgical ligation
percutaneous catheter device closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

presentation of coarctation or aorta

A

neonates - low Cardiac output, shock, collapse, weak/absent femoral pulses

older children - HTN at young age, UL BP > LL BP, radio-radial delay, radio-femoral delay, systolic ejection murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

associated risk factors for congenital heart disease

A

TOF - Digoerge, Down’s
ASD - maternal alcohol, down’s
VSD - Down’s
patent ductus arteriosus - maternal rubella infection, prematurity
coarctation of aorta - turner’s, DiGeorge’s, bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
define aortic dissection
a separation of the aortic wall causing blood to flow into the new false channel composed of the inner and outer layers of the media
26
presentation of aortic dissection
typically men over 50 (younger in those with predisposing factors such as marfan's, ehlers danlos) sudden tearing chest pain radiating through to the back hemiplegia unequal arm BP acute limb ischaemia
27
investigation for aortic dissection
CT CAP - shows flap of the intima CXR - exclude pneumothorax ECG - exclude MI Hb/G&S/x match
28
management of aortic dissection
noradrenalin oxygen fluids inotropes labetalol - aim for SBP 100-110 (as the walls are already thinned, prevents further dissection and rupture) Add IV nitrates if BB insufficient opioid analgesia endovascular/open stent-graft repair
29
cause of pericarditis
``` viral infection (coxsackie, HIV, VZV) bacterial (pneumonia, TB) MI drugs (penicillin, isoniazid) RA, SLE malignancy ```
30
presentation of pericarditis
central chest pain worse on inspiration and lying flat, relived by sitting forward pericardial rub pericardial effusion
31
symptoms/signs of pericardial effusions
dyspnoea raised JVP bronchial breathing at left base
32
investigations for pericarditis
ECG - concave ST elevation, PR depression FBC, CRP, ESR, troponin, blood cultures, viral serology, TFTs CXR - enlarged globular heart if effusion ECHO - identifies effusion pericardiocentesis if effusion ( culture, ZN stain of TB, cytology)
33
management of pericarditis
pericardiocentesis if large symptomatic effusion/suspicious of tamponade, infection or neoplasia NSAIDs, colchicine
34
define cardiac tamponade
the accumulation of pericardial fluid, blood, pus, or air within the pericardial space that creates an increase in intra-pericardial pressure, restricting cardiac filling and decreasing cardiac output
35
becks triad
triad of falling BP, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds found in cardiac tamponade
36
presentation of a cardiac tamponade
becks triad tachycardia pulsus paradoxus dyspnoea
37
treatment of cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis
38
define constrictive pericarditis
heart becomes encase in a rigid pericardium impeding diastolic filling
39
features of constrictive pericarditis
RHF (raised JVP, hepatomegaly, ascites, peripheral oedema) quite heart sounds CXR - small heart, pericardial calcifications
40
what are the 4 subtypes of cardiomyopathy
hypertrophic dilated restrictive arrhythmogenic right ventricular
41
define hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
LV outflow tract obstruction due to asymmetrical septal hypertrophy
42
presentation of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
angina, dyspnoea, palpitations jerky pulse, double apex beat, harsh systolic ejection murmur ECG - AF, VT, deep q waves
43
management if hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
``` beta blockers/CCB amiodarone (AF, VT) anticoagulation if AF surgical myomectomy implantable defibrillator ```
44
define dilated cardiomyopathy
dilated ventricles results in a weak heart
45
presentation of dilated cardiomyopathy
``` fatigue dyspnoea pulmonary oedeme RVF AF, VT ```
46
management of dilated cardiomyopathy
``` diuretics b-blockers ACEI anticoagulation biventricular pacing/implantable cardioverter transplant ```
47
define restrictive cardiomyopathy
the walls of the heart are rigid (but not thickened) leading to it being unable to stretch and fills poorly
48
presentation of restrictive cardiomyopathy
chest pain dyspnoea palpitations RVF - raised JVP, hepatomegaly, ascites, oedema
49
management of restrictive cardiomyopathy
diuretics | treat underlying cause (amyloidosis, haemochromatosis, sarcoidosis)
50
define arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
progressive replacement of myocardium with fibro-fatty tissue.
51
presentation of arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
palpitations syncope RVF - oedema, fatigue LVF - dyspnoea, orthopnoea
52
management of arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
``` sotalol - BB with class 3 antiarrhythmic properties catheter ablation implantable cardioverter defibrillator ```
53
presentation of right heart failure
``` peripheral oedema ascites hepatomegaly raised JVP GI tract congestion (anorexia, GI upset, wt loss) ```
54
presentation of left heart failure
``` activity intolerance cyanosis dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND cough with frothy sputum third heart sound ```
55
investigations of HF
``` elevated BNP ECHO CXR ECG U&Es, LFTs, TFTs, lipids, glucose ```
56
signs on CXR for HF
``` Alveolar shadowing kerly b lines cardiomegaly upper lobe diversions effusion ```
57
management of acute heart failure
oxygen furosemide IV GTN inotropes if hypotensive (adrenaline, dopamine)
58
pharmacological management of chronic heart failure
beta blocker + ACEI MRA (spironolactone) replace ACEI with sacubitril consider Ivabradine , hydralazine or digoxin
59
Device therapy for HF
if LVEF < 35% implantable cardioverter defibrillator cardiac resynchronisation therapy - biventricular pacing others intra-aortic balloon pump ventricular assist devices (LAD) ECMO (used will waiting for transplant/implantation of LAD)
60
presentation of AF
``` palpitations irregularly irregular pulse dizziness dyspnoea murmurs - ?underlying valve disease ```
61
ECG findings in AF
absent p waves varying fibrillatory waves irregularly irregular QRS complexes
62
investigations for AF
``` ECG TFTs CXR - HF, pneumonia ECHO - valve disease troponin - MI ```
63
management of AF
``` rate control (bisoprolol or verapamil) anticoagulation (enoxaparin + warfarin) rhythm control ( flecainide, amiodarone) ```
64
risk factors for AF
``` valve disease heart failure hypertension hyperthyroidism COPD AKI/dehydration pneumonia ```
65
ECG of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (AVNRT)
absent p waves narrow complex tachycardia rate usually >180
66
Management of PSVT
vagal manoeuvres adenosine (up to three boluses) - verapamil if contraindicated (asthma) DC cardiovert if adverse features (shock, syncope, ischaemia, HF)
67
ECG of ventricular tachycardia
broad complex tachycardia regular rhythm usually > 120bpm
68
management of VT
amiodarone if stable | if not synchronised DC cardioversion
69
causes of VT
post MI cardiomyopathy myocarditis congenital heart disease
70
ECG of torsades de pointes
varying amplitudes/shape of QRS complexes | HR around 200bpm
71
management of torsades de pointes
IV magnesium | synchronised DC cardioversion
72
describe second degree heart block mobitz type 1
Gradually prolonged PR interval before dropping QRS complex
73
describe second degree heart block mobitz type 2
prolonged but regular PR intervals followed by a random dropped beat
74
describe first degree heart block
prolonged PR interval (>200ms)
75
describe 3rd degree heart block
complete dissociation between p waves and QRS complexes
76
management of fist degree heart block
monitor | withhold causative medications if possible
77
management of mobitz type 1
IV atropine
78
management of mobitz type 2
implanted pacemaker
79
management of complete heart block
IV atropine - can repeat up to 3 times inotropic support - IV adrenaline Pacemake

finals (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions