Cardiovascular Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

MC underlying pathology of aortic dissection

A

chronic HTN –> separation of the intima and media and creation of a false lume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

classic presentation of aortic dissection

A

> 60 years of age and presents with sudden onset of severe, sharp, and tearing chest or back pain
pulse or blood pressure asymmetry between limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stanford systemic classification of aortic dissection

A

Stanford type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, and Stanford type B dissections do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

differences btwn type A and B dissections

A

Stanford type A dissections - occur proximal to the subclavian artery; more likely to present with chest pain radiating to the back or syncope; hypotension

Stanford type B dissections - occur distal to the subclavian artery; more likely to present with abdominal or back pain; HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Common chest XR findings for aortic dissection

A

widened mediastinum (> 8 cm at the aortic knob)
abnormal aortic or cardiac contour
displaced intimal calcification
widened right paratracheal stripe (≥ 5 mm)
tracheal deviation (usually rightward)
opacified aortopulmonary window
pleural effusion (usually left-sided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the best diagnostic study for aortic dissection (esp if hemodynamically stable)

A

CT angiography

  • keep in mind that MRI is gold standard but not normally done-
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

initial management of aortic dissection

A

aggressive reduction of blood pressure with beta-blockers (e.g., labetalol, esmolol) to a systolic blood pressure goal of 100–120 mm Hg
- patients with a history of asthma or bradycardia should be given esmolol to assess for tolerance because esmolol has a shorter half-life than labetalol
-Sodium nitroprusside can also be used to lower BP

morphine for pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which type of aortic dissection requires immediate surgery

A

type A – requires open vascular repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which type of aortic dissection does not require surgery and can be treated with medical management

A

type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three layers of the aorta?

A

Tunica intima
Tunica media
Tunic adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

debakey classification for aortic dissection

A

type 1 (ascending aorta, descending aorta, arch)
type 2 (ascending aorta)
type 3 (descending aorta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Risk factors associated with aortic dissection

A

tobacco use
HTN
hyperlipidemia
atherosclerotic vascular disease
stimulant drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a good test to dx aortic dissection in pts who are hemodynamically unstable

A

transport to operating room

bedside transesophageal echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

A

abnormal dilation of the aorta most commonly occurring between the renal arteries and the iliac bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sx AAA

A

most are asx
when sx - sense of abdominal fullness that may or may not be accompanied by pain. Abdominal pain - located at the hypogastrium and may radiate to the lower back - described as throbbing

triad of abdominal pain, hypotension, and a palpable pulsatile abdominal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PE for AAA

A

Pulsatile mass!!!!

may see grey turner sign or Cullen sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

test of choice to evaluate AAA

A

Abdominal US

gold standard is angiography but is often only used before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

screening for AAA

A

one time US for men 65-75 years who have ever smoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

surveillance for AAA Per the Society for Vascular Surgery

A

aneurysm is greater than 5.5 cm or the aneurysm has grown more than 0.5 cm in 5 months –> surgical repair (endovascular stent-graft placement)

aneurysm is 5.0-5.4 –> repeat US or CT q 6 months

aneurysm is 4.0-4.9 –> repeat US or CT q 12 months

aneurysm is 3.0-3.9 –> repeat US or CT q 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for CA

A

LMWH
Edoxaban, Apixaban, Rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

preferred anticoagulant for liver disease and coagulopathy

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

preferred anticoagulant for kidney disease and renal impairment < 30 mg/mL

A

UFH followed by warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

preferred anticoagulant for coronary artery disease

A

Warfarin
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for dyspepsia or GI bleed

A

Warfarin
Apixaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
preferred anticoagulant for pregnancy
LMWH
26
what is another name for primary upper extremity DVT
Paget-Schroetter syndrome
27
Signs and symptoms of upper extremity DVT
arm pain swelling cyanosis heaviness palpable venous cord
28
tx for upper extremity DVT
NSAIDs (pain) Thrombolytics (alteplase) Anticoagulants (heparin) Venoplasty Compression stocking Limb elevation
29
early clinical signs of arterial occlusion
cold and pale extremity pain out of proportion to exam loss of sensation loss of distal pulse
30
late clinical signs of arterial occlusion
poikilothermia (differences in temperature) loss of motor function
31
what is the MC cause of morbidity from arterial occlusion
limb ischemia
32
what is commonly used to identify emboli in lower extremities
doppler US
33
embolic versus thrombotic occlusions
Embolic occlusions are more likely to present with atrial fibrillation and are associated with more severe complications of limb ischemia (e.g., limb loss, gangrene); abrupt onset Thrombotic occlusions are more likely to present with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia and are associated with a history of claudication; may take hours-days before sx are apparent
34
what is the gold standard test to different btwn thrombotic and embolic occlusions
CT angiogram
35
Arterial occlusion most commonly occurs from
in situ thrombosis from the superficial femoral artery or popliteal artery in the setting of preexisting PAD
36
classic presentation of limb ischemia
the six Ps: pallor, pain, paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness, and poikilothermia
37
How do you know when tissue is viable for thrombotic/embolic occlusion
mild pain capillary refill < 3 seconds normal motor function and sensation audible arterial and venous doppler flow
38
how do you know when tissue is nonviable for thrombotic/embolic occlusion
absent capillary refill profound paralysis or sensory deficits inaudible arterial or venous Doppler pulses
39
tx embolic occlusion
surgical consultation and hourly neurovascular checks are indicated IV fluids analgesics UFH revascularization via thrombectomy or catheter-directed thrombolysis
40
tx nonviable tissue embolic occlusion
amputation
41
Syncope
transient period of loss of consciousness (LOC) caused by inadequate cerebral blood flow that typically lasts 8 to 10 seconds and is self-limited, resolving spontaneously
42
what is the MC cause of syncope
reflex syncope
43
what is reflex syncope
cerebral hypoperfusion secondary to vasodilation or bradycardia
44
what is the MC cause of reflex syncope
vasovagal reactions
45
classic sx of reflex syncope
there is a classical prodrome of symptoms, including nausea, sweating, or feeling hot or cold
46
sx of syncope related to cardiopulmonary dz
sudden onset without prodromal symptoms
47
Orthostatic hypotension
a drop in systolic blood pressure > 20 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure > 10 mm Hg measured with the patient supine, then after standing for 1 to 2 minutes, and again at 4 to 5 minutes
48
what extremities are MC affected in peripheral arterial disease
lower extremities
49
common sx peripheral arterial dz
intermittent claudication, arterial ulcers, tissue ischemia, decreased or absent peripheral pulses, dry, shiny, hairless, atrophic skin, and cool distal extremities pain that worsens with limb elevation if advanced --> pain at rest
50
diagnose peripheral arterial dz
ankle brachial index -- levels < 0.9 are abnormal
51
at what levels on ABI does claudication normally start to occur
Claudication typically occurs with an ankle-brachial index between 0.4 and 0.9
52
at what levels on ABI does rest pain normally start to occur
between 0.2 and 0.4
53
at what levels on ABI does tissue loss start to occur
0 - 0.4
54
wet vs dry gangrene
dry - clear demarcation; usually starts on fingers and toes; hard, dry texture wet - moist, gross swelling, blistering (usually there is bacterial invasion)
55
tx gangrene
dry - surgical revascularization wet - surgical debridement followed by revascularization if no response to revascularization --> amputation
56
describe arterial ulcers
extremely painful deep, "punched out" appearance Granulation tissue is pale in color or necrotic Weak or absent pulses Little to no drainage
57
describe venous ulcers
Larger and less painful worse with extended periods of standing/sitting, better with LE elevation or walking presence of drainage pink/red granulation tissue normal pulses
58
MC cause PAD
atherosclerosis
59
Chronic venous insufficiency
condition in which incompetent valves, particularly in the LE cause venous HTN, edema, fibrosis, and hyperpigmentation
60
The most common presenting symptom of chronic venous insufficiency
progressive pitting edema of the LE
61
mainstay of tx for chronic venous insufficiency
graduation compression stockings
62
if there is occlusion to the distal superficial femoral artery, where would you feel pain
calf
63
varicose veins is caused by
venous insufficiency
64
which vein is most commonly affected in varicose veins
saphenous vein
65
who is more commonly affected by varicose veins: men or women
women
66
remember that sx for varicose veins are the same for chronic venous insufficiency
67
how large are varicose veins
at least 3 mm in diameter
68
why do we get hyperpigmentation in varicose veins and venous insufficiency
deposits of hemosiderin
69
gold standard diagnosis of venous disease
duplex US of saphenous vein
70
duplex US of saphenous vein for dx of venous disease
Normal retrograde flow occurs in 0.5 seconds or less Flow that is greater than 0.5 seconds is indicative of valvular incompetence and venous insufficiency
71
what is the MC valvular disorder in the US
mitral valve regurgitation
72
what is the MC cause of mitral valve regurgitation
mitral valve prolapse
73
murmur associated with mitral regurgitation (what does it sound like)
holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiating to the axilla blowing and high pitched
74
what test is used to confirm mitral valve regurgitation
transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) if insufficient --> ransesophageal echocardiogram (TEE), stress test, or cardiac cath
75
what is the most commonly used preoperative prophylactic measure for atrial fibrillation
beta blockers
76