cardiovascular Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

what is depolariation

A

electrical activation of the cell caused by sodium entering and potassium exiting the cell

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2
Q

what is repolarization

A

cell at resting state caused by sodium exiting and potassium re-entering

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3
Q

what is the effective refractory period

A

the phase where cells depolarize

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4
Q

what is the relative refractory period?

A

the phase where the cell requires more than normal stimulus

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5
Q

what is a cardiac cycle?

A

depends on the heart rate. Diastole, Atrial, and Ventricular systole

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6
Q

what is cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped by ventricles in liters per minute

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7
Q

what is the cardiac output formula?

A

CO = SV x HR

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8
Q

what is stroke volume

A

the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat

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9
Q

what is preload?

A

degree stretch of cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole.
the volume of blood going into the heart.

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10
Q

what is afterload?

A

resistance of ejected blood from ventricles

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11
Q

what is contractility?

A

the ability of a cardiac muscle to shorten in response to electrical impulse

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12
Q

what is BP determined by?

A

determined by heart rate, stroke volume, and total peripheral resistance

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13
Q

why may a patient have hypotension?

A

heart muscles are damaged and unable to pump, severe fluid/blood loss, extreme stress on norepinephrine (the body can’t raise BP)

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14
Q

what is left-sided heart failure?

A

heart muscles weaken -> ineffective heart pump->
Fluid backs up in the left ventricle into the lungs causing low output and affecting the kidneys

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15
Q

what is right-sided heart failure?

A

poor pump goes into the body, nonoxygenated blood causes edema.

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16
Q

what are the symptoms of left-sided heart failure

A

poor circulation, dry/wet cough, dysmetria, fluid in lungs (fine crackles) low O2. Lungs are drowning and can’t breathe underwater. Poor capillary refill. Low urine output. S3 gallop. Blood in sputum. Bounding pulse

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

A

JVD, Bloating (abdomen), edema, weight gain, enlarged liver, bounding pulse

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18
Q

what causes hypertension

A

Increases pressure caused by muscle contraction increases workload on the heart, and thickens heart muscle. Causes headaches

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19
Q

what is perfusion?

A

blood circulation to an organ

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20
Q

what is orthopnea?

A

inability to lay flat

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21
Q

what are ace (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors

A

blocks angiotensin I conversion into angiotensin II. (blocks II on blood vessels) it lowers BP and the strain on the heart. (benazepril, lisinopril)

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22
Q

what are the side effects of ACE?

A

dizziness, dry cough, hyperkalemia, vasodilation/ alteration of blood flow, angioedema

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23
Q

what to assess for ACE?

A

BP

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24
Q

what is an Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)?

A

binds selectively with the angiotensin II receptor in the vascular smooth muscle and adrenal cortex to block vasoconstriction and aldosterone release (decreases BP helps blood flow)

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25
what to assess for ARBS?
BP
26
what are the side effects of ARBS?
Dizziness, low bp, hyperkalemia, angioedema,
27
what are calcium channel blockers?
relax vessels by blocking calcium in the cells of the heart ( norvasc, verapamil)
28
what are the side effects of channel blockers?
low bp, dizziness, headaches, facial flushing
29
what to assess for channel blockers?
BP and apical pulse
30
what are diuretics?
helps rid the body of water which reduces swelling and improves breathing
31
what is furosemide?
potassium wasting, where water and potassium are rid of in the body. can lead to hypokalemia
32
What is spironolactone?
potassium sparring, where potassium can be too much. lead to hyperkalemia
33
what are the side effects of the diuretics
frequent urination, kidney issues, high or low digoxin levels. low or fast heart rates.
34
what to assess for diuretics?
BP, labs,
35
what patients to avoid giving beta blockers?
patients who are prone to hypoglycemia (diabetics) and respiratory problems.
36
what are beta-adrenergic blockers?
blocks the sympathetic nervous system which slows fight/ flight and blocks stress hormones to lower BP.
37
what to assess for beta-adrenergic blockers
check BP and apical pulse
38
what are the side effects of beta-adrenergic blockers
low BP, dizziness, low HR, heart failure,
39
what is cardiac glycoside?
digoxin (0.5-2) increases the force of heart contraction and slows irregular atrial contraction.
40
what to assess for cardiac glycoside?
Apical pulse and labs
41
what are the side effects of cardiac glycoside?
can lead to low HR, nausea, vomiting, vision
42
what are antiplatelets?
help prevent blood clots by loosening platelets
43
what are the side effects of antiplatelets?
can cause bleeding, heartburn, indigestion, headache
44
what to assess for antiplatelets?
BP and labs
45
what is the antidote for warfarin?
vitamin K
46
what is the antidote for heparin?
protamine sulfate
47
what are anticoagulants?
decrease clotting by decreasing platelets and altering clotting
48
what are the side effects of anticoagulants?
bleeding, bruising, low platelets, Rash, stomach upset
49
what is dehiscence?
the closed cut opens up again
50
what is evisceration?
when the inside comes out of body
51
what are the phases of a wound
hemostasis inflammatory proliferation maturation
52
what is hemostasis?
immediate after injury the blood clots, pain, swelling, redness, and heat
53
what is inflammatory?
WBC goes to the wound and macrophages stay. growth factors are released to attract fibroblast
54
what is proliferation?
takes weeks long. New tissue built by fibroblasts and scar tissue created
55
what is maturation?
after 3 weeks collagen is deposited and a white line is formed
56
what is slough?
stringy yellow tissue must use an enzyme to eat it up
57
what is Escher?
black tissue that must be cut out
58
what are the types of wounds?
intentional (surgery) unintentional neuropathic vascular pressure-related open closed acute chronic partial/full/complex thickness
59
what is desiccation?
dehydration
60
what is maceration?
overhydration
61
stages of a pressure injury?
stage 1: nonblanchable of intact skin stage 2: partial thickness skin loss and exposed dermis stage 3: full-thickness skin loss stage 4: full thickness and tissue loss
62