Cardiovascular Flashcards

(162 cards)

1
Q

What bacteria is responsible for rheumatic valve disease?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three leaflets of the aortic valve called?

A

Right
Left
Non-coronary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are three causes of aortic stenosis?

A

Age (wear and tear –> calcification)
Rheumatic valve disease
Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the murmur associated with aortic stenosis

A

Ejection systolic murmur

Radiates to the right upper sternal edge, suprasternal notch and carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the progressive effects of aortic stenosis?

A

Increased LV cavity pressure –> pressure overload –> LV hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A
SOB
Chest pain
Pre-syncope
Syncope
Reduced exercise capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of aortic regurgitation?

A
Degenerative
Rheumatic valve disease
Aortic root dilation
Systemic disease
Endocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give examples of systemic diseases that can result in aortic regurgitation

A

Marfan’s syndrome
Ehler Danlos syndrome
Ankylosing spondylitis
SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the effect of aortic regurgitation?

A
Blood pushed into aorta 
In diastole, the valves are incompetent
Blood flows back into LV 
Volume overloaded 
LV dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of aortic regurgitation?

A

SOB

Reduced exercise capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the prevalence of people having a bicuspid aortic valve rather than a tricuspid aortic valve?

A

1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are people with a bicuspid aortic valve prone to developing?

A

Premature dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the mitral valve

A

Fibrous annulus - this can become dilated which pulls the valve leaflets apart

Anterior and posterior leaflets - anterior do the most work

Chordae tendinae and papillary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the nomenclature of the anterior and posterior leaflets of the mitral valve?

A

A1, A2, A3

P1, P2, P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the major cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the effect of mitral stenosis?

A

Pressure overload
Dilated LA
AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Other than AF, what are the two other potential effects of mitral stenosis?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

Secondary right heart dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of mitral stenosis?

A
SOB
Palpitations
Chest pain
Haemoptysis
Right heart failure symptoms (pitted oedema, ascites etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the effect of mitral regurgitation?

A

Volume overload in both LA and LV
LA and LV dilation
Pulmonary hypertension and secondary right heart dilation
AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the symptoms of mitral regurgitation?

A

SOB
Palpitations
RHF symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is most likely to develop pathology of the pulmonary valve?

A

Children and young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the causes of tricuspid valve pathologies?

A

Pulmonary hypertension
IVDU
Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should valvular disease be assessed?

A
History 
Examination - murmur 
BP
ECG
ECHO - valvular dysfunction
CT 
MRI 
Exercise tolerance test, CPET, Stress ECHO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What medical treatments can be used in the management of valvular disease?

A

Diuretics - reduce overload on heart

Mainly surveillance - watch and wait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the different surgical options for the management of valvular disease?
Valve repair Valve replacement Mechanical Tissue
26
What type of valve replacement requires warfarin?
Mechanical
27
What are the two procedures that can be used in the management of valvular disease?
TAVI (transcatheter aortic valve intervention) | Valvuloplasty
28
When can valvuloplasty be used?
Role in mitral valve disease Mainly young people with RVD Buy time before valve replacement
29
What is the risk of stroke associated with AF?
5-fold increase compared to general population
30
What percentage of the population have AF?
1.5-2% (prevalence is increasing with the ageing population)
31
Give examples of conditions that predispose to or encourage the progression of AF
``` HTN Symptomatic HF Valvular heart disease Cardiomyopathies ASDs Coronary artery disease Thyroid dysfunction Obesity DM COPD Sleep apnoea Chronic renal disease ```
32
What symptoms are associated with AF?
Asymptomatic Palpitation Dyspnoea (rare: chest pain, syncope) May present with the complications of AF (stroke/peripheral emboli)
33
What type of pulse is associated with AF?
Irregularly irregular
34
What are the three types of AF?
Paroxysmal Persistent Permanent
35
Describe paroxysmal AF
Intermittent Starts and stops Can last from 30s to over 24hrs at a time
36
Describe persistent AF
Requires intervention to terminate the arrhythmia (IV antiarrhythmic drug or DC cardioversion)
37
Describe permanent AF
Continually there, won't try to restore sinus rhythm
38
What ECG changes are associated with AF?
Absence of P waves | Irregular QRS complex
39
Describe the ECG changes associated with AF
Atria aren't contracting as a synctium Different cells are contracting at different rates There are multiple entry circuits Ventricles have a variable rate dependent upon which impulses are able to pass through the AV node --> Bundle of His --> activate the ventricles
40
Describe atrial flutter
Re-entry around the tricuspid valve Atria contracting at a rate of 250-300bpm Saw-tooth pattern on ECG
41
On what ECG leads can a saw-tooth pattern be seen during atrial flutter?
Inferior leads II, III and aVF
42
What are the haemodynamic effects of AF and atrial flutter?
Loss of cardiac output Atria are not beating in a coordinated fashion so blood clots may form in the atria --> break off --> thrombus can emboli to the brain, kidneys etc
43
What are the treatment aims in AF?
``` Prevention of stroke Symptom relief Optimum management of concomitant cardiovascular disease Rate control +/- correction of rhythm disturbance ```
44
What are the essential investigations for a patient with AF?
ECG - confirm arrhythmia ECHO - structural heart disease Thyroid function tests LFTs
45
What is the target HR for a patient with AF who is: a) asymptomatic b) symptomatic
Asymptomatic: <110 bpm Symptomatic: <80 bpm
46
If a patient doesn't have cardiac failure, how should their AF be managed?
``` Beta blocker (bisoprolol 2-5-5mg OD or atenolol 25-50mg BD) OR Ca antagonist (verapamil 120-240mg BD) ```
47
What is the second line treatment for a patient with AF who does not have HF?
Digoxin
48
What scoring system can be used to ascertain a patient's risk of having a stroke?
CHA2DS2-VASc | out of 9
49
What are the components of the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system?
``` Congestive heart failure/LV dysfunction HTN Age >/= 75 (2pts) DM Stroke/TIA/thrombo-emobolism (2pts) Valvular disease Age 65-74 Female sex ```
50
What should the INR target be for a patient with AF?
2-3
51
What is the risk of an INR >3?
Increased risk of intracranial bleed
52
What is the risk of an INR <2?
Increased risk of stroke
53
What treatment for AF requires INR measurements?
Warfarin
54
What are the new oral anti-coagulants that can be used in the management of AF?
Dabigatran - thrombin inhibitor Rivaroxaban - factor Xa inhibitor Apixaban - factor Xa inhibitor Edoxaban - factor Xa inhibitor
55
Who should be referred for specialist assessment?
Patients who are symptomatic despite adequate rate control Younger patients <60 Inadequate rate control despite beta-blocker/Ca antagonists + digoxin Structural heart disease on ECHO Co-existing HF
56
How can rhythm control be managed in patients with AF?
Direct current cardioversion Antiarrhythmic drugs Catheter ablation
57
What are class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs?
Na channel blockers (Flecainide 100mg bd Propafenone 150-300mg bd)
58
What are class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs?
K channel blockers --> prolong action potential duration/QT interval Sotalol 80mg bd Amiodarone 200mg OD
59
Give an example of a multichannel blocker that can be used in the management of AF
Dronedarone 400mg bd
60
Which veins can be the trigger of paroxysmal AF?
Pulmonary veins
61
What are the two ways of performing catheter ablation?
Radiofrequency current (burning) Cryo-ablation (freezing)
62
In what patient group is catheter ablation more effective?
Structurally normal hearts | Minimal heart disease
63
In what proportion of patients is catheter ablation curative in: a) paroxysmal AF? b) persistent AF?
Paroxysmal - 65-80% | Persistent - 50-60%
64
Define endocarditis
Inflammation of the endocardium which results in vegetation formation and ultimately damage to the cusps of the valves
65
What are the components of the endocarditis vegetation?
``` Fibrin mesh Platelets White blood cells Red blood cell debris Organisms ```
66
Give some example microorganisms that can cause endocarditis
``` Staph. aureus CoNS Strept. viridans HACEK Coliforms ```
67
Describe HACEK
5 gram negative bacteria which cause endocarditis Relatively rare Culture negative endocarditis
68
What are the three classifications of endocarditis?
1. Native valve endocarditis 2. Endocarditis in IVDUs 3. Prosthetic valve endocarditis
69
What microorganisms commonly cause NVE?
S.viridans (oral flora --> transient bacteraemia caused by brushing teeth --> underlying valve disease) Staphylococcus
70
What microorganisms commonly cause Endocarditis in IVDUs?
S.aureus E.coli Pseudomonas Fungal endocarditis
71
What microorganisms commonly cause PVE?
Staphylococcus endocarditis eps CoNS E.coli Pseudomonas Fungal endocarditis
72
What risk factors are associated with NVE?
Underlying valve abnormalities Aortic stenosis Mitral valve prolapse
73
Describe aortic stenosis
Narrowing of the aortic valve Age-related calcification (50%) Calcification of congenitally abnormal valve (30-40%) Rheumatic fever (10%)
74
Briefly describe how Rheumatic Fever can cause NVE
Group A Strept or Strept. progenes infection Contains streptolysin O toxin Infection from streptococcus pyogenes --> strept. throat Partially or untreated liberates the streptolysin toxin Toxin attracts ASO antibodies Causes destruction of streptolysin toxin Protein of heart valves is similar to that of streptolysin toxin Ab attack the heart valves Stenosis/regurgitation
75
In IVDU endocarditis, what valve is most commonly affected?
Tricuspid
76
Describe the acute clinical features associated with endocarditis
Patient appears very sick Progressive valve destruction and metastatic infection S.aureus and gram negative bacteria
77
Out of all congenital heart defects, what percentage are atrial septal defects?
10%
78
What type of atrial septal defect is the most common, and what does this result in?
Secundum (80%) | Patent foramen ovale
79
What type of ASD results in an atroventricular septal defect?
Primum
80
What is the physiological effect of an ASD?
Abnormal mixing of blood Blood flows path of least resistance (LV --> RV = left-right shunt) Increased volume in RV (blood from RA and from LV) RV dilates to accommodate blood Will eventually fail --> Right Ventricular Failure
81
What symptoms are associated with ASD?
Often asymptomatic Murmur --> ECHO --> diagnosis Stretching of RA --> vulnerable to supraventricular arrhythmias such as AF/atrial flutter (palpitations, SOB, signs of peripheral heart failure) May present with stroke (thrombus passes from RHS - LHS of heart --> carotid arteries --> stroke)
82
If a young person has a stroke, what should they be investigated for?
ASD
83
What are the O2 sats like in a patient with ASD?
Normal
84
What is coarctation of the aorta?
Narrowing of the aorta generally at the site of the ductus arterioles insertion
85
What is the physiological implication of coarctation of the aorta?
LV has to pump harder to force blood through the narrowing LV hypertrophy LVF Collateral vessels may develop to bypass blood flow around the narrowing
86
Describe the presentation of coarctation of the aorta
Severe narrowing --> poor peripheral perfusion (cold feet, claudication, abdominal angina) Symptoms of pre-coarctation HTN (before coarctation, the BP is very high --> headaches and nose bleeds)
87
When performing a CV examination on a patient with coarctation of the aorta, what signs would you expect to see?
Discrepancies in limb BP (lower limb BP is lower than upper limb BP - should. be the other way around) Radio-femoral delay Continuous murmur Normal O2 sats
88
Describe transposition of the great arteries
Aorta and pulmonary arteries switch Aorta comes off RV Pulmonary arteries come off LV
89
What is the physiological effect of transposition of the great arteries?
Two separate circulations - incompatible with life Systemic circulation: Deoxygenated blood --> RA --> RV --> AORTA --> systemic circulation Pulmonary circulation: Oxygenated blood --> LA --> LV --> PULMONARY ARTERIES --> lungs
90
Describe foetal circulation
Receives oxygenated blood from placenta --> IVC --> RA Lungs under-developed therefore high pressure Blood follows path of least resistance --> foramen ovale --> LHS of heart (Some blood may pass into pulmonary circulation but most of this blood will pass into the aorta via the ductus arteriosus)
91
Describe what happens at birth to the components of the foetal circulation
First breath Change in pressure in heart and lungs Within a few hours, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus will close
92
Neonates with transposition of the great arteries depend on what for survival?
Patent ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale
93
In a neonate with transposition of the great arteries, what needs to be administered at the time of birth and why?
IV prostaglandins Maintains patency of the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus - allows mixing of blood - allows time for surgical intervention
94
Describe the surgical intervention for transposition of the great arteries
Historically - atrial switch (baffle connects SVC, IVC and mitral valve to LV --> remove atrial septum = O2 blood ---> atrial septum --> RA --> RV --> aorta --> systemic circulation) Now: arterial switch (cut aorta and pulmonary arteries --> switch them over and reconnect ie pulmonary arteries to RV; aorta to LV)
95
What complications are associated with atrial switch?
RV dilates due to increased blood volume RVF + Tricuspid regurgitation --> compounds RVF
96
What complications are associated with arterial switch?
Pulmonary arteries supplies coronary arteries --> occlusion/stenosis --> MI/sudden death post op
97
What are the components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
1. VSD 2. Overriding aorta 3. Right outflow tract obstruction 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
98
Tetralogy of Fallot is a _____ abnormality
cyanotic
99
How is Tetralogy of Fallot treated?
``` IV prostaglandins to maintain patency BT shunt (improves blood supply to lungs) Complete repair ```
100
What is associated with a patient who has had a BT shunt to treat Teratology of Fallot?
Unrecordable BP in that arm
101
After a complete repair of Teratology of Fallot, what will happen eventually?
Pulmonary regurgitation (needs replacing) Increased pressure in RV --> RV hypertrophy --> RVF Increased pressure in RV is transmitted to RA --> dilatation of RA --> vulnerable to Arrhythmia (AF/atrial flutter)
102
Describe univentricular heart
Only have one functional ventricle
103
What is the most common cause of an univentricular heart?
Tricuspid atresia
104
In treating an univentricular heart, if it is not feasible to produce two ventricles from the ventricle, what circulation needs to be created?
Fontan circulation
105
Describe Fontan circulation
Ventricle is dedicated to systemic circulation | Venous blood supply directly supplies the pulmonary arteries (deoxygenated blood does not pass through the heart)
106
What problems are associated with a Fontan circulation?
Pulmonary circulation is dependent upon sufficient pressure to supply the lungs Univentricle needs to supply enough pressure in order to push the blood into the lungs The lungs need to be at a low pressure (must have low vascular resistance)
107
Describe an aortic stenosis murmur
Low pitch ejection systolic murmur | Aortic area and radiates up into neck
108
Describe an aortic regurgitation murmur
High pitch early diastolic murmur | Left sternal edge with patient sat forward in expiration
109
Describe a mitral stenosis murmur
Low pitch mid systolic murmur | Heard at apex with patient on left side
110
Describe a mitral regurgitation murmur
High pitch pan-systolic murmur | Apex radiating to axilla
111
Describe a tricuspid stenosis murmur
Rare | Diastolic murmur at left sternal edge
112
Describe a tricuspid regurgitation murmur
Soft high pitch pan systolic murmur at left sternal edge | Increases during inspiration
113
Describe a pulmonary stenosis murmur
Soft ejection murmur in pulmonary area
114
Describe a pulmonary regurgitation murmur
Soft early diastolic murmur in pulmonary area
115
Define heart failure
The inability of the heart to keep up to the demands of the body. This is due to inadequate cardiac function due to damage of the heart that prevents it from pumping effectively
116
Give some causes of HF
``` Coronary artery disease HTN Idiopathic Toxins (alcohol, chemo) Valve disease ```
117
Define Ejection Fraction
EF = SV/Total left ventricle volume
118
What are the two classifications of HF depending on EF?
HF-REF: EF = <40% (systolic HF) | HF-PEF: EF= >40% (diastolic HF)
119
Describe HF-REF
Ventricles can't pump blood hard enough during systole More often seen in younger men Associated with coronary aetiology
120
Describe HF-PEF
Not enough blood fills into the ventricles during diastole More often seen in older female patients Associated with a HTN aetiology
121
What are the two types of congestion associated with HF?
Acute (decompensated) | Chronic (congested)
122
Describe Chronic HF
Present for a period of time | May have been acute or may become acute
123
Describe Acute HF
Usually admitted to hospital Worsening of chronic Can be new onset 'de novo'
124
Describe the pathophysiology of HF
The body interprets the reduced cardiac function as a reducing circulating volume Activation of SNS, RAAS, BNP to increase fluid retention Fluid overload --> exacerbates the reduced cardiac function
125
In LVHF, where does the fluid back up and what symptoms does this cause?
Fluid backs up into lungs --> pulmonary HTN and oedema Dysnpnoea Orthopnoea (lying flat --> more venous blood flow into heart --> worsens congestion) Crackles on auscultation
126
What type of pulse may be felt in severe LVHF? What is the mechanism behind this pulse?
Pulsus alternans (alternating strong and weak pulse in the periphery) Reduced EF --> reduced SV --> more blood in ventricle At next systole: Increased myocardium stretch --> increased strength of myocardial contraction --> increased strength of systolic pulse
127
Where does fluid back up into in RVHF and what are the symptoms?
Fluid backs up into body Raised JVP Hepatosplenomegaly Ascites Pitted oedema
128
Why does a new S3 heart sound occur with chronic HF?
Dilation of the ventricles causes remodelling of the atria in order to accommodate the high filling pressure S3 is heard (due to volume overload)
129
What type of tachycardia occurs in advanced HF? And what are the results?
Resting sinus tachycardia (reduced tissue perfusion) ``` Patient is: Cool Pale Cyanotic extremities Diaphoresis (due to hypotension) Narrow pulse pressure (reduced SV) ```
130
Describe the classification of HF
New York Associated Functional Classification Class 1: Symptoms only during extreme exertion Class 2: Symptoms during moderate exertion Class 3: Symptoms during mild exertion Class 4: Symptoms at rest
131
What investigations are required for all patients with HF?
``` Bloods: FBCs, U&Es, Cr, urea, LFTs, urate Natriuretic peptides - BNP ECG ECHO CXR ```
132
Why is BNP important in the investigation of HF?
BNP low = exclude HF | BNP raised = HF possible diagnosis --> ECG + ECHO to confirm
133
What further tests might be required in a patient with HF?
``` Coronary angiography Exercise test Ambulatory ECG monitoring Myocardial biopsy Genetic testing ```
134
Describe the basic treatment algorithm for HF
Beta Blocker + ACEi (ARB if unable to tolerate ACEi) + mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone/epenelone)
135
What specialist meds can a cardiologist start a patient with HF on?
Sacubitril/Valsartan + Beta blocker + mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist
136
What is the aim of treatment in patients with HF?
Increase life expectancy | Reduce rate of hospital admissions
137
Why are ARNI drugs useful in HF management?
Angiotensin receptor neprilysin inhibitor Inhibits breakdown of neprilysin Increases natriuretic peptide Vasodilation, natiuresis, diuresis, inhibition of pathological growth/fibrosis Inhibits AT1 receptor
138
What are the two devices that can be used to increase survival in HF?
Defibs - shock out abnormal heart rhythms | CRT - synchronise the RHS and LHS of heart
139
How is it decided if a patient should either get a Defibs or CRT fitted?
More severe symptoms + narrow QRS --> defib | More severe symptoms + broad QRS --> CRT
140
Describe the MoA of Ivabradine
Inhibits depolarisation of SA node | Decreases rate of hospitalisation
141
Define HTN
Persistent elevation in arterial BP of >140/90mmHg
142
What is the optimum BP?
<120/<80mmHg
143
What is normal BP?
120-129/80-84mmHg
144
What is high-normal BP?
130-139/85-89mmHg
145
What is grade I HTN?
140-159/90-99mmHg
146
What is grade 2 HTN?
160-179/100-109mmHg
147
What is grade 3 HTN?
>/=180 over >/= 100 mmHg
148
What is isolated systemic HTN?
>/= 140/<90 mmHg
149
Give some risk factors for the development of HTN
``` Non-modifiable: Age Gender Ethnicity Genetic factors ``` ``` Modifiable: Diet Physical activity Obesity Alcohol excess Stress ```
150
Give some secondary causes of HTN
Endocrine: phaechromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, thyroid disorders Vascular: coarctation of the aorta Renal: renal artery stenosis Drugs: NSAIDs, herbal remedies, cocaine, exogenous steroid use Other: Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
151
How is HTN diagnosed?
2 readings 5 mins apart/2 separate occasions
152
What out of office BP measurements can be taken?
24hr ambulatory - night-time dippers/non-dippers (non-dippers increased CV risk) Home BP monitoring - 2-3 readings, 2x a day, 4-7 days
153
How does hyperthyroidism affect BP?
Increased SBP
154
How does hypothyroidism affect BP?
Increased DBP
155
How can CV risk be ascertained in patients with HTN?
``` ASSIGN score (>20 = 20% CV risk in 10 years) Q-risk ```
156
What examinations are useful in a patient with HTN?
``` Measure BP in both arms Weight/BMI Xanthelasma Pulses Oedema Rashes Heart - murmur Abdomen - renal masses Vascular bruit - kidneys, carotids Eyes ```
157
What initial investigations should be organised in a patient with HTN?
``` U&Es Glucose/HBA1c Lipid profile TFTs LFTs Urine dipstick ± ACR/PCR 12 lead ECG ```
158
What additional investigations may be useful for a patient with HTN?
``` Renin-aldosterone 24h catecholamines ECHO Renal US MRA renal ```
159
What lifestyle factors can be beneficial in reducing a patient's BP?
``` Increased exercise Reduce Na intake Reduce alcohol intake Smoking cessation DASH diet - more fruit and veg, more wholegrain, less processed food ```
160
What is the target BP in the management of HTN?
<140/90 | <130/80 - if tolerant
161
Describe the treatment algorithm for HTN
<55: ACEi/ARB >55 or black African/Caribbean: Ca channel blocker ACEi/ARB + Ca channel blocker ACEi/ARB + Ca channel blocker + thiazide diuretic Resistent HTN: ACEi/ARB + Ca channel blocker + thiazide diuretic + (diuretic/alpha blocker/beta blocker)
162
What is a side effect of amlodipine?
Ankle swelling