Cardiovascular Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

Basic Anatomy:

Mediastinum

A
- the central compartment of the thoracic cavity
contains:
- heart & its vessels
- esophagus
- trachea
- phrenic n. & cardiac n.
- thoracic duct
- thymus
- lymph nodes of the central chest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Basic Anatomy - pericardium

A

the membrane that encloses the heart and protects it from infection and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Basic Anatomy - epicardium

A

the outermost layer of the heart

also protects from infection and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Basic Anatomy - myocardium

A

cardiac muscle tissue

provides the major pumping force of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic Anatomy - endocardium

A

lines the inner surface of the heart, valves, chordae tendinae, and papillary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Basic Anatomy - tricuspid valve

A
  • R atrium/ventricle

- prevents backflow during ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Basic Anatomy - bicuspid/mitral valve

A
  • L atrium/ventricle

- prevents backflow during ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of pressure system is the R side of the heart?

A

low pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of pressure system is the L side of the heart?

A

high pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What occurs during atrial systole?

A

the period of atrial emptying

includes atrial kick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs during atrial diastole?

A

filling of the atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs during ventricular systole?

A

ventricular contraction

1st reading of BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What occurs during ventricular diastole?

A

filling of the ventricles

2nd reading of BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ejection fraction?

A

the percentage of end diastolic volume ejected during systole
normal: 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the components of the perfusion triangle?

A
  • heart (pump)
  • blood vessels (container)
  • blood (content)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What occurs when the perfusion triangle has a pump dysfunction?

A

CHF

cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What occurs when the perfusion triangle has a container dysfunction?

A

septic shock

anaphylactic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What occurs when the perfusion triangle has a content dysfunction?

A

hypovolemic shock
bleeding
gastric bleeding
cerebral hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What factors may adversely affect cardiac output?

A

preload
Frank-Starling mechanism
afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How might preload adversely affect cardiac output?

A

it effects the amount of tension on ventricular walls before contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How might the Frank-Starling mechanism adversely affect cardiac output?

A

FSM is the length tension relationship that enables ventricular filling and contraction to create an adequate SV
more blood returns during diastole, increased volume –> increased pressure –> more blood ejected during systole
adversely affected by CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How might afterload adversely affect cardiac output?

A

it determines the force against which cardiac muscles must contract

Key factors:

  • vascular compliance
  • vascular resistance (BP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is responsible for cardiac conduction?

A

SA node
PNS
ANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the SA node do?

A

it is the pacemaker of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the normal value for MAP?
at least 75% indicates adequate perfusion
26
What is the normal value for EF?
60%
27
What would an ST depression on an ECG indicate?
ischemia
28
What would ST elevation on an ECG indicate?
MI
29
What would an inverted T wave on an ECG indicate?
MI
30
What would a prominent Q wave on an ECG indicate?
MI
31
What would a wide QRS complex on an ECG indicate?
bundle branch block
32
What is a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?
a rhythm disturbance associated with CVD, drugs, anxiety, exercise, etc... - relatively normal for older adults
33
What is ventricular tachycardia?
HR >100bpm usually a regular rhythm most common after an acute MI
34
What is ventricular fibrillation?
A chaotic rate and rhythm which will lead to death if untreated may need AED to shock the heart back into a regular rhythm
35
What is an AV block?
a rhythm disturbance where electrical conduction from atria to ventricles is partially or completely blocked
36
What causes an AV block?
- age and heart disease - myocarditis - acute infection - MI
37
What is an agonal rhythm?
an irregular HR <20bpm | typically near death
38
What is valvular heart disease?
stenosis, regurgitation, or prolapse affecting one or more of the 4 valves in the heart
39
What is myocardial heart disease?
aka: cardiomyopathy | a disease of the heart muscle tissue
40
What is pericardial heart disease?
aka: pericarditis | affects the pericardium and includes cardiac tamponade
41
What is cardiac tamponade?
a hemorrhage around the heart due to trauma | - causes fluid accumulation which compresses the heart and prevents the ventricles from completely refilling
42
What is associated with cardiac tamponade?
JVD muffled heart sounds narrowing pulse pressure - decreased SBP, increased DBP
43
What is heart failure?
a pump dysfunction that reduces CO
44
What is the most common cause of heart failure?
cardiomyopathy
45
What are the different types of heart failure?
``` Left Right High output Low output Systolic Diastolic ```
46
What is thrombolytic therapy?
an acute management strategy for patients experiencing MI Includes: - fibrin selective agents - fibrin non-selective agents
47
When is thrombolytic therapy indicated?
For: - chest pain suggesting MI - elevated ST segment - bundle branch block
48
What is the timing for thrombolytic therapy?
Varied protocols - some within 3hrs of onset of chest pain - may be within 6-24hrs of onset of symptoms
49
When is thrombolytic therapy contraindicated?
in patients at risk for excessive bleeding
50
What are other considerations for thrombolytic therapy?
it is typically used in conjunction with other medications
51
What is percutaneous revascularization?
a balloon tipped catheter is threaded into an occluded artery and then inflated to make the artery patent once again
52
What are other considerations for percutaneous revascularization?
- An endoluminal stent may be placed to maintain patency | - often an OP procedure
53
What is a Coronary artery bypass graft?
A vascular graft used to revascularize the myocardium when a coronary artery is occluded
54
What are the typical vasculature used for a coronary artery bypass graft?
- saphenous vein - internal mammary artery - radial artery
55
What are the different types of approach for a coronary artery bypass graft?
Standard Approach: - median sternotomy: a transection from sternal notch to xiphoid process Minimally Invasive Approach: - no sternal precautions
56
What are the post-op possibilities for coronary artery bypass graft?
- mediastinal chest tube - external pacemaker - intravascular catheter
57
What are cardiac ablation procedures?
- removal or isolation of ectopic foci in order to reduce rhythm disturbances - also radiofrequency ablation
58
How does radiofrequency ablation work?
uses alternating low and high power frequency to destroy cardiac tissue
59
What is a maze procedure?
used to ablate atrial fibrillation **the leg used for this procedure must remain straight and immobile for 3-4hrs
60
What is cardioversion?
restores normal heart rhythm in tachycardia arrhythmic conditions - includes electric shock and medications
61
What should be monitored for cardioversion?
- activity response with HR and BP | - if a device does rate modulation (and what its upper limit is)
62
What does a cardiac pacemaker implantation do?
provides pacer function to ensure regular heart rhythm
63
What does an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator do?
Manages ventricular arrhythmia by defibrillating the myocardium as needed to restore normal rhythm - delivers a shock if abnormal rhythm is detected - battery powered device under the skin that monitors heart rate
64
What should be considered for automatic implantable cardiac defibrillators?
- not all devices provide rate modulation | - a patient's HR may not change with activity during PT
65
What is a life vest?
a personal external defibrillator worn by patients at high risk of sudden cardiac arrest - includes garment and monitor
66
What is a ventricular assist device (VAD)?
a device used to unload R or L ventricle and support pulmonary/systemic circulation which can be used as terminal treatment
67
What are precautions for VAD?
- know emergency procedures in case of battery failure - maintain patency of drive lines with external pump - monitor hemodynamics
68
What are complications of VAD?
- thrombus formation - CVA - hemorrhage - line infection - renal or hepatic insufficiency
69
What are sternal precautions?
- no UE pushing/pulling - no overhead reaching >90deg - no lifting objects > 10# - no resistive exercises of UE - driving is restricted
70
What is the purpose of sternal precautions?
to reduce the risk for sternal dehiscence
71
How long are sternal precautions?
usually 8 weeks but depends on surgeon
72
What are the risk factors for sternal dehiscence?
``` obesity COPD DM Smoking PVD Repeat thoracotomy Female Pendulous breasts ```
73
What is stable angina
usually predictable, episodic, triggered by physical and/or psychological stressors - occurs with constant frequency over time - not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin
74
What is unstable angina
new onset, occuring at rest or minimal exertion progressive in nature with increased frequency of episodes refractory to previously effective medicine more likely to lead to MI
75
What do you do if a patient reports chest pain?
- stop the activity - let the patient rest in a position of comfort - monitor vital signs (BP, HR, SaO2, RR, telemetry) - use Angina Rating Scale/Canadian Cardiovascular Society classification of angina - determine if pain is cardiogenic vs non-cardiogenic or stable vs unstable - have the patient take nitroglycerin if prescribed - educate patients on stable vs unstable chest pain
76
What types of telemetry are used to monitor patient activity tolerance for cardiac conditions?
``` BP MAP HR RR SaO2 ```
77
What is telemetry used for?
allows for continuous monitoring of HR and rhythm along with respiratory rate
78
How does telemetry work?
- 5 color coded leads placed on chest | - electrical signals are converted to radio waves and allow for central monitoring at a nurse's station
79
What should be considered for telemetry?
- frequently can become "unstuck" with activity - PT activities may alter rate/rhythm (artifacts) - watch the monitor while patient is at rest prior to initiating any activity - may be able to put telemetry on hold or take portable box with pt
80
What are the general guidelines for Rate of Percieved Exertion (RPE)?
intensity is - 5 or less on a 10 point scale OR - 13 or less on a 6-20 point scale
81
What are the MET values for various tasks?
``` Sitting - 1.3 Standing - 1.8 Home activity (folding/putting away laundry) - 2.3 Home activity (moderate cleaning) - 3.5 Brisk walk - 4.3 Yard work - 5.0 Running - 23 ```
82
Describe the Cardiac PT Intervention Guidelines
- Low level or high level - check with nurse before tx and report pt status after tx - tx tailored to what will get that pt out of bed and transitioned to a lower level of care
83
Describe the phases of cardiac interventions
- warm up - conditioning - cool down - education
84
Describe the cardiac intervention warm-up phase
performed at lower level of activity than exercise program
85
Describe the cardiac intervention conditioning phase
functional mobility training and aerobic based conditioning
86
Describe the cardiac intervention cool down phase
may consist of stretching or deep breathing
87
Describe the cardiac intervention patient education phase
promote self-monitoring and symptom recognition, establish safe and sustainable exercise program, lifestyle modifications, medication management
88
Describe the goal of cardiac rehabilitation
- Achieve optimal physical, psychosocial, and functional status within limits of heart disease - establish safe exercise and activity parameters
89
Describe Phase I cardiac rehabilitation
- started as soon as the patient is stable - begins in inpatient (acute care, TCU, subacute, SNF) - GOAL: to tolerate ADLs, walking, climbing stairs - education about risk factors and lifestyle modifications
90
Describe Phase II cardiac rehabilitation
- early OP rehab - usually about 2 weeks after cardiac event - continued patient education - progression of activities and exercise
91
Describe Phase III cardiac rehabilitation
- maintenance and prevention | - usually begins 2-3 months after cardiac event
92
Describe cardiac patient d/c considerations
- prognosis - PLOF - social situation - home set up - equipment
93
What is an appropriate outcome measure for cardiovascular patients?
Marburg Heart Score
94
What is the Marburg Heart Score?
an outcome measure that predicts the likelihood of diagnosis of CAD - includes: - - age 55+ in men/ 65+ in women - - known CAD or cardiovascular disease - - pain not reproducible by palpation - - pain worse with exercise - - patient's assumption that pain is cardiogenic in origin