Cardiovascular Drugs Flashcards

Question

What class of drug is Neostigmine?

Answer 1

Anticholinesterase

Answer 2

Anticholinesterase

Answer 3

MAO inhibitor

Answer 4

Non-selective α-adrenoceptor blocker

Answer 5

Selective α₁-adrenoceptor agonist

Answer 6

Selective α₁-adrenoceptor antagonist

Answer 7

Class 1a antiarrhythmic - (moderate) Na⁺ channel blocker

Answer 8

Injectable anticoagulant

Answer 9

Injectable anticoagulant (low-MW heparin)

Answer 10

Oral anticoagulant

Answer 11

ADP receptor antagonist

Answer 12

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist (monoclonal antibody)

Answer 13

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Answer 14

Venodilator

Answer 15

α₁- and β₁-adrenoceptor blocker

Answer 16

Aldosterone receptor antagonist

Answer 17

Osmotic diuretic (hyperosmotic agent)

Answer 18

Bile acid sequestrant

Answer 19

Competitively blocks β-receptors in heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, uterus, kidney, brain and liver Specifically in relevance to treatment of hypertension, atenolol slows down the heart rate and reduces workload of the heart by antagonism of β-receptors

Answer 20

Blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and also inhibits the breakdown of bradykinin They reduce the effects of angiotensin II-induced sympathetic stimulation, vasoconstriction, sodium retention and aldosterone release

Answer 21

Competitively blocks binding of angiotensin II to type 1 angiotensin (AT1) receptors, blocking effects of angiotensin more selectively than ACE inhibitor Reduces angiotensin-induced vasoconstriction, sodium reabsorption and aldosterone release

Answer 22

Moderately potent diuretic; inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the proximal (diluting) segment of the distal convoluted tubule and produces a corresponding increase in potassium excretion

Answer 23

Inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This site accounts for retention of approximately 20% of filtered sodium; therefore, it is a potent diuretic

Answer 24

Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule by blocking sodium channels. This promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body, but without depleting potassium.

Answer 25

Blocks inward current of calcium into cells in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium and cardiac conducting system via L-type calcium channels Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (CaCB) Acts mainly on arteriolar SM to reduce peripheral vascular resistance and BP Minimal effect on myocardial cells

Answer 26

Blocks inward current of calcium into cells in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium and cardiac conducting system via L-type calcium channels Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (CaCB) Verapamil has greater cardiac effects, reducing contractility, heart rate and conduction with less effect on vascular smooth muscle

Answer 27

Converts plasminogen to plasmin, which catalyses the breakdown of fibrin

Answer 28

Competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis Increases hepatic cholesterol uptake from blood, reduces concentrations of total cholesterol, LDL and triglyceride (modest), and produces a small increase in HDL concentrations.

Answer 29

Competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis. Increases hepatic cholesterol uptake from blood, reduces concentrations of total cholesterol, LDL and triglyceride (modest), and produces a small increase in HDL concentrations.

Answer 30

Reduces absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol by inhibiting its transport across the intestinal wall. This leads to an increased demand for cholesterol, an increase in LDL uptake and its removal from the plasma.

Answer 31

Inhibits Na+/K+-ATPase on cardiac myocytes → increased Na+ in cell → decreased Na+/Ca2+ exchange → decreased Ca2+ efflux → increased Ca2+ stored in sarcoplasmic reticulum → more Ca2+ released by each action potential → increased contractility. Inhibition of Na+/K+-ATPase pump also thought to increase vagal tone → slower AV conduction time → increased diastolic filling time

Answer 32

Binding of agonist to β1 adrenoceptor (GPCR) → activation of adenyl cyclase → increased cAMP in cell → conversion of inactive protein kinase into active protein kinase → phosphorylation of calcium channel → increased Ca2+ entry → increased contractility

Answer 33

Reduces automaticity of myocardial tissue with little effect on cardiac conduction It has a mild negative inotropic effect and weak neuromuscular blocking activity Also opens up K⁺ channels, shortening repolarisation Decreases the ERP

Answer 34

Slows cardiac conduction and to a lesser extent, increases refractory period in all myocardial tissues (including bypass tracts) but particularly in the His-Purkinje (ventricular conduction) system Also has negative inotropic activity Has no effect on K⁺ (so repolarisation and ERP remain unchanged)

Answer 35

Increases cardiac output by its positive chronotropic and inotropic actions. It tends to maintain or increase systolic BP, and decreases diastolic BP by lowering peripheral vascular resistance. It increases automaticity and AV nodal conduction, and usually improves coronary blood flow

Answer 36

Decreases sinus node and junctional automaticity, slows atrioventricular (AV) and bypass tract conduction and prolongs refractory period of myocardial tissues (atria, ventricles, AV node and bypass tract); also has weak beta-blocker activity.

Answer 37

Hypotension Heart failure Nausea Diarrhoea Bronchospasm Dyspnoea Fatigue Dizziness Abnormal vision Hypoglycaemia

Answer 38

Hypotension Cough Hyperkalaemia Headache Dizziness Fatigue Nausea Renal impairment

Answer 39

Dizziness Headache Hyperkalaemia First dose orthostatic hypotension

Answer 40

Dizziness Weakness Muscle cramps Polyuria Orthostatic hypotension Hyponatraemia Hypokalaemia Hyperuricaemia Hypochloraemic alkalosis Hypomagnesaemia

Answer 41

Hyponatraemia Hypokalaemia Hypomagnesaemia Dehydration Hyperuricaemia Gout Dizziness Orthostatic hypotension Syncope

Answer 42

Hyperkalaemia Hyponatraemia and hypochloraemia (especially when combined with thiazide diuretics) Weakness Headache Nausea Vomiting Constipation Impotence Dizziness Muscle cramps

Answer 43

Peripheral oedema Rash Headache Fatigue Dizziness Flushing Nausea Abdominal pain Bradycardia

Answer 44

Bradycardia Constipation Peripheral oedema Rash Headache Fatigue Dizziness Flushing Nausea Abdominal pain

Answer 45

Bleeding, including bleeding at injection sites Intra-cerebral bleeding Internal bleeding (eg. GI, genitourinary)

Answer 46

Myalgia Mild transient GI symptoms Headache Insomnia Dizziness Myopathy Rhabdomyolysis

Answer 47

Myalgia Mild transient GI symptoms Headache Insomnia Dizziness Proteinuria

Answer 48

Headache Diarrhoea Myalgia Raised ALT/AST

Answer 49

Worsened arrhythmias Anorexia Nausea Vomiting Diarrhoea Blurred vision Visual disturbances Confusion Drowsiness Dizziness Nightmares Agitation Depression

Answer 50

Tachycardia Excessive increase in BP Ventricular ectopic activity Nausea Headache Angina Palpitations Shortness of breath Rash Fever

Answer 51

Worsened arrhythmia Lip and tongue numbness Headache Dizziness Drowsiness Confusion Visual disturbances Tinnitus Tremor Paraesthesia

Answer 52

Nausea Vomiting Diarrhoea Constipation Headache Dizziness Tinnitus CNS disturbances Angina Worsened arrhythmias Dyspnoea Flushing

Answer 53

Palpitations Tachycardia Hypotension Flushing Headache Nervousness Restlessness Fine tremor

Answer 54

Worsened arrhythmia Nausea and vomiting GIT symptoms Photosensitisation Skin discolouration Hypothyroidism Pulmonary fibrosis from long-term use

Answer 55

Administration: oral tablet * Hypertension * Angina * Tachyarrhythmias * MI * Prevention of migraine Contraindications: Renal failure, Atenolol recommended only in combination with other antihypertensive classes (monotherapy associated with higher CV mortality and stroke)

Answer 56

Administration: oral tablet or liquid * Hypertension * Heart failure * Post-MI in patients with left ventricular dysfunction * Diabetic nephropathy (type 1 diabetes) Contraindications: Collagen vascular disorders (e.g. SLE), Severe renal impairment - may predispose to neutropenia or agranulocytosis

Answer 57

Administration: oral tablet * Hypertension (includes combination with hydrochlorothiazide * Reduction of renal disease progression in patients with type 2 diabetes, hypertension and microalbuminuria (\>30mg/24hours) or proteinuria (\>900mg/24hours) Contraindications: Peripheral vascular disease, Volume or sodium depletion, Aortic stenosis, Renal impairment, Pregnancy

Answer 58

Administration: oral table * Hypertension, in conjunction with diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, AT-II antagonist * Oedema associated with heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome

Answer 59

Produces a rapid and intense diuresis and have a short duration of action (4-6 hours) Administration: oral tablet or liquid, IV (a trial of IV frusemide may be more effective than increasing oral doses in refractory heart failure) * Oedema associated with heart failure (combine with ACE inhibitor), hepatic cirrhosis, renal impairment and nephrotic syndrome * Severe hypercalcaemia Contraindications: Severe sodium and fluid depletion

Answer 60

Administration: oral table * Prevention of diuretic-induced hypokalaemia * Oedema due to heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome, as an adjunct to thiazide or loop diuretic * Hypertension, in combination with hydrochlorothiazide * Oedema due to heart failure or hepatic cirrhosis, in combination with hydrochlorothiazide Contraindications: Hyperkalaemia, Renal failure, Cirrhosis, Pregnancy

Answer 61

Administration: oral tablet * Hypertension * Angina

Answer 62

Administration: oral tablet, IV (for SVT, AF or atrial flutter) * Hypertension * Angina * Supraventricular tachycardia * AF or atrial flutter Contraindications: Severe bradycardia, 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, Hypotension, Various arrhythmias

Answer 63

Administration: IV, used in conjunction with weight-adjusted heparin * Acute MI

Answer 64

Administration: oral tablet * Hypercholesterolaemia * Hypertensive patients with additional risk factors for heart disease * Mixed hyperlipidaemia Contraindications: Chronic liver disease, Severe intercurrent illness, Renal impairment, Pregnancy

Answer 65

Administration: oral tablet * Hypercholesterolaemia * High risk of CVD Contraindications: Chronic liver disease, Severe intercurrent illness, Renal impairment, Pregnancy, Hepatic impairment

Answer 66

Administration: oral tablet * Hypercholesterolaemia

Answer 67

Administration: Oral or IV * AF or atrial flutter * SVT with nodal re-entry * Heart failure Contraindications: Hyperthyroidism, Hypothyroidism, 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, Various arrhythmias High doses of digoxin disturb sinus rhythm and cause ectopic beats (after-depolarisations) due to increased intracellular calcium levels.

Answer 68

Administration: IV * Inotropic support in acute heart failure and cardiogenic shock * Pharmacological stress testing of myocardial function Contraindications: Ventricular arrhythmias, AF, Hypovolaemia Use is restricted to settings where there is close monitoring of arterial and venous pressure, and continuous ECG

Answer 69

Administration: IV injection * Serious ventricular arrhythmias * Neuropathic pain Contraindications: Severe adverse reaction/allergy to lignocaine, Treatment with flecanide, Hypovolaemia, Electrolyte disturbances, 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, Heart failure Adverse effects are dose-related.

Answer 70

Administration: IV injection * SVT * Paroxysmal AF or atrial flutter * Maintenance of sinus rhythm following cardioversion Contraindications: Hypovolaemia, Electrolyte disturbances, Structural heart disease, 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, Heart failure

Answer 71

Administration: IV infusion * Heart block * Bradycardia with haemodynamic compromise Contraindications: Hypovolaemia, Tachycardia, Hyperthyroidism, Recent MI, Ischaemic heart disease

Answer 72

Administration: IV infusion, oral * Treatment and prophylaxis of serious tachyarrhythmias including VT, AF and SVT Contraindications:, Allergy to amiodarone, Thyroid dysfunction, Lung disease, Electrolyte disturbances, 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, Pregnancy

Answer 73

Competitively block beta receptors in heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, uterus, kidney, brain and liver Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, BP and cardiac contractility; also depress sinus node rate and slow conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, and prolong atrial refractory periods

Answer 74

Competitively block beta receptors in heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, uterus, kidney, brain and liver Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, BP and cardiac contractility; also depress sinus node rate and slow conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, and prolong atrial refractory periods

Answer 75

Block inward current of calcium into cells in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium and cardiac conducting system via L-type calcium channels Act on coronary arteriolar smooth muscle to reduce vascular resistance and myocardial oxygen requirements, relieving angina symptoms Diltiazem has a greater effect on arteriolar smooth muscle than verapamil

Answer 76

Block inward current of calcium into cells in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium and cardiac conducting system via L-type calcium channels Act on coronary arteriolar smooth muscle to reduce vascular resistance and myocardial oxygen requirements, relieving angina symptoms Dihydropyridines act mainly on arteriolar smooth muscle to reduce peripheral vascular resistance and BP. They have minimal effect on myocardial cells

Answer 77

Inhibits bradykinin release, which prevents its involvement in the deeper tissue swelling associated with hereditary angioedema

Answer 78

Acts as a protease to cleave specific SNARE proteins (that normally form a complex that facilitates membrane fusion between the synaptic vesicle and the pre-synaptic neuronal membrane), preventing acetylcholine (ACh) release at the synapse

Answer 79

Reduce breakdown of neuronally released acetylcholine by inhibiting cholinesterase Enhance neuromuscular transmission in skeletal and smooth muscles

Answer 80

Decrease breakdown of acetylcholine reducing the apparent deficiency of cholinergic neurotransmitter activity in Alzheimer’s disease (due to its good entry into the CNS)

Answer 81

Non-selective MAOIs irreversibly inhibit monoamine oxidases A and B (MAO-A and MAO‑B), blocking neurotransmitter reuptake, increasing the synaptic concentrations of adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine and serotonin

Answer 82

Block the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline at α₁ and α₂ receptors Arterial and venous vasodilation is due to blockade of postsynaptic α₁ receptors and inhibition of catecholamine-mediated vasoconstriction Blockade of presynaptic α₂ receptors results in increased noradrenaline release and enhances reflex tachycardia

Answer 83

Act on alpha adrenoreceptors on vascular smooth muscle in the respiratory tract, producing vasoconstriction of dilated nasal vessels, reducing tissue swelling and nasal congestion

Answer 84

Competitively binds to the α₁-adrenoceptor and prevents binding by noradrenaline or adrenaline, inhibiting the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Answer 85

Acts primarily on I_funny channels, providing a moderate Na⁺ block (but also providing a moderate K⁺ block) Prolongs repolarisation (due to effects on K⁺) Increases the effective/absolute refractory period (ERP)

Answer 86

Essential cofactor in the synthesis of blood clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, and proteins C and S Reverses effect of vitamin K antagonists

Answer 87

Binds to antithrombin III, exposing the active site of thrombin, such that it can bind to it and Inactivate clotting factors IIa (thrombin) and Xa Anti-coagulative effect is quantified by the use of the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), a measure of the instrinic pathway of the clotting cascade

Answer 88

Inactivate clotting factors IIa (thrombin) and Xa by binding to antithrombin III LMWHs have a much greater effect on factor Xa than on thrombin

Answer 89

Inhibits the reduction of vitamin K by inhibiting vitamin K reductase, inhibiting the gamma-carboxylation reaction necessary for synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) and the antithrombotic factors protein C and protein S

Answer 90

The active metabolite irreversibly binds to the platelet P2Y₁₂ receptor and inhibits platelet aggregation for the life of the platelet

Answer 91

Occupies the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, thereby blocking platelet aggregation

Answer 92

Inhibits phosphodiesterase inhibitor activity, thereby preventing the breakdown of cAMP, whose increased levels activate protein kinase A (PKA), increasing Ca²⁺ entry into the cell Increases cardiac contractility

Answer 93

Provide exogenous source of nitric oxide (which mediates vasodilator effects) Predominantly venodilators; reduce venous return and preload to the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen requirement

Answer 94

Competitively block beta receptors in heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, uterus, kidney, brain and liver Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, BP and cardiac contractility; also depress sinus node rate and slow conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, and prolong atrial refractory periods Also competitively blocks α₁-adrenoceptors, effecting vasodilatation (thereby reducing afterload)

Answer 95

Inhibit sodium absorption in the distal tubule by antagonising aldosterone, increasing sodium and water excretion and reducing potassium excretion; they are weak (potassium-sparing) diuretics Aldosterone may contribute to the pathophysiology of heart failure; by reducing aldosterone activity, aldosterone antagonists improve outcome

Answer 96

Pharmacologically inert substance that is filtered but not absorbed, so it increases the plasma osmolality, reducing passive water absorption Mainly affects the water-permeable parts of the nephron: * Proximal tubule * Descending limb of the Loop of Henle * Collecting tubules Produces a rapid (30 minutes) but temporary (6 hours) drop in intraocular pressure.

Answer 97

Bind bile acids in intestinal lumen, preventing reabsorption, and increasing bile acid excretion in the faeces Increased demand for cholesterol for bile acid synthesis results in an increase in LDL uptake and removal from plasma.

Answer 98

Unclear Decreases the secretion of VLDL particles from the liver Reduces plasma LDLs and TAGs Increases HDLs Lowers Lipoprotein (a) (Lp(a) is normally formed from LDL and is found in plaques, inhibiting thrombolysis)

Answer 99

Activate peroxisome proliferator-activated nuclear receptors and modulate lipoprotein synthesis and catabolism * Activation of PPARα leads to increased synthesis of lipoprotein lipase (LPL) * Increased LPL activity results in increased lipolysis of lipoprotein triglycerides * moderate reduction in plasma TAGs * moderate increase in HDL * Variable effects on LDL (so would not be indicated in patients with hypercholesterolaemia)

Answer 100

Common: * Hypotension * Heart failure * Nausea * Diarrhoea * Bronchospasm * Dyspnoea * Fatigue * Dizziness * Abnormal vision * Hypoglycaemia

Answer 101

Common: * Hypotension * Heart failure * Nausea * Diarrhoea * Bronchospasm * Dyspnoea * Fatigue * Dizziness * Abnormal vision * Hypoglycaemia

Answer 102

Common (\>1%) * Bradycardia Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Atrioventricular block * Development or worsening of heart failure

Answer 103

Common (\>1%) * Nausea * vasodilatory effects * headache * flushing * dizziness * hypotension * peripheral oedema

Answer 104

As yet unknown

Answer 105

* Dysphagia * Dyspnoea * Muscle weakness * Paralysis

Answer 106

Common (\>1%) * Nausea * Vomiting * Diarrhoea * Anorexia * Abdominal pain * Dyspepsia * Headache * Insomnia * Vivid dreams * Depression * Fatigue * Drowsiness * Dizziness * Tremor * Weight loss * Muscle cramps * Urinary incontinence * Increased sweating * Hypertension * Fainting Rare (\<0.1%): Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Answer 107

Common (\>1%) * Orthostatic hypotension * Sleep disturbances (including insomnia and less commonly hypersomnia) * Headache * Drowsiness * Fatigue * Weakness * Agitation * Tremors * Twitching * Myoclonus * Hyperreflexia * Constipation * Dry mouth * Weight gain * Impotence * Loss of libido * Elevated serum aminotransferases Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Itch * Rash * Sweating * Blurred vision * Peripheral oedema * Mania Rare (\<0.1%) * Hypertensive crisis

Answer 108

Common (\>1%) Orthostatic hypotension Reflex tachycardia Dizziness Drowsiness Fatigue Nasal congestion Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Miosis * Inhibition of ejaculation * GI irritation * Confusion * Headache * Urinary urgency * Dry mouth * Intracavernosal: * penile pain * haematoma Rare (\<0.1%) * Intracavernosal: * dizziness * fibrosis * priapism

Answer 109

Common (\>1%) * CNS stimulation * nervousness * excitability * dizziness * insomnia * tremor Infrequent (0.1–1%) * tachycardia * palpitations Rare (\<0.1%) * hallucinations (particularly in children) * arrhythmias * hypertension * seizures * ischaemic colitis

Answer 110

* First-dose hypotension * Headache * Drowsiness * Tiredness * Weakness * Blurred vision * Nausea * Vomiting * Lightheadedness or dizziness upon standing

Answer 111

* Diarrhoea * Nausea * Vomiting * Loss of appetite * Stomach pain/cramps

Answer 112

Common (\>1%) * Pain, tenderness and erythema (IM injection) Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Allergic reactions including anaphylaxis (especially with rapid IV injection) Rare (\<0.1%) * Haemolytic anaemia * Hyperbilirubinaemia * Kernicterus (in neonates, especially if preterm)

Answer 113

* Haemorrhage * Thrombocytopaenia (platelet deficiency) * Osteoporosis

Answer 114

* Haemorrhage * Thrombocytopaenia (platelet deficiency) * Osteoporosis

Answer 115

* Haemorrhage (so it is important to titrate the dose, determined by the INR)

Answer 116

Common (\>1%) * Diarrhoea Infrequent (0.1–1%) * GI ulcer Rare (\<0.1%) * Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura * Aplastic anaemia * Thrombocytopenia * Neutropenia

Answer 117

Development of antibodies (increased risk of thrombocytopenia), Bleeding, Allergic reactions, Thrombocytopenic purpura

Answer 118

* Increased cardiac work (O₂ demand) * Increased risk of arrhythmias * Thrombocytopaenia

Answer 119

Most are due to vasodilator effects Common (\>1%) * Headache * Flushing * Palpitations * Orthostatic hypotension * Fainting * Peripheral oedema Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Contact dermatitis (topical) * Rebound angina

Answer 120

Common: * Hypotension * Heart failure * Nausea * Diarrhoea * Bronchospasm * Dyspnoea * Fatigue * Dizziness * Abnormal vision * Hypoglycaemia

Answer 121

Common (\>1%) * hyperkalaemia * hyponatraemia * hypochloraemia (especially when combined with thiazide diuretics) * weakness * headache * nausea * vomiting * mastalgia Infrequent (0.1–1%) * GI cramps * diarrhoea * ataxia * drowsiness * confusion * impotence * gynaecomastia * menstrual irregularities * mild acidosis * renal impairment

Answer 122

No clear side effects attributable to mannitol

Answer 123

Adverse effects are dose-related; minimise by starting with low dose and increasing gradually. Common (\>1%) * Constipation * Abdominal pain * Dyspepsia * Flatulence * Nausea * Vomiting * Diarrhoea * Anorexia Infrequent (0.1–1%) * Increased triglycerides Rare (\<0.1%) * Faecal impaction * Aggravation of haemorrhoids * Steatorrhoea * Decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins * Increased bleeding tendency * Hyperchloraemic acidosis

Answer 124

Common (\>1%) * vasodilation * face and neck flushing * hypotension * dyspepsia * diarrhoea * nausea * vomiting * hyperpigmentation Infrequent (0.1–1%) * itching * rash * blurred vision * abdominal pain * jaundice * impaired liver function * hyperglycaemia * hyperuricaemia * nervousness Rare (\<0.1%) * hepatic failure * myopathy * increased creatine kinase * gout * macular oedema causing visual loss (reversible)

Answer 125

Common (\>1%) * dry mouth * headache * myalgia Infrequent (0.1–1%) * AF Rare (\<0.1%) * increased aminotransferase concentrations * impotence * reduced libido * depression * paraesthesia * peripheral neuritis * dizziness * taste disturbance * urticaria

Answer 126

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypertension * Angina * Tachyarrhythmias * Tetralogy of Fallot * MI * Prevention of migraine * Essential tremor * Phaeochromocytoma (with an alpha-blocker) Contraindications: Shock (cardiogenic and hypovolaemic) Bradycardia (45–50 beats/minute) Second‑ or third-degree AV block Severe hypotension Uncontrolled heart failure

Answer 127

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypertension * Angina * Tachyarrhythmias * MI * Chronic systolic heart failure as part of standard treatment (eg with ACE inhibitor, diuretics) * Prevention of migraine

Answer 128

Administration: Oral (tablet or capsule) * Angina * Hypertension (controlled release)

Answer 129

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypertension * Angina

Answer 130

Administration: Injection * Hereditary angioedema

Answer 131

Administration: Injection * Focal spasticity * Cervical dystonia (spasmodic torticollis) * Blepharospasm

Answer 132

Administration: Injection (subcutaneous or intramuscular) * Myasthenia gravis * Reversal of neuromuscular blockade induced by non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers * Give simultaneously with anticholinergic agent, such as atropine (antidote) or glycopyrronium (anaesthesia) to prevent muscarinic effects (eg. bradycardia)

Answer 133

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Alzheimer’s disease Contraindications: GI or ureteric obstruction Active peptic ulcer Treatment with drugs with anticholinergic effects Treatment with drugs that can cause bradycardia

Answer 134

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Major depression (second line) * Panic disorder (second line)

Answer 135

Administration: Injection (IV, IM or intracavernosal) * Phaeochromocytoma * Erectile dysfunction, with papaverine and/or alprostadil Contraindications: Peptic ulcers

Answer 136

Administration: Oral (tablet, capsule or liquid), intranasal (spray), intraocular (eyedrops), injection * Relief of nasal congestion associated with acute and chronic rhinitis * Mild ocular congestion * Hypotension due to shock, anaesthesia or drugs, paroxysmal SVT, adjunct to spinal anaesthesia and regional analgesia Contraindications: Use within 14 days of MAOI treatment (risk of severe hypertension) Severe coronary artery disease; the risk of arrhythmias increases in heart disease Severe or uncontrolled hypertension

Answer 137

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypertension Contraindications: Heart failure due to mechanical obstruction, eg aortic stenosis Volume depletion Treatment with diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers

Answer 138

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Atrial fibrillation

Answer 139

Administration: Injection (oral, IV or IM) * Haemorrhage or threatened haemorrhage due to severe hypoprothrombinaemia * eg. from excessive dose of warfarin, hypovitaminosis K * Prevention and treatment of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

Answer 140

Administration: Injection (IV) * Prevention of VTE in surgical and high-risk medical patients * Treatment of VTE * Treatment of ACS * Treatment of peripheral arterial occlusion * Prevention of arterial thrombosis during coronary angioplasty * Prevention of extracorporeal thrombosis during haemodialysis * Prevention of extracorporeal thrombosis during cardiopulmonary bypass * Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation Contraindications: * Severe thrombocytopenia from heparin or LMWH * Active bleeding or disease states with an increased risk of bleeding * eg. bleeding disorders

Answer 141

Administration: Injection (IV) * Prevention of VTE in surgical patients and in medical patients bedridden due to acute illness * Treatment of venous thrombosis * Prevention of extracorporeal thrombosis during haemodialysis * Treatment of acute STEMI, non-STEMI and unstable angina Contraindications: * Severe thrombocytopenia from heparin or LMWH * Active bleeding or disease states with an increased risk of bleeding * eg. bleeding disorders

Answer 142

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Prevention and treatment of VTE * Prevention of thromboembolism in patients with prosthetic heart valves * Prevention of stroke in patients with previous MI and increased embolic risk * AF and a high risk of stroke or systemic embolism Contraindications: Alcoholism Severe active bleeding or disease states with an increased risk of severe bleeding eg. severe uncontrolled hypertension, severe hepatic disease, severe thrombocytopenia Pregnancy (potential teratogenic effects)

Answer 143

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Prevention of vascular ischaemic events in patients with symptomatic atherosclerosis (recent ischaemic stroke, recent MI or peripheral arterial disease with intermittent claudication) * Non-ST-segment elevation acute coronary syndrome (with aspirin) * Adjuvant to reperfusion for STEMI (with aspirin), unless acute CABG is likely Contraindications: Severe active bleeding or disease states with an increased risk of severe bleeding eg. bleeding disorders, severe hepatic disease Hypersensitivity to a thienopyridine

Answer 144

Administration: IV * Unstable angina and non-STEMI in high-risk patients * PCI Administered with heparin or low-MW heparins and low dose aspirin

Answer 145

Administration: Injection (IV) * Short-term management of severe congestive heart failure (CHF) Contraindications: Aortic stenosis Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer 146

Administration: Sublingual (spray or tablet), injection (IV) or transdermal (patch) * Prevention and treatment of stable angina * Heart failure associated with acute MI (infusion) Contraindications: Hypovolaemia Raised intracranial pressure Treatment with sildenafil, tadalafil or vardenafil (PDE5 inhibitors) Anaemia Hypotension Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Cardiac tamponade Aortic or mitral stenosis Cor pulmonale

Answer 147

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypertension * Chronic systolic heart failure, as part of standard treatment (eg with ACE inhibitors and diuretics) Contraindications: Shock (cardiogenic and hypovolaemic) Bradycardia (45–50 beats/minute) Second‑ or third-degree AV block Severe hypotension Uncontrolled heart failure

Answer 148

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Primary hyperaldosteronism * Refractory oedema associated with secondary hyperaldosteronism, eg cirrhosis of the liver * Hirsutism in females * Heart failure Contraindications: Renal failure

Answer 149

Administration: Injection (IV) * Acute angle-closure crisis unresponsive to conventional treatment * Intraocular pressure reduction before intraocular surgery (prevents prolapse of intraocular contents) * Prevention of acute renal failure

Answer 150

Administration: Oral (liquid) * Hypercholesterolaemia * Mixed hyperlipidaemia * Itch associated with partial biliary tract obstruction * Diarrhoea following ileal resection or disease

Answer 151

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Hypercholesterolaemia, mixed hyperlipidaemia or severe hypertriglyceridaemia * Pellagra (niacin deficiency - characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia) Contraindications: Symptomatic hypotension After recent MI

Answer 152

Administration: Oral (tablet) * Severe hypertriglyceridaemia with risk of pancreatitis * Mixed hyperlipidaemia and dyslipidaemia associated with diabetes (second line) Contraindications: Treatment with simvastatin Severe renal impairment Hepatic impairment

Cardiovascular Drugs Flashcards

(180 cards)