CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
allows important substances to be delivered
to various organs and at the same time it is a way by which the body can collect waste products of metabolism
A
blood
2
Q
normal range of blood pH
A
7.35-7.45
3
Q
pale, yellow liquid that surround cells and is the fluid matrix of the blood
A
plasma
4
Q
percentage of plasma in the blood
A
55%
5
Q
a blood buffer that helps maintain water balance. it is most abundant in plasma protein (58%)
A
albumin
6
Q
38% plasma proteins that help the immune system through its clotting factors
A
globulin
7
Q
also a clotting factor that constitutes 4% of plasma proteins
A
fibrinogen
8
Q
the liquid or undiluted part of the blood, which lacks clotting factors
A
serum
9
Q
aside from plasma, what are the other formed elements that makes up 45% of the blood
A
RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
10
Q
process that produces formed elements
A
hematopoiesis
11
Q
True or false: after birth, hematopoiesis is confined primarily to red bone marrow
A
true
12
Q
the single populations of cells where all formed elements of the blood is derived
A
hematopoietic stem cells / hemocytoblasts
13
Q
all the formed elements of blood are derived from a single population of cells called
A
myeloid stem cells
14
Q
gives rise to lymphocytes
A
lymphoid stem cells
15
Q
disk-shaped with thicker edges than the center; transports O2 to tissues and CO2 to the lungs
A
RBC / erythrocytes
16
Q
shape of RBC
A
biconcave
17
Q
average life span of RBCs
A
120 days (males) 110 days (females)
18
Q
protein pigment of RBC is called
A
hemoglobin
19
Q
True or false: each hemoglobin molecule consists of 2 proteins
A
false - they consist of 4 proteins
20
Q
a hemoglobin with an O2 attached
A
oxyhemoglobin
21
Q
stem cells form ___ that gives rise to the red blood cell line
A
proerythroblasts
22
Q
stimulates the red bone marrow to produce more erythrocytes
A
erythropoietin
23
Q
production of RBCs that starts in the red bone marrow
A
erythopoiesis
24
Q
old red blood cells are removed from the blood by
A
macrophages
25
in the breaking down of hemoglobin:
___ is broken down into amino acids,
___ converted to bilirubin
globin, heme
26
true or false: bilirubin may be excreted in the urine, giving its yellow characteristic color
true
27
spherical in shape; lacks hemoglobin and are larger than erythocytes
WBCs / leukocytes
28
fights infections and removes dead cells and debris
WBCs / leukocytes
29
visible granules in the cytoplasm
granulocytes
30
most common leukocyte with a nucleus that has 2-4 lobes; they function as phagocytes at active sites
neutrophils
31
brick-red cytoplasmic granules that reduce inflammation; its nucleus is often bilobed
eosinophils
32
function if to kill parasitic worms and play a role in allergy attacks and asthma
eosinophils
33
rarest of the leukocytes with large histamine-containing granules; they promote inflammation and heparin that prevents clot formation
basophils
34
lacks visible cytoplasmic granules with spherical, oval or kidney shaped nuclei
agranulocytes
35
largest of the leukocytes with distinctive u-shaped or kidney-shaped nucleus; they play a role in fighting chronic infection
monocytes
36
smallest leukocytes with a round nucleus and cytoplasm that forms a thin ring around the nucleus; they produce antibodies and other chemical responsible for destroying microorganisms
lymphocytes
37
where do B cells mature?
bone marrow
38
where do T cells mature?
thymus
39
minute fragments of cells, each consisting of a small amount of cytoplasm surrounded by a cell membrane
platelets
40
platelets are produce in the red bone marrow from large cells called
megakaryocytes
41
process of the body to stop bleeding
hemostasis
42
immediate but temporary constriction of a blood vessel that results when smooth muscle within the wall of the blood vessel contracts
vascular spasm
43
accumulation of platelets that can seal up a small break in a blood vessel
platelet plug
44
occurs as platelets stick to exposed
collagen in damaged vessel walls
platelet adhesion
45
platelets release chemicals like ADP and
thromboxane that further activates other platelets
platelet release reaction
46
fibrinogen forms bridges between the fibrinogen receptors of numerous platelets; this results in a platelet plug
platelet aggregation
47
formation of a clot is called
coagulation
48
also called thrombus; network of thread-like
proteins that trap blood cells and fluid
clot
49
protein fibers of a clot is called
fibrin
50
after prothrombinase acts on prothrombin, prothrombin is converted into
thrombin
51
used to prevent clot formation
anticoagulants
52
a clot that forms within a blood vessel
thrombus
53
a clot that travels through the blood stream to block another vessel
embolus
54
condensing of clot into a more compact structure
clot retraction
55
as the damaged tissue is repaired, clots are dissolved in a process called
fibrinolysis
56
transfer of blood or blood components from one individual to another
blood transfusion
57
the person who gives blood
donor
58
the person who receives blood
recipients
59
the introduction of a fluid other than blood such as saline or glucose solution into the blood
infusion
60
the clumping of blood cells
agglutination
61
the rupture of red blood cells
hemolysis
62
molecules found on the surface of RBCs
antigens
63
proteins present in the plasma that binds to the antigens
antibodies
64
type A blood has type ___ antigens,
type B blood has type ___ antigens
A, B
65
True or false: type AB has neither A or B antigens but has A and B antibodies
false - it is the other way around
66
type O blood has ___ antigens,
and ___ antibodies
neither A or B, A and B
67
type O individuals are considered the universal ___ since they lack both antigens
donor
68
type AB individuals are universal ___ due to the presence of both antigens
receiver
69
the rarest blood type with less than 1% of the US population having this blood type
AB-
70
True or false: when an Rh- mother develops antibodies against her Rh+ baby, it can lead to complications for the baby
true
71
disease of the newborn caused by maternal production of anti-Rh antibodies
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)
72
agglutination of the fetus' RBC through this disease can be prevented by administering what?
RhoGAM
73
a vital, muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body
heart
74
a healthy adult heart, at rest, pumps around ___ liters of blood per minute
5
75
the right side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs and back to the left side of the heart through vessels
pulmonary circulation
76
The left side of the heart pumps blood to
all other body tissues and back to the right side of the heart through a network of vessels
systemic circulation
77
true or false: the heart is approximately the size of a fist weighing less than 1lb
true
78
where is the heart positioned?
in between the lungs within the thoracic cavity
79
outer layer of the pericardium, composed of tough fibrous connective tissue
firbous pericardium
80
inner layer and consists of flat epithelial cells
serous pericardium
81
lines the fibrous pericardium
pareital pericardium
82
membrane that covers the surface of the heart
visceral pericardium / epicardium
83
space around the heart enclosed by the pericardium
pericardial cavity
84
list down the pericardium of the heart from most superficial to deep
fibrous, parietal, visceral
85
two upper chambers of the heart; the receiving chambers
right and left atrium
86
receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
right atrium
87
received oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins
left atrium
88
separated the right and left atria
interatrial septum
89
two lower chambers of the heart; discharging chambers
left and right ventricles
90
receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the main pulmonary artery
right ventricle
91
true or false: the right atrium forms most of the hearts anterior surface
true
92
received blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the aorta
left ventricle
93
separated right and left ventricles
interventricular septum
94
valves between the atria and ventricles
atrioventricular valves
95
AV valve between right atrium and right ventricle
tricuspid valve
96
AV valve between left atrium and right atrium
bicuspid valve
97
muscles connected to the free edges of the cusps of the AV valves
papillary muscles
98
aka "heart strings", they help hold the valves in place while the heart is pumping blood
chordae tendinae
99
valves found in the pulmonary trunk and aorta
semilunar valves
100
valve between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk
pulmonary valve
101
valve between left ventricle and aorta
aortic valve
102
acts as electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles and offers a sturdy attachment point for cardiac muscle
cardiac skeleton
103
supply blood to the heart wall
coronary arteries
104
supplies blood to the anterior heart wall and the left ventricle
left coronary artery
105
supplies blood to the right ventricle
right coronary artery
106
drain blood from the cardiac msucle and run parallel to the coronary arteries
cardiac veins
107
surface of the heart that helps lubricate the outside of the heart
epicardium
108
thick, middle layer composed of cardiac muscle; makes up the walls of heart chambers
myocardium
109
smooth inner surface of the heart that covers heart valves and vessels
endocardium
110
found in the right atrium where the action potential originates; also known as the pacemaker
sinoatrial (SA) node
111
found in the lower portion of the right atrium and receives action potentials from the SA node
atrioventricular (AV) node
112
true or false: action potentials spread quickly through the AV node
false: they spread slowly
113
tips of the bundle branches that spread to the hearts apex and ventricle walls
purkinje fibers
114
it records heart's electrical activity and diagnoses cardiac issues
electrocardiogram (EKG)
115
in EKG, the depolarization of atria is called
P wave
116
in EKG, the depolarization of ventricles are called
QRS complex
117
in EKG, the repolarization of ventricles are called
T wave
118
atrial and ventricular ___ is the contraction of atria and ventricles respectively
systole
119
atrial and ventricular ___ is the relaxation of atria and ventricles respectively
diastole
120
the first heart sound "lub" occurs when?
atrioventricular valves close
121
the second heart sound "dup" arises from the closure of?
semilunar valves
122
volume of blood pumped per ventricle per contraction
stroke volume
123
average stroke volume
70 mL/beat
124
number of heart beats in a minute
heart rate
125
average heart rate
72 beats/min
126
volume of blood pumped by a ventricle in 1 minute
cardiac output
127
average cardiac ouput
5 liters/min
128
cardiac output formula
stroke volume x heart rate
129
refers to mechanisms within the heart controlling cardiac output
intrinsic regulation
130
the blood volume returning to the heart
venous return
131
the degree in which ventricular walls are stretched at the end of diastole
preload
132
describes the relationship between preload and stroke volume, impacting cardiac output
starling's law of the heart
133
pressure against which ventricles must pump blood
after load
134
refers to mechanisms external to the heart, such as either nervous or chemical regulation
extrinsic regulation
135
true or false: the nervous system does not have any influence to the heart
false - nervous system control of the heart occurs through the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system
136
regulates heart function by monitoring blood pressure in the aorta and carotid arteries, it detects changes in blood pressure and changes in action potentials
baroreceptor reflex
137
chemical regulation of heart function
chemoreceptor reflex
138
true or false: epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla can enhance heart rate and stroke volume
true
139
part of the CNS that contains chemoreceptors
for monitoring changes in pH and CO2 levels
medulla oblongata
