Cardiovascular System Flashcards

(514 cards)

1
Q

What is the mediastinum?

A

Central compartment of thoracic cavity
Surrounded by loose connective tissue

Upper part= vessels to head and neck and limbs
Lower part= anterior, middle, posterior, structures traversing down to abdomen

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2
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Membrane (fibroserous sac) enclosing the heart

2 layers= fibrous and serous
Serous has 2 parts (parietal lines fibrous, visceral lines heart)

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3
Q

Why does the serous layer of the pericardium have 2 parts?

A

Double layer

Lubricating fluid-> mobility

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4
Q

What great vessels enter/leave the RA, RV, LA and LV?

A

5 great vessels (INTO ATRIA, OUT OF VENTRICLES)

RA= superior and inferior vena cava (return deoxy blood from body circulation into RA)
RV= pulmonary artery (splits into L and R, carries deoxy blood from RV to lungs) 
LA= pulmonary veins  (splits into L and R, carries oxy blood from lungs into LA)
LV= aorta (carries oxy blood from LV to systemic circulation)
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5
Q

What are the branches off the aortic arch?

A

Aortic arch is between ascending and descending aorta (travels backwards)

BRACHIOCEPHALIC TRUNK
Right subclavian artery
Right common carotid artery

LEFT COMMON CAROTID ARTERY

LEFT SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY

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6
Q

What are the subclavian arteries?

A

Paired major arteries of the upper thorax below the clavicle

Arteries supplies limb (receives blood from aortic arch)

(Vein drains limb)

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7
Q

What are the carotid arteries?

A

Blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood to the head, brain and face

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8
Q

What kind of autonomic control is the vagus nerve under?

A

Parasympathetic

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9
Q

What are the brachiocephalic arteries?

A

First branch of the aorta
Supplies blood to tissues of the brain and head (and R arm)

R common carotid
R subclavian

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10
Q

What are the brachiocephalic veins?

A

Innominate vein

Returns oxygen-depleted blood from upper limbs, neck and head (to heart)

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11
Q

What are the main valves in the heart and where are they/

A

ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVES
Mitral (bicuspid)
Tricuspid

SEMILUNAR VALVES (in arteries leaving the heart
Aortic
Pulmonary

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12
Q

What order are the heart valves reached in circulation?

A

Tricuspid
Pulmonary
Mitral
Aortic

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13
Q

What is the tricuspid valve?

A

Closes off RA that holds blood coming in from body
Allows blood to flow from RA to RV
Prevents backflow of blood from RV to RA when blood is pumped out of RV

Connected to the papillary muscles but the Chordae tendineae (prevents prolapse or inversion into RA)

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14
Q

What is the pulmonary valve?

A

Closes off RV

Opens to allow blood to be pumped from the heart to lungs (via pulmonary artery) to receive oxygen

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15
Q

What is the mitral valve?

A

Closes off LA that collects oxygen-rich blood from lungs
Allows blood to pass from LA to LV
Prevents backflow of blood from LV to LA when blood is pumped out of LV

Anterior cusp
Posterior cusp

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16
Q

What is the aortic valve?

A

Closes of LV

Opens to allow blood to leave the heart to the body (via aorta)

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17
Q

What cusps are in the tricuspid valve?

A

Anterior cusp
Septal cusp
Posterior cusp

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18
Q

What cusps are in the pulmonary valve?

A

Anterior semilunar cusp
Right semilunar cusp
Left semilunar cusp

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19
Q

What are the superior and inferior vena cava?

A

Bring deoxygenated blood from body to heart

SUPERIOR= from head and upper body-> into RA of heart
INFERIOR= from lower body-> into RA of heart
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20
Q

How does blood return from the head and neck to the heart and then back to head?

A

Blood from head-> enters RA (via superior vena cava)
Blood flows through tricuspid valve into RV
RV pumps blood to lungs (where it absorbs O2) via pulmonary valve

Oxygen-rich blood returns from lungs-> enters LA
Blood flows through mitral valve into LV

LV contract-> blood pumped through aortic valve into aorta
Aorta-> common carotid arteries-> head

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21
Q

What arteries supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart tissue?

A

Coronary arteries

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22
Q

What veins remove deoxygenated blood from the heart tissue?

A

Cardiac veins

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23
Q

Describe coronary circulation

A

Circulation of blood in blood vessels of the heart muscle

Coronary arteries
Cardiac veins

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24
Q

What type of heart damage is the most common cause of UK death?

A

Damage to coronary arteries

Atheroma and atherosclerosis or MI

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25
What are the coronary arteries?
RIGHT CORONARY ARTERY Sino-atrial nodal branch of RCA Right marginal branch of RCA Posterior interventricular branch of RCA LEFT CORONARY ARTERY Circumflex branch of LCA Left marginal branch of circumflex branch Anterior interventricular branch of LCA Diagonal branch of anterior interventricular branch
26
What are the cardiac veins?
Great cardiac vein Small cardiac vein Posterior cardiac vein Middle cardiac vein Right marginal vein Anterior veins of RV NB. Coronary sinus is where veins come off
27
What is the cardiac conduction system?
Group of specialised cardiac muscle cells in heart walls that signal to heart muscle causing it to contract Specialised means the heart independently generates and propagates electrical activity (can beat even without its nerve supply) Extrinsic nerve supply from ANS to modify and control the intrinsic beating
28
What are the major components of the cardiac conduction system and what happens to them?
1. SAN 2. Inter-nodal fibre bundles 3. AV node Ventricular bundles (bundle branches and purkinje fibres) SA node-> anterior/middle/posterior intermodal tracts-> AV node AV node-> Bundle of His (into right and left bundle branches) -> Purkinje fibres in ventricular walls NB. SA nodes also-> Bachmann's bundle (LA)
29
How is calcium involved in contraction of the heart?
Electrical event-> calcium transient-> contractile event Excitation-contraction coupling
30
What are T-tubules?
Finger-like invaginations from the cell sruface Carry surface depolarisation deep into the cell T tubule lies alongside each Z line of every myofibril (spaced approx 2 um apart)
31
Outline excitation-contraction coupling (on excitation)
Depolarisation-> influx of Ca into myocyte (via L-type Ca channels) Ca binds to IC SR-Ca release channels-> conformational change CICR (Ca induced Ca release) from SR Ca release-> myocyte contraction
32
Outline excitation-contraction coupling (on relaxation)
Intracellular Ca taken up into the SR by Ca-ATPase (SERCA) Ca also removed from myocyte by Na/Ca exchanger Na/Ca exchanger uses the energy gradient from Na to expel Ca into EC matrix
33
How can the contraction force be described (graphically)?
Sigmoidal relationship | Between log of cytoplasmic Ca concentration and % of maximum force produced
34
What is the difference in length-tension relationships for cardiac and skeletal muscle?
Cardiac muscle more resistant to stretch Less compliant than skeletal muscle Due to properties of the extracellular matrix and cytoskeleton Only ascending limb of the relation important for cardiac muscle
35
What are the two types of contraction?
Isometric (muscle fibres don't change length, pressures in both ventricles increase) Isotonic (shortening of fibres and blood is ejected from ventricles)
36
Define: preload
Weight that stretches muscle before it's stimulated to contract
37
Define: afterload
Weight not apparent to muscle in resting state | Only encountered when muscle has started to contract
38
What is the relationship between afterload and shortening/shortening velocity?
In isotonic contraction Inverse linear relationship between afterload and shortening Almost inverse linear relationship between afterload and shortening velocity
39
What happens if preload increases?
There is an initial enhanced stretch which-> increased ability of the muscle to produce more force (shifts the graph to the right) I.e. a greater afterload will result in more shortening than before
40
What are the in-vivo correlates of preload?
As blood fills the ventricles during the relaxation phase (or diastole) of the cardiac cycle it stretches the resting ventricular walls Stretch or filling determines the preload on the ventricles before ejection Preload is dependent upon venous return to the heart Exercise increases pre-load
41
What are the in-vivo correlates of afterload?
The load against which LV ejects blood after opening of the aortic valve Any increase in afterload decreases the amount of isotonic shortening that occurs and decreases the velocity of shortening I.e. small ventricular filling leads to a smaller contraction as the ventricular cardiac muscle responds less effectively to the afterload of the arterial blood pressure
42
What are the measures of preload?
End-diastolic volume End diastolic pressure Right atrial pressure
43
What is the simple measure of afterload?
Diastolic arterial blood pressure
44
How can heart contraction be altered?
INTRINSIC MECHANISMS Frank-Starling relationship Rate-induced regulation EXTRINSIC MECHANISMS Autonomic NS Endocrine system Blood gases and pH
45
What is the Frank-Starling relationship?
Increased diastolic fibre length increases ventricular contraction Consequence: ventricles pump greater stroke volume so, at equilibrium, cardiac output exactly balances the augmented venous return
46
What 2 factors is the F-S relationship due to?
Changes in number of myofilament cross bridges that interact Changes in Ca sensitivity of the myofilaments
47
Why do changes in number of myofilament cross bridges that interact affect the F-S relationship?
At optimum sarcomere length, there is maximum interdigitation between thick and thin filaments At shorter lengths than optimal, actin filaments overlap on themselves-> reducing no. of myosin cross bridges that can be made
48
Why do changes in Ca sensitivity of the myofilaments affect the F-S relationship?
Ca sensitivity changes with changes in sarcomere length At longer sarcomere lengths, the affinity of Troponin C for Ca is increased -> less Ca required for the same amount of force produced OR With stretch the spacing between myosin and actin filaments (“lattice spacing”) decreases With decreasing myofilament lattice spacing, the probability of forming strong binding cross- bridges increases This produces more force for same amount of activating calcium
49
What is stroke work?
Work done by the heart to eject blood under pressure into the aorta and pulmonary artery
50
What is stroke volume?
Volume of blood ejected during each stroke by each ventricle Affected by afterload, preload and contractility
51
What is pressure (P) in the stroke work equation?
Pressure at which blood is ejected | Greatly influenced by structure
52
What is the formula for stroke work?
Stroke work= SV x P
53
What is the Law of Laplace (concept)?
Law states that: when the pressure within a cylinder is held constant, the tension on its walls increases with increasing radius Therefore, if pressure and tension (wall stress) remain constant, wall thickness must be increased or radius of the cylinder must be decreased
54
What is the Law of Laplace (formula)?
T = (PR)/h ``` T= wall tension P= internal pressure R= cylindrical radium h= height/length of cylinder ```
55
Why is the Law of Laplace important physiologically?
Radius of curvature of walls of LV is less than that of RV allowing LV to generate higher pressures with similar wall stress (to combat the higher aortic blood pressure than pulmonary BP) Facilitates late ejection Wall stress kept low in giraffe by long, narrow, thick-walled ventricle In frog, where pressures are low the ventricle is almost spherical Failing hearts often become dilated which decreases pressure generation and ejection of blood and increases wall stress by increasing the radius
56
Outline the cardiac cycle from atrial systole
DIASTOLE D3. Late (slow filling) D4. Atrial systole SYSTOLE S1. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction S2. Ventricular ejection (rapid, reduced) DIASTOLE D1. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation D2. Late (rapid filling)
57
What is diastole?
Ventricular relaxation during which ventricles fill with blood 4 sub-phases
58
What is systole?
Ventricular contraction when blood is pumped into the arteries 2 sub-phases
59
How can you calculate stroke volume with systolic and diastolic volumes?
End diastolic volume - end systolic volume = stroke volume
60
What is the ejection fraction and what is the formula to calculate it?
EF = SV/EDV Percentage of EDV ejected At peak exercise >80% In heart failure
61
``` What happens in atrial systole? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS Just before, blood flows passively through AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) Atrial depolarisation-> atrial contraction-> tops up volume of blood in ventricles CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME As atria contract, 'a wave' can be seen (due to increased atrial pressure) Blood also pushed back into jugular vein-> wave in jugular venous pulse ELECTROCARDIOGRAM SAN activation-> atrial depolarisation (P wave) HEART SOUNDS No heart sound heard (4th maybe as an abnormality in congestive heart failure, pulmonary embolism or tricuspid incompetence)
62
``` What happens in isovolumetric contraction? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS Occurs just as ventricles depolarise Interval between AV valve closing and semi-lunar valves (aortic/pulmonary) opening CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME AV valves close as ventricular pressure exceeds the atrial pressure Since the AV and SL valves are closed-> no blood movement out of ventricles, just increased pressure (approaching aortic pressure) ELECTROCARDIOGRAM Ventricular depolarisation marked by QRS complex HEART SOUNDS LUB (of lub-dub) due to AV valves closing and associated vibrations
63
``` What happens in rapid ejection? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS Ventricular muscle walls undergo isotonic contraction-> push blood out ventricles SL valves open CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME As ventricles contract, pressure within them exceeds pressure in aorta and pulmonary arteries When SL valves open-> volume of ventricles decreases RV contraction pushes tricuspid valve slightly into atrium (-> small jugular vein wave 'c wave') ELECTROCARDIOGRAM No changes HEART SOUNDS No heart sounds
64
``` What happens in reduced ejection? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS Marks end of ventricular systole Aortic and pulmonary (SL) valves begin to close CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME Blood flow from ventricles decreases-> ventricular volume decreases more slowly Pressure in ventricles falls below that in arteries so blood begins to flow back-> SL vales close ELECTROCARDIOGRAM Ventricular repolarisation marked by T wave HEART SOUNDS No heart sounds
65
``` What happens in isovolumetric relaxation? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
``` MECHANICAL EVENTS Beginning of diastole Aortic and pulmonary valves (SL) shut completely AV valves remain closed Atria fill with blood ``` CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME Atrial pressure rises as blood volume increases Blood pushing on tricuspid valve gives a second jugular pulse ('v wave') Aortic valve shuts-> rebound pressure wave against the valve (distended aortic wall relaxes) Recoil reduces the aortic pressure (seen as dichrotic notch) ELECTROCARDIOGRAM No changes ``` HEART SOUNDS 2nd sound (DUB) when aortic and pulmonary valves close ```
66
``` What happens in rapid ventricular filling (late diastole)? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS AV valves open and blood flows rapidly (passively) into ventricles CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME Ventricular volume increases as atrial pressure falls ELECTROCARDIOGRAM No changes HEART SOUNDS 3rd (abnormal)= can signify turbulent ventricular filling due to sever hypertension or mitral incompetence
67
``` What happens in reduced ventricular filling (late diastole)? Mechanical events Changes in pressure and volume Electrocardiogram Heart sounds ```
MECHANICAL EVENTS Diastasis Ventricles fill more slowly as pressure difference between atria and ventricles decreases CHANGES IN PRESSURE AND VOLUME Ventricular volume increases more slows ELECTROCARDIOGRAM No changes HEART SOUNDS No heart sounds
68
What are the a, c and v waves (in atrial pressure)?
``` A WAVE (in atrial systole) As atria contract, 'a wave' can be seen (due to increased atrial pressure) Blood also pushed back into jugular vein-> wave in jugular venous pulse ``` ``` C WAVE (in rapid ejection) RV contraction pushes tricuspid valve slightly into atrium (-> small jugular vein wave 'c wave') ``` ``` V WAVE (in isovolumetric relaxation) Blood pushing on tricuspid valve gives a second jugular pulse ('v wave') ```
69
What happens on an ECG?
``` P= Atrial depolarisation QRS= Ventricular depolarisation T= Ventricular repolarisation ```
70
When are heart sounds made?
4th (abnormal) 1st (LUB)= AV valves close and associated vibrations 2nd (DUB)= SL valves close 3rd (abnormal)= can signify turbulent ventricular filling due to sever hypertension or mitral incompetence
71
On a graph showing changes in pressure and volume, what does it mean when pressure lines cross (i.e. atrial and ventricular pressure or ventricular and aortic pressure)?
Valves closing
72
What is seen as a dichrotic notch in aortic pressure?
Aortic valve shuts-> rebound pressure wave against the valve (distended aortic wall relaxes) Recoil reduces the aortic pressure
73
What does the Wiggers diagram show?
RIGHT HEART PRESSURE Pulmonary artery pressure Right ventricular pressure LEFT HEART PRESSURE Aortic pressure Left arterial pressure VENTRICULAR VOLUME Including EDV and ESV HEART SOUNDS S3, S1, S2, S3, S1 MITRAL VALVE O or C AORTIC VALVE O or C ECG TIME (sec)
74
At the top of the Wiggers diagram, the stages of contraction are...
``` Atrial systole Isovolumetric contraction Ejection (rapid then reduced) Isovolumetric relaxation Rapid filling Reduced filling (diastasis) ```
75
What happens to pressures in pulmonary circulation?
Patterns essentially identical in L and R heart but pressures in R heart are much lower Both ventricles eject same amount of blood
76
What pressure is in the RA, RV, pulmonary artery, LA, LV, aorta?
Pressure (mmHg) RIGHT SIDE RA= 0-8 RV= 25/5 Pulmonary artery= 25/12 LEFT SIDE LA= 8-10 LV= 125/5 Aorta= 120/80
77
What is the pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) and what can elevation indicate?
4-13mmHg Taken from a branch of pulmonary artery when the back pressure has been occluded Elevation can indicate LV failure, mitral insufficiency, mitral stenosis
78
Describe the pressure-volume loop
SEE GRAPH Volume on x axis Pressure on y axis 4 sided shape (BL= 4, TL=3, TR= 2, BR= 1) High volume, low pressure= preload (determined by blood filling the ventricle during diastole) High volume, high pressure= afterload (represented by blood pressures in aorta and pulmonary artery)
79
On the pressure-volume loop graph, what happens at X1 (bottom right)?
End diastolic volume, i.e. the preload after max ventricular filling Blood filling the ventricle during diastole determines the preload that stretches the resting ventricle
80
On the pressure-volume loop graph, what happens at X2 (top right)?
BPs encountered in great vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery) represent the afterload
81
On the pressure-volume loop graph, what happens between X2 and X3 (top right-> left)?
Between X2 and X3, isotonic contraction of the ventricles occurs
82
How does the pressure-volume loop relate to the F-S relationship?
The pressure-volume loop can be fitted into the Frank Starling graph The straight line of the active force is equal to the end-systolic pressure line
83
What happens to the pressure-volume loop if you increase preload or afterload?
Increasing preload increases stroke volume (increasing X1 increases width of loop) Increased afterload decreases SV There is a greater pressure to overcome in order to open the aortic valve, therefore X2 increases and less shortening occurs
84
What is the contractile capability of the heart?
Simple measure of cardiac contractility is ejection fraction Contractility is increased by sympathetic stimulation-> Beta-adrenoreceptor activation-> increase cyclic AMP-> phosphorylation of key Ca2+ handling proteins-> Ca2+ channels open for longer-> Ca influx increased-> increased Ca2+ in cytoplasm-> increased force of contraction During exercise - Contractility is increased due to increased sympathetic activity - End diastolic volume is increased due to changes in the peripheral circulation (venoconstriction and muscle pump) Increasing contractility increases pressure and volume Decreasing contractility decreases volume and pressure
85
How long does systole take?
0.3sec
86
How long does the entire cardiac cycle take?
0.8sec
87
What is the average heart rate?
72 beats per minute
88
What is cardiac output?
Amount of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute
89
What is the formula for CO and what is a typical value?
CO = HR x SV CO= 72bpm x 70ml/beat = 5.04L/min
90
How can you calculate the equilibrium potential?
Nernst equation
91
What helps maintain the potassium concentration?
Na/K ATPase
92
What formula can be used to calculate resting membrane potential?
Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Takes into account relative permeabilities of ions
93
What is the duration of a cardiac AP compared to a nerve?
Cardiac action potential is long (several hundred milliseconds) Duration of AP controls the duration of contraction of the heart Long, slow contraction is required to produce an effective pump At rest, membrane potential determined by K
94
What is a major difference in re-excitability between skeletal and cardiac muscle?
In skeletal muscle repolarization occurs very early in the contraction phase making re-stimulation and summation of contraction possible (can-> tetanus) In cardiac muscle it is not possible to re-excite the muscle until the process of contraction is well underway hence cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized
95
Describe the graph of the cardiac AP
Steep vertical AP Plateau Gradual decline
96
Define: absolute refractory period
Time during which no AP can be initiated regardless of stimulus intensity Relates to Na channel inactivation (Na channels recover from inactivation when the membrane is repolarized)
97
Define: relative refractory period
Period after absolute refractory where an AP can be initiated but only with stimulus larger than normal
98
What is full recovery time (regarding refractory period)
The time at which a normal AP can be elicited with normal stimulus
99
What are the phases of the cardiac AP?
``` 0= upstroke (Na) 1= early repolarisation 2= plateau (Ca) 3= repolarisation (K) 4= resting membrane potential (diastole) ```
100
Describe what happens in the plateau phase of a cardiac AP
Calcium influx during early plateau-> trigger Ca release from IC stores Required for contraction Activates rapidly (within ms)
101
What calcium channel antagonists inhibit calcium channel (e.g. in plateau)?
Nifedipine Nitrendipine Nisoldipine
102
Describe what happens during repolarization in a cardiac AP
Gradual activation of K currents | Large K current that is inactive during plateau opens when cells have partially repolarised
103
What is IK1?
Current responsible for fully repolarising the cell Large Flows during diastole Stabilizes the RMP-> reduced risk of arrhythmias by requiring a large stimulus to excite the cells
104
Why do different parts of the heart have different AP shapes?
Due to different ionic currently flowing Different degrees of expression of ionic channels NB. SAN (more like skeletal AP but with bigger hyperpolarisation) and ventricular (typical cardiac graph)
105
What is the role of the SAN in initiating the electrical activity of the heart?
Most channels exist in SA node– to some extent Exception is IK1 – no IK1 in SA node Very little Na influx – upstroke produced by Ca influx in SAN Also T-type Ca channels that activate at more –ve potentials than L-type Ito is very small Pacemaker current (If) present
106
What is the natural rhythm of pacemaker cells?
Approx 80 APs (and hence heartbeats) per minute
107
What is the approximate resting potential of pacemaker cells?
-65mV (but unstable therefore-> more negative)
108
What is the pre-potential caused by?
Special inward Na+ current into pacemaker cells, along with a decrease in the membrane permeability to K+ I.e. increased Na+ influx, decreased K+ efflux
109
What influence does the sympathetic nervous system e.g. adrenaline have on pacemaker cells?
Increases Na influx | Seen by increase in pre-potential slope (therefore threshold is reached more rapidly, HR decreased)
110
What influence does the para sympathetic nervous system e.g. acetylcholine have on pacemaker cells?
Reduces Na influx | Seen by decrease in pre-potential slope ((therefore threshold is reached more slowly, HR increased)
111
What is the sino-atrial node?
Pacemaker of the heart A small mass of specialised cardiac muscle situated in the superior aspect of the right atrium Located in the anterolateral margin between the orifice of the superior vena cava and the atrium Automatic self-excitation: it initiates each beat of the heart Since the fibres of the SA node fuse with the surrounding atrial muscle fibres, AP generated in the nodal tissue spreads throughout both atria
112
At what speed does an AP generated in the nodal tissue spread throughout both atria?
0.3m/s Produces atrial contraction
113
Where are inter-nodal fibre fibres and what does it do?
Interspersed among the atrial muscle fibres | Conduct the AP to the AVN with greater velocity than ordinary muscle (1m/s)
114
Where is the AVN and what does it do?
Located at the border of the RA near the lower part of the interatrial septum Electrically connects the conduction system between atrial and ventricular chambers. Produces short delay (approx 0.1s) in transmission -> Delays fibres in AVN and special junctional fibres that connect the node with ordinary atrial fibres
115
Why does the AV node produce a short delay?
Allows atria to complete their contraction and empty their blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract
116
What is the role of the bundle of His and bundle branches?
As the AV bundle leaves the AV node, it descends in the interventricular septum for a short distance (Bundle of His) and then divides into the right and left bundle branches These comprise of specialised muscle fibres called Purkinje fibres which terminate in a finger-like fashion on the working myocardial cells They are very large; conduct the AP at about 6x the velocity of ordinary cardiac muscle (1.5 to 4.0m/s)
117
What is the role of the Purkinje fibres?
The terminal Purkinje fibres extend beneath the endocardium and penetrate approximately one-third of the distance into the myocardium They end on ordinary cardiac muscle within the ventricles, and the impulse proceeds through the ventricular muscle at about 0.3 to 0.5 meters per second. The excitation of the ventricles proceeds upward from the apex of the heart toward its base
118
What determines the extend of spread of current (in impulse propagation)?
The propagation of AP is due to a combination of passive spread of current and existence of a threshold Coupling resistance of the cells (gap junction resistance) determines extent of spread of current
119
What is the purpose of gap junctions in conduction?
Intercellular communication and impulse conduction rely on gap junctions which form at intercalated discs
120
Describe what deflections are the basis of the ECG
The effects of a wave of depolarisation are detected as the potential difference between two electrodes When a wave of depolarisation is moving TOWARDS the positive electrode it causes an UPWARD deflection When a wave of depolarisation is moving AWAY from the positive electrode it causes a DOWNWARD deflection When a wave of repolarising current is moving TOWARD the positive electrode it causes an DOWNWARD deflection When a wave of repolarising current is moving AWAY the positive electrode it causes an UPWARD deflection *Repolarising current is of opposite polarity to depolarising current
121
If the position of an ECG electrode relative to the heart is known, what can be predicted/
The waveform that it should record assuming a normal process of excitation
122
Describe chest lead configuration
Use Angle of Louis to find 2nd intercostal space V1= where the 4th intercostal space meets the sternum (on R) V2= where the 4th intercostal space meets the sternum (on L) V4= at the mid-clavicular line in the 5th intercostal space V3= between V2 and V4 V5= at the anterior axillary line in the 5th intercostal space (immediately below the beginning of the axilla, or under-arm area) V6= at the mid axillary line in the 5th intercostal space (below the centre point of the axilla)
123
Where is the neutral 'zero reference ' wire connected?
Right foot/leg= zero reference point Point of comparison so potentials can be generated Also removes effect of background electrical noise
124
Describe limb lead configuration
``` aVR= R arm aVL= L arm N= R foot aVF= R foot ```
125
What cardiac conditions can be detected with an ECG?
``` Tachyarrhythmias Bradyarrhythmias Myocardial infarction Myocardial ischaemia Cardiomyopathy Assessment of pacing Electrolyte disturbances ```
126
What is Einthoven's triangle?
Equilateral between L arm, L foot and R arm LEAD 1= R to L arm (L arm considered to be the +ve electrode) LEAD 2= R arm to L foot (L foot considered to be the +ve electrode) LEAD 3= L arm to R foot (L foot considered to be the +ve electrode)
127
What degree are leads 1, 2, and 3 considered to be at?
``` 1= 0 2= +60 3= +120 ``` I.e. The positive pole of Lead 2 is considered to be +60° to the positive pole of Lead I The positive pole of Lead 3 is considered to be +120° to the positive pole of Lead I
128
What does it mean if Lead aV is an augmented vector?
Lead aV couples with standard limb leads to form augmented vectors
129
Describe the 3 augmented leads
aV-R: R arm is considered the positive electrode, and the negative electrode is considered to be half way between the L arm and L foot +ve 0 aV-L: L arm is considered the positive electrode, and the negative electrode is considered to be half way between the R arm and R foot aV-F: L foot is considered the positive electrode, and the negative electrode is considered to be half way between the R and L arm
130
What are the standard limb leads and the augmented leads?
Standard= Leads 1, 2 and 3 Augmented= aVR, aVL and aVF
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What will the readings of augmented leads be compared to standard limb lead readings?
Bigger | Because they are coupled
132
Considering Einthoven's triangle, what are the augmented vectors?
Lead 1 is 0 aV-R is at -150° (150° above the 0° line) aV-L is at -30° (30° above the 0° line) aV-F is at +90° (90° below the 0° line, i.e. perpendicular)
133
How do you achieve a hexagonal reference system?
6 limb leads combined (standard and augmented) Arranged in 3 pairs of 2 leads which are at right angles to each other: - Lead I and aVF - Lead II and aVL - Lead III and aVR
134
Are standard or augmented limb leads bipolar?
Standard (limb leads)= bipolar | Augmented (limb leads) and V1-V6 (precordial leads)= unipolar
135
In leads 1 and 2, are P and QRS positive or negative?
Positive
136
ECG graph paper has big and small squares, what do they mean?
1 SMALL 1mmx1mm block Represents 40ms time and 0.1mV amplitude 1 LARGE 5mmx5mm block Represents 0.2s (200ms) time and 0.5mV amplitude NB. Amplitude= y Time= x
137
What deflection is caused when a wave of depolarisation is moving towards the positive electrode?
Upward (shown by positive waveform)
138
What deflection is caused when a wave of depolarisation is moving towards the negative electrode?
Downward (shown by negative waveform)
139
What is the mean vector of wave depolarisation in the ventricles?
Towards the apex of the L ventricle | May be along axis of lead 1 (i.e. at 0 degrees) OR in the direction of aVF (i.e. at +90 degrees)
140
What is the MFPA?
Mean frontal plane axis of the ventricles
141
When the waveform is positive (upward deflection), what does this mean about the direction of the wave of depolarisation and the MFPA?
The wave of depolarisation is towards the positive electrode of the MFPA
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When the waveform is negative (downward deflection), what does this mean about the direction of the wave of depolarisation and the MFPA?
The wave of depolarisation is away from the positive electrode of the MFPA
143
Why do waveforms vary in size?
If lead is exactly on MFPA, the signal will be max size (i.e. the angle between the lead and MFPA is 0, and cos0 = 1 = max) The fraction of the max signal obtained in each lead can be calculated using SOH CAH TO A (if right angled triangles are drawn)
144
Why are equipotential and negative waves measured?
The value of cos90= 0 Hence the value of (MPFA cos90) is also zero This explains why a lead with its axis at right angles to the MFPA show no signal (or a small equipotential) Cosines of angles between 90 and 270 are negative Thus when a lead is more than 90 to MFPA the ECG will show downward (negative) rather than upward deflections
145
What is the range of MFPA?
Normal range of the MFPA is between -30° and +90°, and may vary between patients This depends on the orientation of the heart in the chest If a patient has an MFPA that is more negative than -30°, they are exhibiting left axis deviation (enlarged left ventricle e.g. aortic stenosis) If a patient has an MFPA that is more positive than +90°, they are exhibiting right axis deviation (enlarged right ventricle which could be pulmonary disease)
146
How do you calculate the QRS axis?
Summation of vectors ``` EXAMPLE 1 QRS axis = Lead 1 + aVF If lead 1= +8 and aVF= +3 Tan(x) = 3/8 x = 21 degrees QRS axis = 21 degrees ``` ``` EXAMPLE 2 If lead 1= +12 and aVF= -14 Tan(x) = 14/12 x= 49 degrees QRS axis = -49 degrees Left axis deviation (more negative than -30) ``` ``` EXAMPLE 3 If lead 1= -3 and aVF= 8 Tan(x) = 3/8 x= 21 degrees QRS axis = +111 degrees Right axis deviation (more positive than +90) ```
147
Describe how chest (pre-cordial) lead recordings are obtained
6 unipolar leads Designation as V1 – V6 All electrodes are positive I.e. for each lead, chest lead is a positive pole Septum depolarisation occurs first, and is from left to right MFPA is then in the right to left direction
148
How is the QRS complex shown by pre-cordial leads?
V6 records small wave of depolarisation AWAY from the electrode, then large wave TOWARDS (qR wave) V1 records a small wave of depolarisation TOWARDS the electrode, then a large wave AWAY (rS wave seen in diagram) These combine to form the QRS complex seen on an ECG V3 records a biphasic (both direction) wave known as the transition zone The ECG then combines the recordings at the 6 chest electrodes, with the hexagonal reference system for the 6 leads (standard + augmented)
149
What is the duration and amplitude of the P wave, PR interval, QRS complex, Q wave and QT interval?
P wave= duration
150
What is normal heart rate?
60-100bpm
151
How is heart rate calculated from an ECG?
Count number of squares between each QRS complex and divide 300 by this number Count number of QRS complexes in 10 seconds, and multiply this number by 6
152
What does the PR interval represent?
Time taken for wave of depolarisation to migrate from one side of the AVN to the other The AVN acts like a safety valve to separate atrial and ventricular systole
153
What are the steps for ECG?
1. Is it the correct recording? 2. Identify the leads 3. Check the calibration and speed of the paper (25 mm/s, 1mV = 10mm) 4. Identify the rhythm 5. Look at the QRS axis 6. Look at the P wave 7. Look at the PR interval 8. Look at the QRS complex 9. Determine the position of the ST segment 10. Calculate the QT interval 11. Look at the T wave 12. Check!
154
What are common abnormalities of cardiac rhythm that can be picked up on the ECG?
``` Sinus tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT/AVRT) Pre-excitation syndrome Heart block Bundle branch block (Right BBB and left BBB) Ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic) Ventricular fibrillation ```
155
``` What abnormalities are seen in sinus tachycardia? Heart rate Rhythm P wave PR interval QRS in seconds ```
P waves have normal morphology, towards positive electrode of Lead 2 (RA-> LF, similar to axis of heart) and reverse direction of Lead aVR HEART RATE >100 bpm (Atrial 100-200, ventricular 100-200) RHYTHM Regular P WAVE Before each QRS, identical (normal) PR INTERVAL 0.12-0.20s QRS
156
``` What abnormalities are seen in atrial fibrillation? Heart rate Rhythm P wave PR interval QRS in seconds ```
P waves absent, replaced by oscillating baseline fibrillation waves HEART RATE Atrial rate= 350-600bpm (all atrial myocytes are firing rapidly, not completely efficient therefore blood pools in the atria-> compromised CO and increased stroke risk) Ventricular rate= 100-180bpm (irregular rhythm due to atria irregularity, ventricles rapidly depolarise-> narrow QRS complex) RHYTHM Irregular P WAVE Fibrillatory (fine to course) PR INTERVAL n/a QRS
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``` What abnormalities are seen in AVN reentrant tachycardia? Heart rate Rhythm P wave QRS in seconds ```
Narrow complex tachycardia Common in teenagers Re-entrat circuit within AV node HEART RATE Atria and ventricles contract at same time RHYTHM Regular or variable P WAVE Often buried within QRS or just after QRS QRS Regular
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``` What abnormalities are seen in pre-excitation syndrome? P wave PR interval QRS in seconds Characteristics ```
Accessory pathway (connect atrium to ventricle, which is an abnormal physical pathway) - 1/3= conduct antegradely (WPW) - 2/3= conduct retrogradely (concealed pathways) Depolarisation of the ventricles early (pre-excitation) - > slurring of the QRS complex and lack of regulation by the AVN - > electrical activity conducted faster - > increased HR P WAVE Before each QRS, identical (normal) PR INTERVAL 10s CHARACTERISTICS Delta wave distorts QRS Predisposes to accessory pathway tachycardias (AVRT)
159
What is a heart block?
AV nodal block ``` 1st degree (prolonged PR interval >20s) 2nd degree (Mobitz type 1 or 2) 3rd degree (complete heart block) ```
160
Describe the 2 types of 2nd degree heart blocks
MOBITZ TYPE 1 (Wenckebach) Disease of AV node Progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a blocked P wave (no QRS) Then PR interval resets and cycle repeats MOBITZ TYPE 2 Disease of His-Purkinje conduction system Intermittently non-conducted P waves not preceded by PR interval lengthening and not following by PR interval shortening
161
Describe 3rd degree heart blocks
Complete Heart Block 1st rhythm= P waves with regular P to P interval 2nd rhythm= QRS complexes with a regular R to R interval No apparent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
162
What 2 ECG changes are seen in the bundle branch block?
- QRS complex widens (>0.12s) – when the conduction pathway is blocked, it takes longer for the electrical signal to pass throughout the ventricles - QRS morphology changes – depends on lead, and R vs. L BBB
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``` What abnormalities are seen in right bundle branch block? P wave PR interval QRS in seconds Characteristics ```
Normally left bundle branch depolarizes normally but right bundle has a conduction block Wide QRS complex in leads overlying right ventricle Seen as RSR complex instead of a QRS complex (like rabbit ears) P WAVE Before each QRS, identical PR INTERVAL 0.12-0.20s QRS >0.12 CHARACTERISTICS RSR in V1
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``` What abnormalities are seen in left bundle branch block? P wave PR interval QRS in seconds Characteristics ```
Right ventricle depolarises first Wide QRS complex in leads opposite the left ventricle P WAVE Before each QRS, identical PR INTERVAL 0.12-0.20s QRS >0.12 CHARACTERISTICS RR in V5
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What abnormalities are seen in ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic)?
Medical emergency -> won’t normally see ECGs of it Irregular rapid contraction of the ventricles, not as a result of depolarisation through the normal AVN and rapid conduction system This leads to a broad QRS complex Unstable rhythm disturbance; often occurs in the middle/just after MI May lead to cardiac ischaemia
166
``` What abnormalities are seen in ventricular fibrillation? Heart rate Rhythm P wave PR interval QRS in seconds ```
Most commonly identified arrhythmia in cardiac arrest patients Ventricular muscle twitches randomly rather than in a coordinated fashion HEART RATE 300-600bpm Severe darangement (usually-> death within mins) RHYTHM Extremely irregular P WAVE Absent PR INTERVAL N/a QRS Fibrillatory baseline
167
What is the role of circulation?
To transport blood around the body To deliver oxygen, nutrients and signalling molecules To remove CO2 and metabolites To regulate temperature
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How is blood flow achieved?
By action of a muscular pump (heart) | Generates a pressure gradient that propels blood through a network of tubes (blood vessels)
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What role do the ventricles have in circulation?
Left and right ventricles are 2 pumps Physically coupled and pump through the systemic and pulmonary circulations
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Why isn't diffusion sufficient for transport?
Only for movement of materials through tissues Only effective over short distances so a capillary needs to be 10um from every cell Highly branched structure necessary
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What is the structure of the circulation?
Highly specialised Consists of different vessel types (distinct structures which are highly appropriate for their function) Large elastic arteries- act as conduits and dampening vessels Small muscular arteries Arterioles- have extensive smooth muscle in their walls so they can regulate their diameter and resistance to blood flow Capillaries- very numerous and have thin walls to facilitate transport and diffusion Venules Medium sized and large veins- highly compliant vessels which act as a reservoir for blood volume
172
What would happen in the CO from both ventricles was different?
Blood would pool CO from RV and LV needs to be same despite differences in pressue
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What is the difference in relative areas and volumes within each circulatory system?
Relatively equal
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What are capillaries primarily related to?
Exchange function
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What are veins and venules primarily related to?
Reservoir function
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What happens to the diameter and cross section of blood vessels from the aorta to the capillaries?
The diameter of the blood vessels changes dramatically from the aorta (25mm in man) to the capillaries (5um = 0.005mm) As a result of the change in diameter and the expansion of components of the vascular system due to branching there are large changes in the cross-sectional area of the vasculature at different levels Billions of capillaries and this segments represents the largest cross-sectional are of the circulation This presents a huge surface area for exchange to take place Although the volume in a single capillary is tiny, the equivalent of the whole cardiac output passes through the capillary bed every minute
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Where is the majority of blood volume contained?
Within the venous part of the circulation Regulation of capacitance of the veins and venules regulates how much blood is stored and influences venous return to the heart and ventricular work via the F-S effect in the heart
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Why does blood flow?
Due to pressure difference | Resistance important
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Describe Hales horse experiment
Very simple model of the circulation Assumes the action of the heart (pump) has established a pressure in the tank (the aorta) equivalent to 8 ft of water (as measured by Hales) – this is P1 This drives a steady flow (Q) through the circulation The branching vessels of the circulation are simplified into a single long rigid pipe for the purposes of this model Pressure drops along this pipe due to viscous losses of energy (friction), so that the pressure measured at the end (P2) is lower than at P1 – this pressure difference drives the flow (Q) At the end of the circulation the system empties into the right atrium
180
What is Ohm's law?
Electrical circuit V= I x R ``` V= voltage difference I= current flow R= resistance ```
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What is Darcy's law?
Fluid circuit P = Q x R ``` P= pressure change Q= volumetric flow R= resistance ```
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What is the formula for MBP and what causes it?
MBP = CO x PVR Relationship is an approximation since flow in the circulation is not steady Due to intermittent pumping of the heart Blood vessels are not rigid
183
How can you estimate the resistance of circulation?
Relationship between pressure and flow Regulation of flow is achieved by variation in resistance while blood pressure remains relatively constant
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What vessels are the most resistant to flow?
Small arteries and arterioles
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What is Poiseuille's equation?
R= (8Ln/πr^4) Poiseuille's equation emphasizes the importance of arterial diameter as a determinant of resistance Relatively small changes in vascular tone (vasoconstriction/ vasodilation) can produce marked changes in flow HALVING THE RADIUS DECREASES THE FLOW 16 TIMES
186
What 3 variables determine resistance?
Fluid viscosity (n, eta) -> not fixed but in most physiological conditions is constant Length of tube/vessel (L)- > fixed- lengths of blood vessels remain constant Inner radius of tube/vessel (r)-> variable- main determinant of resistance
187
What is the difference in blood flow distribution to organs at rest and during exercise?
During exercise, don't need blood flow to kidneys
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What kinds of flow occur in vessels?
Laminar flow Viscosity Shear rate
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What is laminar flow?
The normal circulation flow is laminar, i.e. the fluid behaves as if it flows in layers or streamlines shear Laminar flow can be demonstrated by injecting a dye into fluid
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What is viscosity?
``` Dynamic viscosity (µ) is a measure of the resistance of a fluid to deform under shear stress ``` Resistance arises as a result of the resistance due to friction between fluid laminae moving at different velocities
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What is shear rate?
Shear rate = S = dv/dr u= velocity of blood flow r= radial dimension A force per unit area (the pressure difference) is needed to move the fluid in opposition to viscosity The flow velocity on the surface of the vessel wall is zero (so called no slip condition) but in a flowing fluid, the velocity of each lamina increases progressively as you move further way from the wall The spatial velocity gradient is called the shear rate (s)
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What is the shear stress (τ)?
Shear rate x dynamic viscosity τ = (dv/dr) x µ µ= dynamic viscosity
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What happens to the velocity of layers as distance from the wall increases?
Velocity of layers increases
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What does it mean to have 'high shear stress'?
High shear stress, as found in laminar flow, promotes: - Endothelial cell survival and quiescence - Cell alignment in the direction of flow - Secretion of substances that promote vasodilation and anticoagulation
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What does it mean to have 'low shear stress'?
Low shear stress, or changing shear stress direction as found in turbulent flow, promotes: - Endothelial proliferation and apoptosis - Shape change, and secretion of substances that promote vasoconstriction - Coagulation, and platelet aggregation
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What is the formula for pulse pressure?
PP = SBP - DBP Pulse pressure = systolic bp - diastolic bp
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What is the formula for mean blood pressure?
MBP = DBP + 1/3PP
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How are systolic and diastolic pressure recorded?
SBP/DBP (e.g. 110/70)
199
When does the aortic valve open?
During systole | Due to the difference in pressure between the ventricles and the aorta
200
What causes the difference in ventricular and aortic pressure in diastole?
When the aortic valve closes Ventricular pressure falls rapidly BUT aortic pressure only falls slowly in diastole (Due to elasticity of the aorta and large arteries which buffer change in pulse pressure)
201
How is arterial compliance related to pulse pressure?
During ejection, blood enters the aorta and other elastic arteries faster than it leaves them ~40% of the stroke volume is stored by the elastic arteries When the aortic valve closes, ejection ceases but due to recoil of the elastic arteries, pressure falls slowly and there is diastolic flow in the downstream circulation This damping effect is sometimes termed the “Windkessel”
202
How much of the stroke volume is stored by the elastic arteries?
40%
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What is 'Windkessel'?
The damping effect Reduced by age and when arteries become stiffer (decreased arterial compliance) NB. PP increases
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What is circumferential stress?
σ = tension force (T) / wall thickness (h) Tension force (according to Law of Laplace= P x r) σ = (P x r) / h
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What does maintained high circumferential stress cause?
Vessel distension
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How do aneurysms occur?
Over a prolonged period, vessel walls can weaken causing a balloon-like distension (aneurysm) As a result of the Law of Laplace, if an aneurysm forms in a blood vessel wall, the radius of the vessel increases This means that for the same internal pressure, the inward force exerted by the muscular wall must also increase However, if the muscle fibres have weakened, the force needed can't be produced and so the aneurysm will continue to expand Often until it ruptures (Same way diverticuli form in the gut)
207
Define: compliance
The relationship between transmural pressure and vessel volume Depends of vessel elasticity
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What is the difference between the compliance of arteries and veins?
Venous compliance is 10-20x greater than arterial compliance at low pressures
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What happens to compliance in veins during smooth muscle contraction?
Increasing smooth muscle contraction decreases venous volume and increases venous pressure (so-> lower compliance) Most blood volume is stored in the veins
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How does standing (gravity) affect circulation?
Venous reservoir not always at the same level as heart (in many bipeds) Standing increases hydrostatic pressure in leg to ~80mmHg as a result of gravity (h·ρ·g) Height x density x gravitational force Blood transiently “pools” in the veins due to their compliance and reduces venous return to the heart (affects transmural pressure) This would reduce cardiac output and blood pressure if there were no compensatory response BUT the gradient of pressure from large artery to capillary to vein is maintained so flow still occurs in the same way Major effect of gravity is on the distensible veins in the leg and the volume of blood contained in them
211
Why don't people (generally) faint when they stand?
AUTONOMIC RESPONSES Activate sympathetic NS to: - Constrict venous smooth muscle and stiffen veins (myogenic venoconstriction) - Constrict arteries to increase resistance and maintain bp - Increase HR and force of contraction (and maintain CO) MECHANICAL RESPONSES Muscle and 'respiratory pumps' improve venous return BUT cerebral blood flow falls on standing
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What happens if muscle and respiratory 'pumps' fail (in compliance)?
Incompetent valves cause dilated superficial veins in the leg (varicose) Prolonged elevation of venous pressure-> oedema in feet
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Outline the types of blood vessel and their main function
Arteries- thick muscular walls-> stabilise pulsatile flow Capillaries– very thin walls-> facilitate gas and solute exchange Veins– one-way valves-> maintain unidirectional flow
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What is the vascular endothelium and what are its functions?
Single cell layer that acts as the blood-vessel interface Endocrine organ Different roles including: - Vascular tone management (secretes and metabolises vasoactive substances) - Thrombostasis (prevents clots/adhering molecules) - Absorption and secretion (passive/active transport via diffusion/channels) - Barrier (prevents atheroma development) - Growth (mediates cell proliferation) VTABG (vascular topics are bloody grim)
215
List vascular endothelium mediators
``` Nitric oxide (NO) Prostacycline (PGI2) Thromboxane (TXA2) Endothelin-1 (ET-1) Angiotensin II (Ang II) ```
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What are the effects of NO on smooth muscle, myocytes and platelets?
SMOOTH MUSCLE Relaxation and inhibition of growth MYOCYTES Increased blood flow Enhanced contractility PLATELETS Inhibits aggregation
217
What are the effects of PGI2 on smooth muscle, myocytes and platelets?
SMOOTH MUSCLE Relaxation and inhibition of growth MYOCYTES Increased blood flow PLATELETS Inhibits aggregation
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What are the effects of TXA2 on smooth muscle, myocytes and platelets?
SMOOTH MUSCLE Contraction MYOCYTES Decreased blood flow PLATELETS Stimulates aggregation
219
What are the effects of ET-1 on smooth muscle, myocytes and platelets?
SMOOTH MUSCLE Contraction Weak stimulation of growth MYOCYTES Decreased blood flow Enhanced contractility PLATELETS No effect
220
What are the effects of Ang II on smooth muscle, myocytes and platelets?
SMOOTH MUSCLE Contraction Stimulation of growth MYOCYTES Decreased blood flow, remodelling and fibrosis PLATELETS No effect
221
What effect do mediators have on vascular tone?
``` Vasodilation= NO, ET-1, PGI2 Vasoconstriction= TXA2, ET-1, ANGII ``` Imbalance of mediators-> either vasodilation or vasoconstriction
222
What is the half life of NO?
Short
223
How is NO released?
Release is induced by physical force, as well as by acetylcholine or hormones Precursor is L-arginine, which is cleaved by e-NOS (NO synthase enzyme present in all endothelial cells, whose function is Ca2+ dependent) ACh binding on endothelial receptors activates the phospholipase C 2nd messenger pathway-> increase in Ca2+ which activates the e-NOS enzyme The NO then migrates to target (smooth muscle), where is converted to cyclic-GMP by soluble guanylyl cyclase (s-GC) The cyclic-GMP activates PKG, which causes vasodilation and a decrease in Ca2+ The c-GMP has a short half life, as it is rapidly broken down by phosphoesterases This is known as flow-induced vasodilation and is a response to increased sheer stress in blood vessels
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What is flow-induced vasodilation important in?
Thermoregulation Penile erection (NO)
225
How can endothelium-dependent vasodilatation be measured?
Laser doppler flowmetry (looks at ACh delivery) Flow-mediated dilatation (with US)
226
How are prostacyclin and thromboxane released?
Precursor is arachidonic acid Converted under the influence of cyclo-oxygenase (COX) 2 isoforms of COX: COX1= healthy CVS COX2= active in unhealthy CVS COX1 and 2 act on the arachnidonic acid-> convert to PGC2 and then PGH2 PROSTACYCLIN Prostacyclin synthase acts on PGH2 to synthesise prostaglandins Prostacylin acts on IP receptors-> vasodilation and inhibition of platelets (can reduce atherosclerosis) THROMBOXANE Thromboxane synthase acts of PGH2 to synthesise thromboxane TXA2 also converted to TXB2 Thromboxane acts on TP receptors -> vasoconstriction and stimulation of platelets (increases atherosclerosis)
227
How are ET-1 released?
Derived from nucleus of endothelial cell At times of pathophysiological insult, transcription of the prepro-ET1 mRNA occurs, which is then translated to form the precursor prepro-ET1 Prepro-ET1 is then converted to pro-ET1, which is then finally converted to ET-1 by ECE-1 (endothelin converting enzyme 1)
228
What controls transcription of ET-1?
INHIBITION Prostacyclin Nitric oxide ANP, Heparin, HGF & EGF ``` STIMULATION Adrenaline Ang II Vasopressin Steroids IL-1, TGF-β, Endotoxin, endothelin, VECF, tacrolimus, CsA ```
229
Where are ET-1 receptors?
ON SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS ETA – leads to contraction of the smooth muscle ETB – leads to contraction of the smooth muscle ON ENDOTHELIAL CELLS ETB – binding causes NO to be produced, which then in turn acts on the smooth muscle cells with a vasodilatory effect Inhibiting ET-1 pathway produces vasodilation (can have therapeutic potential)
230
What is the structure of ET-1?
Endothelin-1 is a very potent vasoconstrictor It has a polypeptide chain consisting of 21 amino acids Specific conformation due to the bods between cysteine molecules
231
Outline the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Angiotensinogen with renin-> angiotensin I Angiotensin I with ACE-> angiotensin II
232
What is renin?
An enzyme from the kidneys produced in response to decreased blood pressure Converts angiotensinogen (from the liver)-> angiotensin I Released due to: - A decrease in the renal perfusion pressure - A decrease of blood pressure in the pre-glomerular vessels - A decrease in arterial blood pressure - Haemorrhage, salt and water loss, hypotension (low blood pressure) - A change in Cl- (or Na+) ion concentration - β1-receptor activation in the kidney (sympathetic nervous system) - NaCl reabsorption at macula densa (a group of cells in the glomerulus)
233
What is ACE?
Angiotensin converting enzyme Converts angiotensin I-> II Simultaneously degrades bradykinin on epithelial cells (acts on beta-1 receptors to release vasodilators)
234
What does Angiotensin II lead to (regarding BP)?
TO INCREASE WATER RETENTION ADH secretion Aldosterone secretion Tubular sodium reabsorption TO INCREASE VASCULAR RESISTANCE Arteriolar vasoconstriction (enhanced peripheral resistance) Sympathoexcitation Increased water retention and increased vascular resistance-> increased blood pressure
235
As well increasing blood pressure, what are the additional effects of the RAAS system?
OXIDATIVE STRESS NAD(P)H oxidase activity Reactive oxygen species LDL peroxidation INFLAMMATION Vascular permeability Activation of signalling pathways Inflammatory mediators REMODELLING Matrix deposition VSMC proliferation MMP activation ENDOTHELIAL DYSFUNCTION Platelet aggregation Vasoconstriction
236
How can NO bioavailability be increased?
Stimulate NO production-> endothelium-dependent-> acetylcholine Enhance the effects of NO-> prevents counterproductive processes-> viagra 'Donate' ready-to-use NO-> endothelium independent-> GTN, nicorandil, ISMN
237
List types and examples of drugs involved in NO pharmacology
NO- donors e.g. nitroglycerine, nitroprusside E-NOS activators e.g. endothelium-dependent vasodilators Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e.g. Viagra, zaprinast
238
How do NO donors work?
Nitrovasodilators donate NO Increase NO concentration in smooth muscles cells (where it is converted to cyclic-GMP by soluble guanylyl cyclase s-GC) cGMP activates pKG-> vasodilation and decreased calcium concentration
239
How does viagra work?
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor | Stops phosphodiesterase breaking down cGMP so excess cGMP activity-> vasodilation
240
How does aspirin work?
Works by balancing the effects of thromboxane and prostacyclin Effects of 75mg of aspirin over 7 days: - > Prostacyclin production reduction of 10% each day - > Reduction of thromboxane production 10% more each day (i.e. -10%, -20%, -30% etc) Aspirin causes irreversible inhibition of COX enzymes COX-1 Aspirin acetylation inactivates enzyme COX-2 Aspirin acetylation switches its function (to generating protective lipids)
241
What is the difference in COX inhibition between aspirin and other NSAIDs?
Aspirin causes irreversible inhibition of COX enzymes Other non-specific NSAIDs cause reversible inhibition COX-2-specific inhibitors cause reversible inhibition of COX-2 isoforms only
242
What are calcium channel blockers?
Drugs that do not act by modifying endogenous receptors or enzymes, but increase or decrease IC Ca by affecting the entry of Ca into the cell Vasodilation-> reduced afterload and increased Q Negative ionotropic effects Prevent coronary artery vasospasm which makes them very useful in the treatment of variant angina
243
What are voltage-gated calcium channels and why is calcium important?
Mediate calcium influx in response to membrane depolarisation Calcium acts as an intracellular ‘second messenger’ in transduction pathways Regulate intracellular processes such as: - Actin-myosin interaction - Membrane transport - Neurotransmission - Gene expression Activity is essential to couple electrical signals in the cell surface to physiological events in cells
244
How do calcium channel blockers know which channel to block?
Their affinity for channel is related to the membrane potential of the target cells
245
What happens to smooth muscle cells and cardiac myocytes (response, resting Em, -ve potentials) when calcium channels are blocked?
SMOOTH MUSCLE CELL Response= vasodilation Resting Em= -50mV -ve potentials= higher CARDIAC MYOCYTE Response= negative inotrope Resting Em= -80mV -ve potentials= lower
246
What are dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers used for?
Often used to reduce systemic blood pressure, NOT to treat angina because the vasodilation and hypotension can lead to reflex tachycardia
247
What are the side effects of vasoactive mediation?
Our body often uses the same chemical to regulate multiple processes Interaction between different systems in the body Unfortunately, drugs are not always tissue-specific Receptor expression and distribution varies between tissues
248
What is the autonomic nervous system comprised of?
Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems Sympathetic NS is organized around the thoracic and lumbar SC No sympathetic innervation in the bronchi but practically everywhere else
249
Outline autonomic cardiovascular control
Hypothalamic autonomic centre receives input from: - Cardiac baroreceptors - Arterial baroreceptors - Carotid sinus baroreceptors - Aorta baroreceptors - > Brainstem solitary tract nucleus - Vagus nerve - Sympathetic outflow Outputs-> - Sinus node - B2 receptor (via vagus nerve) - a1 receptors (end of pre-ganglionic neurone) - a2 receptors (in arterioles)
250
How do baroreceptor responses influence blood pressure?
Baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to stretch Increased stretch-> increased frequency of impulses to hypothalamic autonomic centre Increased frequency of impulses-> reduced inhibition of sympathetic activity from solitary tract nucleus-> increased vasoconstriction-> increased BP
251
What is the sympathetic outflow of effector nerves?
Paravertebral sympathetic chain ganglion – neurotransmitter is acetylcholine therefore is a cholinergic receptor Post-ganglionic fibre contains lots of noradrenaline vesicles which are released on depolarisation, binding to the adrenergic receptor on the effect organ The NA is then either taken up by the neurone and repackaged, or taken up by the effector organ and broken down by COMT
252
What is the parasympathetic outflow of effector nerves?
Parasympathetic ganglia are in or near effector organ, and involve acetylcholine Effector organ also has cholinergic receptor, which binds to the acetylcholine released by the postganglionic neurone This acetylcholine is then recycled
253
Explain the synthesis, release and removal of noradrenaline
Noradrenaline and adrenaline are synthesised in the terminal variscosity (fusion, exocytosis, biosynthesis replenishes granular criteria) Tyrosine into variscosity Tyrosine-> DOPA-> dopamine Dopamine into vesicle Dopamine-> NA
254
How are catecholamines removed from the neuro-effector junctional synapse?
NA and A removed via uptake systems Neuronal reuptake and recycling, or degradation into deaminated metabolites by MAO Extraneuronal uptake into effector organ and degradation by COMT or MAO
255
What types of adrenoceptors are there in the sympathetic nervous system?
EXCITATORY EFFECTS ON SMOOTH MUSCLE a-adrenoceptor-mediated -> Increase in IC Ca RELAXANT EFFECTS ON SMOOTH MUSCLE AND STIMULATORY ON THE HEART b-adrenoceptor-mediated -> Increased cAMP-> increased Ca in heart but decreased Ca in smooth muscle
256
Where are beta-adrenoceptors located?
b1-adrenoceptors located on: - Cardiac muscle - Smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract b2-adrenoceptors located on: - Bronchial, vascular and uterine smooth muscle Recent addition to classification: b3-adrenoceptors: found on fat cells (adipocytes) and possibly on smooth muscle of GI tract Involved in thermogenesis but few B3Rs in humans so unlikely to be that useful in ‘slimming-solver’
257
Where are alpha-adrenoceptors located?
a1-adrenoceptors: Located post-synaptically i.e. predominantly on effector cells Important in mediating constriction of resistance vessels in response to sympathomimetic amines a2 -adrenoceptors: Located on presynaptic nerve terminal membrane Their activation by released transmitter causes negative feedback inhibition of further transmitter release Some are post-synaptic on vascular smooth muscle
258
What are adrenoceptors coupled to?
a1 with GPCR which activates the PLC pathway-> increased free calcium and activated protein kinases (IP3/DAG) a2 and b with GPCR which activates adenylyl cyclase (ATP-> cAMP-> decreased IC Ca)
259
Which catecholamines act on which adrenoceptors?
NATURAL Noradrenaline- a1, a2, b1 Adrenaline- a1, a2, b1, b2 Dopamine- weak effects at a1 and b1 (has own Rs) SYNTHESIC Isoprenaline- b1, b2 (unselective beta agonist) Phenylephrine- a1
260
What do noradrenaline, adrenaline and isoprenaline do to SBP, DBP, MBP and heart rate?
``` NORADRENALINE SBP= !!! increase DBP= !! increase MBP= !! increase Heart rate= ! decrease ``` ``` ADRENALINE SBP= !! increase DBP= ! decrease MBP= ! increase Heart rate= ! increase ``` ``` ISOPRENALINE SBP= ! increase DBP= !! decrease MBP= ! decrease or same Heart rate= !! increase ``` (!'s to show relative strength)
261
What effect does adrenaline have on TPR?
Adrenaline tends to reduce TPR
262
What effect do noradrenaline, adrenaline and isoprenaline have on major vascular bed (skin, visceral, renal, coronary, skeletal)?
SKIN (a Rs) NA= constriction A= constriction ISO= no effect VISCERAL (a Rs) NA= constriction A= constriction ISO= no effect (slight dilation) RENAL (a and b Rs) NA= constriction A= constriction ISO= no effect (slight dilation) CORONARY (a and b1 Rs) NA= dilation A= dilation ISO= dilation ``` SKELETAL MUSCLE (a and b2 Rs) NA= constriction A= dilation ISO= dilation ```
263
What enzymes are involved in angiotensinogen-> angiotensin I-> angiotensin II (-> angiotensin III)?
Renin ACE Aminopeptidase
264
What are angiotensin II type 1 (AT1) receptors ?
Angiotensin II Type 1 (AT1) receptors G-protein coupled; Gi and Gq Also couples to phospholipase A2 Located in blood vessels, brain, adrenal, kidney and heart Activation of AT1 Rs works to increase bp Ucosuric effect (not all) No effects of Bradykinin system
265
What are the effects of angiotensin II?
``` Peripheral resistance (-> rapid pressor response) Renal function (-> slow pressor response) Cardiovascular structure (-> vascular and cardiac hypertrophy and remodelling) ```
266
How does angiotensin II affect peripheral resistance?
Direct vasoconstriction There is enhanced action of peripheral noradrenaline - > Increased norandrenaline release - > Decreased noradrenaline uptake Increased sympathetic discharge (CNS) Release of catecholamines from the adrenal glands. These all act to produce a rapid pressor response
267
How does angiotensin II affect renal clearance?
Direct effects to increase Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule Synthesis and release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex Altered renal haemodynamics - > Renal vasoconstriction - > Enhanced noradrenaline effects on the kid These all act to produce a slow pressor response
268
How does angiotensin II affect cardiovascular structure?
HAEMODYNAMIC EFFECTS Increased preload and afterload Increased vascular wall tension NON-HAEMODYNAMIC EFFECTS Increased expression of proto-oncogenes Increased production of growth factors Increased synthesis of extracellular matrix proteins These all act to induce vascular and cardiac hypertrophy and remodelling
269
What is ACE an enzyme for?
In RAAS= angiotensin I to II (so increased BP) Breaking down of bradykinin-> inactive so vasodilation can;t happen so BP not decreased
270
What happens in ACE is inhibited?
Prevents angiotensin II production-> reduces BP Stops bradykinin from breaking down so bradykinin-> vasodilation-> decreased BP
271
What does aldosterone do?
PHYSIOLOGICAL EFFECTS Maintains body content of Na+, K+ (and water) Increases Na+ (and hence water) retention Increases K+ (and H+) excretion
272
Where are aldosterone receptors found?
Previously only knew kidneys, now know brain, heart, vessels
273
What are the pathophysiological effects in CVD?
Myocardial fibrosis and necrosis Inflammation, vascular fibrosis and injury Prothrombotic effects – impaired fibrinolysis Central hypertensive effects Endothelial dysfunction Autonomic dysfunction: - Catecholamine potentiation - Decreased heart rate variability Ventricular arrhythmias Sodium retention Potassium and magnesium loss
274
How do the sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin system modulate the behaviour of the CV system in stress?
Sympathoadrenal systemrenin-angiotensin system ``` On both the sympathoadrenal system, and the renin-angiotensin system: Increased blood pressure Increased heart rate Increased Na+/water retention Increased coagulation Decreased fibrinolysis Increased platelet activation ```
275
What is resistance?
Hindrance to blood flow due to friction between moving and stationary vascular walls
276
What is blood flow rate?
Volume of blood passing through a vessel per unit time
277
What types of vessels make up the branching structure of the microvasculature?
1st order arterioles Terminal arterioles (perpendicular to arterioles and venules) Capillaries (network between arterioles and veins) Pericytic venule (post-capillary, perpendicular to venules and arterioles) Venules
278
What are arterioles and why is their pressure important?
The major resistance vessels Pressure= 93mmHg (much higher than in capillaries e.g. 37mmHg) Without this pressure difference, blood would not reach tissue capillary beds Arteriolar SM normally displays a state of partial constriction at rest -> Vascular tone
279
What functions are radii of arterioles adjusted independently to accomplish?
Match blood flow to the metabolical needs of specific tissues= INTRINSIC (Chemical e.g. metabolic and physical e.g. stretch) Help regulate arterial blood pressure= EXTRINSIC (Neural e.g. symp. output and hormonal e.g. adrenaline, ATII, AVP)
280
How do arterioles match blood flow to the metabolical needs of specific tissues?
Arteriole radii adjustments depending on body’s momentary needs Regulated by local (intrinsic) controls (independent of nerves or hormones) CHEMICAL Active hyperemia e.g. skeletal muscle in initial exercise Increased metabolism-> increased oxygen usage and glucose requirement Sensed by tissue-> reflex vasodilation of arterioles PHYSICAL E.g. reduced blood temp on superficial structures e.g. skin Sensed locally Rebound vasoconstriction-> divert blood from the tissue-> decrease blood flow PHYSICAL E.g. stretch Autoregulatory response to physical stretch of arterioles Myogenic vasoconstriction occurs (e.g. gut during exercise)-> increased vascular resistance hence reducing blood flow
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How do arterioles help regulate arterial blood pressure?
Controlling resistance in all tissues-> can control the MAP (MAP=CO x TRP) NEURAL Cardiovascular control centre (CCC) in medulla-> sends vasoconstriction signal which decreases flood flow to all organs Can be used after significant blood loss-> preserves MAP but not good long term (-> dysfunction and infarction) a receptors within periphery and B receptors in heart respond to this neural signal (B receptors especially important as they can result in an increase in HR) HORMONAL Vasoconstrictors - Vasopressin- posterior pituitary gland - Angiotensin II- lungs Hormones which act on a and B receptors to increase sympathetic activity - Adrenaline and noradrenaline
282
How is the design of capillaries useful for its function?
Single cell wall (1 micrometer diameter) Diameter of lumen (7 micrometers) Extensive branching increases surface area -> Minimise diffusion distance and time Maximise surface area
283
What does the capillary network depend on?
Highly metabolically active tissues – denser capillary networks E.g. skeletal muscle, myocardium, brain, lung However not all capillaries dilated at once, e.g. at rest only 10% of capillaries are dilated in skeletal muscle
284
What are the possible structure types of capillaries?
Continuous Fenestrated Discontinuous
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How are continuous capillaries arranged?
Most common – continuous flattened endothelial cells with water-filled gap junctions As blood flows through the capillary: - Nutrients diffuse across junctions - Lipo molecules diffuse across cells - Transport proteins present to transport larger molecules into tissues E.g. BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER: modified continuous capillary of the brain - Very tight gap junctions reduce capacity for a large number of small molecules diffusing into the brain tissue - More selective control of transport than tissues
286
How are fenestrated capillaries arranged?
Circular fenestrae (circular holes approx. 80 nm large) allow slightly larger molecules to leave the blood and enter the tissues E.g. GLOMERULUS kidney nephron
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How are discontinuous capillaries arranged?
Very large gap junctions, therefore large molecules i.e. WBCs can leave blood and enter tissues (and vice versa) E.g. BONE MARROW
288
What are Starling's forces?
Hydrostatic pressure (heart, outward flow into surrounding tissues) Oncotic pressure (protein, inward into capillaries)-> generates osmotic force
289
What is bulk flow?
Volume of protein free plasma that filters out of the capillary, mixes with the surrounding interstitial fluid (IF) and is reabsorbed Affected by HP and COP
290
Describe Starling's hypothesis
Needs to be a balance between the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the capillaries and the oncotic attraction of the blood for the surrounding fluids HP pressure determines transudation COP determines absorption Oncotic pressure remains relatively constant but there are changes in the hydrostatic pressure
291
What happens when there are changes in the hydrostatic pressure?
Hydrostatic pressure at venous end of capillary is in the IF, there is a net loss of fluid into the surrounding tissues (Hydrostatic pressure > Oncotic pressure) VENOUS END Reabsorption- when the oncotic pressure > hydrostatic pressure, there is a net reabsorption of fluid back into the capillary There is a net loss of fluid from the capillaries, as the oncotic pressure is never great enough to reabsorb all the fluid lost by ultrafiltration Therefore a mechanism is required for the return of this loss of fluid to the capillaries – this is the role of the lymphatic system
292
What is the role of the lymphatic system?
To return the loss of fluid to the capillaries Loss of fluid as the oncotic pressure is never enough to reabsorb all the fluid lost by ultrafiltration
293
Describe the structure and function of lymphatic capillaries
Permeate every tissue Blind ended Large, permeable water filled channels surrounded by a single layer of endothelial cells Blind ended means they can't form complete loop so fluid which enters can't leave Excess fluid in capillaries is drained back into blood
294
What is the purpose of lymph nodes?
Important for immune surveillance (defence mechanism) Filled with immune cells (excess fluid passes through the lymph nodes before draining into the blood) Spleen organ acts as giant lymph node
295
Where does the lymph flow drain?
No heart to induce flow R lymphatic duct, thoracic duct R and L subclavian veins
296
How much is returned per day from the lymphatic system into the blood?
3L/day returned from lymphatic system into blood
297
What happens in the lymphatic system fails?
Lymphatic failure-> fluid accumulation-> oedema
298
What does vein constriction determine?
Compliance | Venous return
299
What does arteriole constriction determine?
Blood flow to organs they serve MABP Pattern of distribution of blood to organs
300
Define: autoregulation (regarding blood flow)
The intrinsic capacity to compensate for changes in perfusion pressure by changing vascular resistance
301
What are the 3 main reasons for autoregulation?
Myogenic theory Metabolic theory Injury (serotonin release from platelets-> constriction)
302
What is myogenic theory?
Smooth muscle fibres respond to tension in the vessel wall | E.g. as pressure rises, muscle fibres contract and stretch-sensitive channels are involved
303
What is metabolic theory?
As blood flow decreases, 'metabolites' accumulate and vessels dilate When flow increases, 'metabolites' are washed away E.g. CO2, H, adenosine, K
304
What substances are released from the endothelium?
Nitric oxide (endothelium-derived relaxing factor, synthesised from arginine, plays key role in vasodilation) Prostacyclin and thromboxane A2 (vasodilator and vasoconstrictor, relative amounts important for clotting) Endothelins (potent vasocontrictors)
305
What extrinsic circulating hormones are involved in systemic regulation of blood flow by hormones?
KININS (e.g. bradykinin) Complex interaction with RAAS Relax vascular smooth muscle ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) Secreted from the cardiac atria Visodilatory CIRCULATING VASOCONSTRICTORS ADH (VP) secreted from posterior pituitary NA released from adrenal medulla Angiotensin II formed by increased renin secretion from kidney
306
How does the autonomic nervous system controls blood vessel diameter and heart rate?
SYMPATHETIC The sympathetic nervous system is important in controlling the circulation (innervate all vessels except capillaries, precapillary sphincters and some metarterioles) - Noradrenaline and adrenaline - Fibres originate in thoracic and lumbar nerves - Short pre-ganglionic fibres with long post-ganglionic fibres that release noradrenaline PARASYMPATHETIC Parasympathetic NS is important in regulating HR, but has no effect on vessel radius - Fibres originate in cranial and sacral nerves - Long pre-ganglionic fibres with short post-ganglionic fibres that release acetylcholine At all pre-ganglionic fibres, acetylcholine is released
307
Describe the distribution of sympathetic fibres
More innervating the vessels supplying kidneys, gut, spleen and skin Fewer innervating skeletal muscle and the brain
308
What is the vasomotor centre (VMC) in the brain?
VMC is located bilaterally in the reticular substance of the medulla and the lower third of the pons Composed of a vasoconstrictor (pressor) area, a vasodilator (depressor) area and a cardio-regulatory inhibitory area VMC transmits impulses distally through SC to almost all blood vessels Many higher centres of the brain such as the hypothalamus can exert powerful excitatory or inhibitory effects on the VMC Lateral portions of VMC controls heart activity by influencing HR and contractility Medial portion of VMC transmits signals via vagus nerve to heart that tend to decrease HR
309
How is blood vessel diameter controlled by nervous system?
Blood vessels receive sympathetic post-ganglionic innervation NT= noradrenaline Always some level of tonic activity Control of nerve activity can accomplish dilation or constriction Generally no parasympathetic innervation to vascular system
310
What contributes to vessel radius?
Sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves Local controls- O2, K+, CO2, H+, osmolarity, metabolites Circulating hormones e.g. NA
311
What autonomic features increase HR?
Increasing activity of sympathetic nerves to heart Decreasing activity of parasympathetic nerves to heart Increasing plasma adrenaline
312
How does contractility rely on extrinsic mechanisms?
Noradrenaline binds to the beta1- adrenoreceptor present on the membrane of myocytes Binding causes the increase in cyclic AMP which activates PKA (protein kinase A) This activation leads to the phosphorylation of Ca2+ handling proteins and channels, e.g. the L type Ca channel The channel is then open for longer, which leads to a greater delivery of Ca2+ to myofilaments, increasing force of contraction
313
How is stroke volume controlled?
EXTRINSIC (to increase SV) Increase activity of sympathetic nerves to heart Increase plasma adrenaline INTRINSIC (to increase SV) Increased end diastolic ventricular volume (due to Starling’s law- increased venous return-> increased stretch and preload-> increased force)
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What increases end diastolic volume?
Increased respiratory movements-> decrease in intrathoracic pressure Increased venous return Increased atrial pressure (also increased by increased venous return)
315
What increases heart rate?
Increased plasma adrenaline Increased activity of sympathetic nerves to the heart Decreased activity of parasympathetic nerves to the heart
316
What does the fight or flight response affect?
Leads to: Increased circulating catecholamines (plasma adrenaline) -> affects SV and HR-> affects CO Increased respiratory movements -> affects SV-> affects CO Increased sympathetic activity -> affects SV and HR-> affects CO
317
How does feedback work with a controlled variable?
Set point (determined within CNS) Comparator (within CNS) Output (SNS, PNS, Ang II, ADH) Controlled variable (arterial bp) DISTURBANCE-> affects controlled variable Sensory (baroreceptors) Back to comparator
318
What are baroreceptors?
Afferent neurone cell bodies from the internal carotid arteries to the brain via the glossopharyngeal Afferent neurone cell bodies from aortic arch to brain via vagus nerve Both the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve input lead to increased activity in the VMC Increased blood pressure -> increased afferent activity to brain (although increase is sigmoidal) Baroreceptors respond to changes in arterial pressure
319
Where are baroreceptors reflexes more sensitive?
Baroreceptors reflex most sensitive around 90 – 100 mmHg Carotid sinus baroreceptors respond to pressures between 60 and 180 mmHg
320
Describe how reciprocal innervation allows control of the heart?
PARASYMPATHETIC Afferent input stimulates parasympathetic nerves to heart Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart decreases HR SYMPATHETIC Simultaneously inhibits sympathetic innervation to heart, arterioles and veins Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart decreases HR and SV Decreased sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels -> vasodilation
321
How do baroreceptors control blood pressure?
Increased afferent input via vagus nerve to VMC in medulla oblongata - > Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart via vagus nerve - > Decreased heart rate - > Decreased blood pressure - > Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart - > Decreased heart rate and stroke volume - > Decreased cardiac output - > Decreased blood pressure Also via sympathetic chain, there is decreased sympathetic stimulation to the blood vessels, which produces vasodilation (may cause blood supply redistribution to different organs) Opposite if blood pressure faths
322
How does impulse activity change in the carotid sinus nerve when BP in increased or decreased?
Decreased blood pressure - > Reduced stretch of baroreceptors - > Decreased afferent activity to VMC via carotid sinus nerve - > Decreased efferent activity via vagus nerve to SAN (parasympathetic) - > Increased heart rate - > Increased sympathetic activity via cardiac nerve to ventricle - > Increased heart rate and increased contractility - > Increased sympathetic activity via vasoconstrictor nerves to resistance vessels (arterioles) and capacitance vessels (veins) - > Increased constriction Increased blood pressure (reverse occurs) Sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves allow the control of venous return
323
What baroreceptor response is triggered by a haemorrhage?
Reduced blood volume - > Reduced venous pressure and return to heart - > Reduced atrial pressure - > Reduced end diastolic volume - > Reduced stroke volume and cardiac output - > Decreased blood pressure
324
Describe arterial and venous pressures (heart, head and feet) when lying flat and when standing
LYING FLAT Arterial heart= 100 Arterial head= 95 Arterial feet= 95 Venous heart= 1 Venous head= 5 Venous feet= 5 STANDING Arterial heart= 100 Arterial head= 55 Arterial feet= 195 Venous heart= 1 Venous head= -35 Venous feet= 105 All pressures (mmHg)
325
With vertical posture, how is pressure in the body affected?
Below heart, working against gravity In a foot capillary, usual bp= resulting from cardiac contraction= 25mmHg On standing, additional effect of gravity on a column of blood-> increase to 105mmHg Standing also increases hydrostatic pressure in blood vessels in the legs (Particularly extensive in venous system-> blood pools in veins which are easily distended due to expandable thin muscular wall) If hydrostatic pressure > oncotic pressure - > Fluid forced into surrounding tissue beds - > Reduces effective circulating blood volume - > Decreased bp More blood in veins= less in arteries= lower blood pressure End result= reduced venous return-> decreased end-diastrolic volume -> Decreased stroke volume Transient hypotension
326
What compensatory mechanisms are present when standing?
Decrease in blood pressure is detected by arterial baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch -> decreased firing to VMC Max baroreceptor sensitivity occurs near normal mean arterial blood pressure Effects of decreased blood pressure -> reduced afferent input via vagus nerve to VMC in medulla oblongata Reduced parasympathetic stimulation of the heart via vagus nerve Reduced inhibition of sympathetic stimulation of the heart Increased heart rate and stroke volume - > Increased cardiac output - > Increased blood pressure Also via sympathetic chain, there is reduced inhibition of sympathetic stimulation to the blood vessels, which produce vasoconstriction (redistribution of blood supply to the different organs)
327
How does a haemorrhage lead to cardiovascular problems?
Reduced actual circulating blood volume Reduced baroreceptor firing -> Increased HR -> Increased heart contractility (helps to maintain CO) -> Increased TPR (via organ specific vasoconstriction) Same as with change of posture Additional mechanisms: - Autotransfusion - Decreased urinary output
328
Why is autotransfusion used after a haemorrhage?
Reduces the hydrostatic pressure, while oncotic pressure remains same: - > Reduced ultrafiltration from blood - > Increased reabsorption of fluid from interstitial fluid This bulks up blood volume using extracellular fluid and no erythrocytes
329
Why is urinary output decreased after a haemorrhage?
ADH/VP release from pituitary -> water retention in collecting duct Angiotensin II synthesis -> decreased renal blood flow Aldosterone production -> increased Na+ and therefore water retention
330
What volumes of haemorrhage affect blood pressure and how are they treated ?
constant BP (compensation via bp variation) 20-30% (1-1.5l)-> decreased BP (hypotension with maintained tissue perfusion) 30-40% (1.5-2l)- shock (tissue perfusion not maintained) Tissue resuscitation can be used initially as treatment but then a blood transfusion should be performed Major problem= increased blood flow and decreased TPR (BP=CO X TPR)
331
How is exercise associated with cardiovascular problems?
Significantly increased blood flow is required to certain tissues (heart, lungs and skeletal muscle), but TPR decreases, which may reduce mean arterial blood pressure (MABP = CO x TPR) Exercise increases blood flow, metabolism and oxygen usage within tissues, leading to vasodilation -> active hyperaemia COMPENSATION CO increases because of increased HR, contractility and venous return TPR decreases because of increased vasodilation CO increase > TPR decrease so overall bp increases
332
What control mechanisms are used when exercising?
Afferent input to medullary CV centre - Preprogrammed pattern - Muscle chemoreceptors Efferent output to heart, veins and arterioles - Via ANS
333
How does control of TPR contribute to compensation when exercising?
Increases sympathetic activity in GI tract and kidney -> profound vasoconstriction Decreased sympathetic activity in heart, lungs, skeletal muscle and skin -> vasodilation Net result: - Reduced TPR - Increased CO - Increased blood flow to muscles, heart, lungs - Reduced blood flow to GI tract and kidneys
334
How does control of CO contribute to compensation when exercising?
Reduced parasympathetic activity and increased sympathetic activity -> increased SV and increased HR If stroke volume increases, venous return must increase Due to increased force of contraction by skeletal muscle pump, and increased breathing (which reduces pressure in thoracic cavity) There are also negative effect: - Reduced plasma volume opposes increased venous return - There is increased capillary pressure across muscle walls - Loss of salt and water due to sweat Net result: - Increased heart rate - Increased contractility - Increased venous return ->increased SV - Increased cardiac output
335
What is the purpose of haemostasis?
Prevention of blood loos for intact vessels | Arrest of bleeding from injured vessels
336
Outline haemostatic plug formation
Response to injury-> vessel constriction Formation of an unstable platelet plug - Platelet adhesion - Platelet aggregation (Disease= primary haemostasis) Stabilisation of the plug with fibrin - Blood coagulation (Disease= secondary haemostasis)
337
What do vessels do in response to injury?
Constrict= local contractile response Vascular smooth muscle cells contract locally-> limits blood flow to the injured vessels Particularly important in small blood vessels
338
What does a normal cell wall consist of?
Layers of endothelial cell - Anticoagulant barrier - Consists of anticoagulant proteins (GAGs, TFPI, TM, EPCR) Subendothelium - Procoagulant - Consists of elastin, collagen VSMC (tissue factor, vascular smooth muscle cells), fibroblasts (tissue factor) Other - Platelets - Clotting factors - Plasma proteins AFTER INJURY (few secs)-> minimise blood loss via local constriction
339
What anticoagulant proteins are present in the endothelial cells?
GAGs – glycosaminoglycan TFPI - tissue factor pathway inhibitor TM – thrombomodulin EPCR - endothelial protein C receptor
340
What are platelets?
Circulate in blood Derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow Each megakaryocyte produces a large number of platelets Have a granulated cytoplasm, and are highly specialised anuclear plasma cells Many different ultrastructural features Can become activated in a number of ways, including: - When coagulation process takes place, thrombin important - Thrombin cleaves R and further activates platelet Platelet releases ADP and thromboxane
341
What happens during formation of unstable platelet plug?
Unstable platelet plug formed 1. PLATELET ADHESION Recruitment of platelets from flowing blood to site of injury 2. PLATELET ACTIVATION Conversion from a passive to an interactive functional cell 3. PLATELET AGGREGATION Formation of the plug
342
How does platelet adhesion happen in formation of unstable plug?
Within the blood, there are circulating platelets and VWF (von Willebrand factor – a glycoprotein) These do not interact, as the VWF are in a globular conformation therefore their binding sites are hidden from the platelets (Binding sites are called Gp1b=membrane glycoprotein Ib) Vascular injury damages the endothelium and exposes the sub-endothelial matrix which consists of collagen -> sub-endothelial collagen then binds to VWF, recruiting them to the endothelial surface The shear forces of flowing blood through vessel then unravels the VWF on the endothelial surface Unravelled VWF has exposed binding site (Gp1b) therefore platelets bind (Platelets can also bind directly to the exposed collaged via Gp1a, but this is only under low shear forces) This binding recruits the platelets to the site of vessel damage
343
How does platelet activation happen in formation of unstable plug?
Conversion from a passive to an interactive functional cell Due to: - Changed shape (spreads and flattens) - Changed membrane composition - New proteins present on their surface (GpIIb/GpIIIa) The platelets bound to collagen or VWF release ADP and thromboxane – these activate the platelets Collagen and thrombin also activate platelets
344
How does platelet aggregation happen in formation of unstable plug?
Activated platelets bind more tightly to the collagen and VWF via GpIIb/IIIa GpIIb/IIIa also binds fibrinogen, which develops the platelet plug The platelet plug helps slow bleeding and provides a surface for coagulation
345
What happens during coagulation?
Stabilisation of the plug with fibrin (and clotting factors) Blood coagulation= complex biochemical process-> stops blood loss Components involved from liver (plasma haemostatic proteins), endothelial cells (VWF, TM, TFPI) and megakaryotes (VWF, FV)
346
Where are clotting factors before use in coagulation?
These clotting factors circulate as inactive precursors (zymogens) Then activated by specific proteolysis (to form either as serine protease zymogens or cofactors)
347
How is coagulation regulated by the tissue factor pathway?
INTRINSIC Initiated when FXII is activated (not biologically as important) FVIIIa is the only cofactor, all other activated clotting factors are serine proteases Coagulation not triggered down intrinsic pathway EXTRINSIC (separate notecard) Primary driver of clotting cascade COMMON Prothrombin-> thrombin
348
How does the extrinsic tissue factor pathway affect clotting?
Initiated when TF on surface of cells (which normally do not come into contact with blood) are exposed to plasma clotting factors TF + FVII -> TF-FVIIa complex TF-FVIIa then activates FIX and FX FXa activates prothrombin (ProT) inefficiently leading to the generation of trace amounts of thrombin Thrombin can then activate FVIII and FV, which function as non-enzymatic cofactors for FIXa and FXa, respectively FIXa-FVIIIa catalyses the conversion of increased quantities of FXa FXa-FVa catalyse enhanced generation of thrombin (more efficient by bypassing initial step) Thrombin at the site of vessel damage converts fibrinogen (Fbg) to fibrin (Fbn), which is the molecular scaffold of a clot
349
What is the trigger to initiate coagulation in vivo?
Tissue factor | Although FXII can be activated to FXIIa this is mainly in vitro (useful diagnostically)
350
What is the surface in the coagulation system made up of?
Activated platelets (PI) which localize and accelerate the reactions Pl= platelet membrane phospholipid
351
What does fibrinolysis do?
Breaks down the plug Normally no interaction between plasminogen (plasma protein, zymogen) and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) (plasma protein, proteinase) Plasminogen -> (tPA) -> plasmin Plasmin starts to break down the clot
352
What are examples of 'clot busters'?
tPA and streptokinase (a bacterial activator) Used in therapeutical thrombolysis for Myocardial Infarction
353
Why can the clotting cascade be described as an amplification system?
A small amount of factor VIIa produces a large amount of thrombin
354
Why does blood not clot complete whenever clotting is initiated by vessel injury?
Because of coagulation inhibitory mechanisms
355
Describe coagulation inhibitory mechanisms
DIRECT INHIBITION E.g. Anti-thrombin (sometimes known as antithrombin III), which is an inhibitor of thrombin and other clotting proteinases INDIRECT INHIBITION E.g. inhibition of thrombin generation by the protein C anticoagulant pathway (Factors VIII and V are activated by trace amounts of thrombin and become cofactors so need to inactivate them)
356
What is heparin used for and how does it affect thrombin?
Heparin is used for immediate anticoagulation in venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism Accelerates the action of antithrombin Antithrombin affects XIa, IXa, Xa, mostly thrombin (IIa)
357
How does the protein C anticoagulant pathway down-regulate thrombin generation?
Coagulation activation-> thrombin binds to thrombomodulin-> activates protein C (zymogen) Works with cofactor protein S which inactivate Factors Va and VIIIa Downregulates the amount of thrombin that is produced Factor V Leiden= not so easily inactivated
358
What happens when coagulation inhibitory mechanisms fail?
``` Antithrombin deficiency Protein C deficiency Protein S deficiency Factor V Leiden ALL risk factors for thrombosis ```
359
What happens if haemostasis and thrombosis aren't balanced?
1. Fibrinolytic factors, anticoagulant proteins 2. Coagulation factors, platelets Normal 1=2 Bleeding less 2, more 1 Thrombosis less 1, more 2
360
Define: abnormal bleeding
The result of an increase in fibrinolytic factors and anticoagulant proteins, and a decrease in coagulation factors and platelets Bleeding is - Spontaneous - Out of proportion to the trauma/injury - Unduly prolonged - Restarts after appearing to stop
361
What % of the population have easy bruising?
12%
362
What are examples of significant bleeding history?
Epistaxis not stopped by 10 mins compression or requiring medical attention/transfusion Cutaneous haemorrhage or bruising without apparent trauma (especially multiple/large) Prolonged (>15 mins) bleeding from trivial wounds, or in oral cavity or recurring spontaneously in 7 days after wound e.g. Spontaneous GI bleeding leading to anaemia Menorrhagia (abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding) requiring treatment or leading to anaemia, not due to structural lesions of the uterus Heavy, prolonged or recurrent bleeding after surgery or dental extractions
363
In the normal response to injured endothelial cell lining, how does each stage attempt to reduce blood loss?
Vessel constriction= limits blood flow to injured vessel Formation of an unstable platelet plug= limits blood loss and provides surface for coagulation Stabilisation of the plug with fibrin= stops blood loss Vessel repair and dissolution of clot= restores vessel integrity
364
In haemostatic disorders, what are deficient or defective in primary haemostasis?
COLLAGEN- vessel wall - Due to steroid therapy, age, scurvy VON WILLEBRAND FACTOR - Genetic deficiency - Can't initiate the coagulation process PLATELETS - Aspirin and other drugs, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets-> small blood spots)
365
What patterns of bleeding usually occur in primary haemostasis?
``` Immediate Easy bruising Nosebleeds (prolonged: >20 mins) Gum bleeding (prolonged) Menorrhagia (anaemia) Bleeding after trauma/surgery Petechiae (specific for thrombocytopenia) ```
366
What is haemophilia?
Failure to generate fibrin to stabilise platelet plug | Defect= secondary haemostasis (coagulation)
367
In haemostatic disorders, what are deficient or defective in secondary haemostasis?
Not enough thrombin generated | Deficiency or defect of coagulation factors I-XIII
368
What causes secondary haemostasis?
Genetic eg: Haemophilia: FVIII or FIX deficiency ``` Liver disease (acquired) - Most coagulation factors are made in the liver) ``` Drugs (warfarin – inhibits synthesis, other block function) Dilution (results from volume replacement) Consumption (DIC*) (acquired)
369
What is DIC and how does it lead to secondary haemostasis?
DIC= disseminated intravascular coagulation Generalised activation of coagulation – tissue factor Associated with sepsis, major tissue damage, inflammation Consumes and depletes coagulation factors and platelets Activation of fibrinolysis which depletes fibrinogen - > Widespread bleeding, from iv lines, bruising, internal - > Deposition of fibrin in vessels which causes organ failure
370
What patterns of bleeding usually occur in disorders of secondary haemostasis?
Often delayed (after primary haemostasis) Prolonged Deeper: joints and muscles Not from small cuts (primary haemostasis ok) Nosebleeds rare Bleeding after trauma/surgery After i/m injections Ecchymosis- easy bruising (virtually all bleeding disorders) Haemarthrosis- spontaneous bleeding into joints
371
What is haemarthrosis?
Spontaneous bleeding into joints Hallmark of haemophilia Increases pressure in joints Very painful and damaging
372
How can a haemostatic disorder be caused from fibrinolysis?
Due to either: - Excess fibrinolytic components – plasma, tPA (Can occur with some tumours or therapeutic administration) - Deficient antifibrinolytic components – antiplasmin (Can have a genetic antiplasmin deficiency) NB. anticoagulant excess is usually only due to therapeutic administration, e.g. Heparin or hirudin
373
How can fibrinolysis be used therapeutically?
Can be used in therapy to break down clots after MI Must be done carefully as can lead to haemorrhage
374
Define: thrombosis
Result of a decrease in fibrinolytic factors and anticoagulant proteins, with an increase in coagulation factors and platelets E.g. Intravascular coagulation Inappropriate coagulation (inside a blood vessel or not preceeded by bleeding) Thrombi may be venous or arterial
375
What does thrombosis cause?
OBSTRUCTED FLOW OF BLOOD Artery – myocardial infarction, stroke, limb ischaemia Vein – pain and swelling EMBOLISM Arterial emboli, usually from heart, may-> stroke/limb ischaemia Venous emboli, to lungs (pulmonary embolus) or deep vein thrombosis
376
What are the 2 main types of venous thrombo-embolism?
Deep vein thrombosis - Symptomes= venous return of blood is obstructed (painful, swollen leg) - Causes= trauma, surgery, immobility, malignancy, autoimmune disease - Diagnosis= clinical (Wells Score), D-dimer, duplex ultrasound, CT, MRI, venography - Complications= PE, post-thrombotic syndrome, venous ulcer - Treatment= anticoagulation, fibrinolgysis, thrombectomy Pulmonary embolism - Symptoms= shortness of breath (dyspnoea), chest pain, may lead to sudden death - Diagnosis= clinical, ECG, D-dimer, echo, MRI, CTPA, VQ scan, pulmonary arteriogram - Complications= death, shock, pulmonary hypertension, RV failure - Treatment= anticoagulation, fibrinolysis, mechanolysis, IVC filter
377
What do venous thrombo-embolisms lead to (over time)?
Death- VT mortality 5% Recurrence - 20% in first 2 years and 4% pa thereafter Thrombophlebitic syndrome Severe TPS in 23% at 2 years (11% with stockings) Pulmonary hypertension - 4% at 2 years
378
What are the risk factors for venous thrombosis?
Genetic constitution Effect of age and previous events, illnesses, medication Acute stimulus
379
How does Virchow's triad relate to thrombosis?
Contributory factors to thrombosis May be inherited or acquired Abnormal blood constitutents (endothelial dysfunction, hypercoagulability, abnormal platelet function, altered fibrinolysis, metabolic, hormonal factors) - Dominant in venous thrombosis Abnormal vessel wall (endothelial dysfunction, inflammation, atherosclerosis) - Dominant in arterial thrombosis Abnormal blood flow (endothelial dysfunction, turbulent flow at bifurcations and stenoses, stasis) - Contributes to both
380
How does blood relate to increased risk of thrombosis?
Deficiency of anticoagulant proteins E.g. Antithrombin, Protein C, Protein S Increased coagulant proteins/activity E.g. Factor VIII, Factor II and others, Factor V Leiden (increased activity due to activated protein C resistance)
381
How do vessel walls relate to increased risk of thrombosis?
Relatively little known Many proteins active in coagulation are expressed on the surface of endothelial cells E.g. Thrombomodulin, tissue factor, tissue factor pathway inhibitor Expression altered in inflammation E.g. due to malignancy, infection, immune disorders
382
How does flow relate to increased risk of thrombosis?
Reduced flow (stasis) increases the risk of venous thrombosis Possibly after surgery, fracture, long haul flight, bed rest
383
How does thrombophilia relate to increased risk of thrombosis?
``` CLINICAL Thrombosis at young age ‘Idiopathic thrombosis’ Multiple thromboses Thrombosis whilst anticoagulated ``` LAB Identifiable cause of increased risk AT deficiency, Factor V Leiden, global measures of coagulation activity
384
What conditions make thrombosis more likely?
Pregnancy Malignancy Surgery Inflammatory response
385
What is the prevalence of venous thrombo-embolism?
Overall 1 in 1000 - 10 000 per annum Incidence doubles with each decade PE is cause of 10% hospital deaths Estimated 25,000 preventable deaths per year (Overall, not many get thrombosis but in hospital it is a major and preventable cause of death)
386
How is venous thrombosis treated?
TO LYSE CLOT E.g. tPA (high risk of bleeding) TO LIMIT RECURRENCE/ EXTENSION/ EMBOLI Increase anticoagulant activity - E.g: heparin (immediate acting, parenteral) Lower procoagulant factors - E.g.: warfarin (oral, slow acting for long term therapy) Inhibit procoagulant factors– direct inhibitors - Rivaroxaban (Xa), Apixaban (Xa), Dabigatran (IIa)
387
What's the difference between the actions of heparin and warfarin?
Heparin= increased anticoagulant activity Warfarin= lower procoagulant factors
388
What does stasis inflammation lead to?
Stasis inflammation-> increased coagulation factors, platelets
389
How can thrombosis be prevented?
Assess individual risk and circumstantial risk All patients admitted should have VTE risk assessment - Hospital target >90% Give prophylactic anti-thrombotic therapy E.g heparin for in-patients +/ TED stockings
390
Define: hypertension
The level of BP above which investigation and treatment do more good than harm
391
Describe the distribution of blood pressure
Unimodal distribution Arbitrary distinction between normal and abnormal AGE Mean bp rises with age PP rises with age Number of people with hypertension increases with age
392
How can the relationship between BP and risk be described?
Exponential (log linear) No threshold for risk Every 20mmHg increase in bp-> 2x risk of stroke (similar with CHD) High bp causes more deaths than any other single cause
393
What does increased bp lead to an increased risk of?
``` Coronary heart disease Stroke Peripheral vascular disease/atheromatous disease Heart failure Atrial fibrillation Dementia /cognitive impairment Retinopathy ```
394
What causes primary/essential hypertension?
Unidentifiable cause 90-95% of cases GENETIC Monogenic (rare) Complex polygenic (common) ENVIRONMENTAL Dietary salt (sodium)- major factor in the rise in BP with age Obesity / overweight, lack of exercise Alcohol Pre-natal environment (~birthweight) Pregnancy (pre-eclampsia) Other dietary factors and environmental exposures?
395
What causes secondary hypertension?
Identifiable causes
396
What evidence is there for genes being related to blood pressure?
Twin and other studies suggest 30-50% of variation in blood pressure is attributable to genetic variation but identified SNPs only account for
397
What is hypertension associated with (haemodynamic factors)?
BP = CO x PVR Typically, established hypertension is associated with: - Increased TPR - Reduced arterial compliance (higher PP) - Normal CO - Normal blood volume/extracellular volume - Central shift in blood volume secondary to reduced venous compliance
398
Why is PVR elevated in hypertension?
Evidence supporting increased active vasoconstriction in hypertension is equivocal Active narrowing of arteries -> Vasoconstriction (probably short-term) Structural narrowing of arteries -> Growth and remodelling (adaptive?) Loss of capillaries -> Rarefaction (adaptive/damage?)
399
What is isolated systolic hypertension?
Systolic BP ≥ 140, diastolic BP ≤ 90 Condition of people >60y Due to increasing stiffness of medium/large arteries Pulse wave reflected and is greater by the time it reaches brachial artery There are no specific treatments for ISH as against “standard” hypertension
400
What are the main possible causes of primary hypertension?
KIDNEY Key role in BP regulation (Guyton) Best evidence especially in relation to salt intake Impaired renal function or blood flow is the commonest 2º cause of hypertension (e.g. renal parenchymal disease, renal artery stenosis) SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM Evidence linking high sympathetic activity to the development of hypertension ENDOCRINE/PARACRINE FACTORS Inconsistent evidence
401
Why does the kidney affect blood pressure?
The kidney exerts a major influence on BP through regulation of sodium/ water/ extracellular fluid volume Almost all monogenic causes of hypertension affect renal Na+ excretion Salt intake is strongly linked with blood pressures (populations with low salt have low population blood pressures and no rise in BP with age) Animals with reduced renal Na+ handling (genetic or experimental) develop hypertension BP FOLLOWS THE KIDNEY Retting et al rat study
402
What is the relationship between hypertension and the heart?
Hypertension is commonly associated with increase in left ventricular wall mass (LVMI) and changes in chamber size
403
What is the relationship between hypertension and congestive heart failure (CHF)?
The prevalence of heart failure (CHF) is increasing (unlike other CVD) Hypertension increases the risk of CHF 2 -3 fold Hypertension probably accounts for about 25% of all cases of CHF Hypertension precedes CHF in 90% of cases The majority of CHF in the elderly is attributable to hypertension
404
What is the relationship between hypertension and large arteries?
High BP -> changes in large arteries Typically associated with thickened walls (hypertrophy) of large arteries and acceleration of atherosclerosis Hypertension may causes arterial rupture or dilations (aneurysms) This can lead to thrombosis or haemorrhage (e.g. strokes)
405
What is the relationship between hypertension and the retina?
Hypertension adversely affects the microcirculation E.g. in the retina (microvascular damage) Thickening of the wall of small arteries-> arteriolar narrowing-> vasospasm-> impaired perfusion and increased leakage into the surrounding tissue
406
What is the relationship between hypertension and the microvasculature?
Reduction in capillary density-> impaired perfusion and increased PVR Elevated capillary pressure-> damage and leakage
407
What is the relationship between hypertension and the kidney?
Renal dysfunction is common in hypertension (e.g. increased (micro)albumin excretion in urine) Extreme (accelerated/malignant hypertension) is now rare but leads to progressive renal failure MICROALBUMINURIA More subtle evidence of kidney disease evident in may people with high BP Hypertension causes: -> Increased albumin loss in the urine -> Decline in GFR with age Both indicative of renal damage
408
What is atherosclerosis?
Disease of medium and large arteries Changes in arteries from early life (plenty of time for prevention)-> clinical manifestations in middle/old age Majority of CV deaths One of the most common diseases in the UK
409
What are risk factors?
``` POTENTIALLY MODIFIABLE Smoking Lipids BP Diabetes Obesity Lack of exercise ``` NOT MODIFIABLE Age Sex Genetic background Combined risk factors-> higher risk Hypertension x2, high cholesterol x4, smoking x1.6 All together x16
410
What is the connection between cholesterol and the development of atherosclerosis?
Thickening on one side of the artery -> develops into an atherosclerotic “plaque” Plaque consists of a necrotic core of dead tissue covered and separated from the blood by a fibrous cap DEVELOPMENT OF ATHEROSCLEORIS 1. Trapping within the arterial wall of LDL rich in cholesterol - Because of LDL binding to proteoglycans in the arterial intima, such as biglycan and versican (-> CHRONIC INFLAM) 2. Once trapped in arterial wall, LDL becomes chemically denatured by reactive oxygen free radicals and/or tissue enzymes (e.g. phospholipases) - > Phagocytosis of LDL by macrophages, via scavenger receptors such as Scavenger Receptor A and CD36 PROGRESSION OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS 3. Over time, thickening response-> increase in smooth muscle cells and macrophages (which -> minor chronic inflam) - Take up lipid-> too much fat-> cells die-> small pools of EC fat which grow as disease progresses 4. This leads to abcess-like response - > Generates occlusive clot or haemorrage OR repair response RECURRENT EPISODES OF DAMAGE Each vessel destabilizes and then heals-> step-wise not continuous progression of vascular disease
411
What are the main cell types and their roles
Vascular endothelial cells - > Keep blood components in blood (non-blood out) - Very active cells-> regulate and direct transport across their surface - Barrier function (e.g. to lipoproteins) - Leukocyte recruitment Platelets - Thrombus generation - Cytokine and growth factor release Monocyte-macrophages - Foam cell formation - Cytokine and growth factor release - Major source of free radicals - Metalloproteinases Vascular smooth muscle cells - Migration and proliferation - Collagen synthesis - Remodelling and fibrous cap formation T lymphocytes -Macrophage activation
412
How do macrophages contribute to the development of lesions?
WBCs can injure host tissue if they are activated excessively or inappropriately In atherosclerosis, the main inflammatory cells are macrophages Macrophages are derived from blood monocytes - Macrophages that have taken up an excess of lipid are known as “foam cell” MACROPHAGE SUBTYPES - Macrophage subtypes are regulated by combinations of transcription factors binding to regulatory sequences on DNA - Two main classes - resident or inflammatory macrophages INFLAMMATORY MACROPHAGES Inflammatory macrophages adapted to kill microorganisms (germs) RESIDENT MACROPHAGES (normally homeostatic) - Suppressed inflammatory activity - Alveolar resident macrophages (surfactant lipid homeostasis) - Osteoclasts (calcium and phosphate homeostasis) - Spleen (iron homeostasis) Release of inflammatory mediators by macrophages and other cells -> - Activation of vascular endothelial cells with expression of adhesion molecules and chemo-attractants for monocytes - Recruitment of more monocytes from the blood - Differentiation within the arterial wall of monocytes into macrophages Hence the process is self-perpetuating
413
How do lipoproteins contribute to the development of lesions?
Low density lipoprotein (LDL) - ‘Bad’cholesterol - Synthesised indirectly in liver - Carries cholesterol from liver to rest of body including arteries High density lipoprotein (HDL) - ‘Good cholesterol’ - Higher level of HDL cholesterol, the lower the risk of a cardiovascular effect - Carries cholesterol from ‘peripheral tissues’ including arteries back to liver (=“reverse cholesterol transport”) Oxidised LDL(s), modified LDL(s) - Due to action of free radicals on LDL - Other modifications can also occur Families of highly inflammatory and toxic forms of LDL found in vessel walls
414
What is sub-endothelial trapping of LDL?
LDL leak through the endothelial barrier by uncertain mechanisms LDL is trapped by binding to sticky matrix carbohydrates (proteoglycans) in the sub-endothelial layer Trapped LDL is susceptible to modification
415
How are trapped LDL modified?
Best studied modification is oxidation Chemically represents partial burning LDL becomes oxidatively modified by free radicals Oxidised LDL is phagocytosed by macrophages and stimulates chronic inflammation
416
What is familial hyperlipidemia (FH)?
Autosomal genetic disease Massively elevated cholesterol (20mmol/L) Failure to clear LDL from blood Xanthomas and early atherosclerosis; if untreated fatal myocardial infarction before age 20 Gene affected= LDL receptor, negatively regulated by IC cholesterol (so accumulate cholesterol)
417
How do macrophages accumulate cholesterol?
In LDLR-negative patients, macrophages accumulate cholesterol Deduced a second LDL receptor (not under feedback control) is in atherosclerotic lesions Called the ‘scavenger receptor’ since it hoovers up chemically modified LDL (now known to be oxidised) Now known that scavenger receptors are a family of pathogen receptors that ‘accidentally’ bind OxLDL
418
What are the types of macrophage scavenger receptors?
``` MACROPHAGE SCAVENGER RECEPTOR A CD204 Binds to oxidised LDL Binds to Gram-positive bacteria like Staphylococci and Streptococci Binds to dead cells ``` ``` MACROPHAGE SCAVENGER RECEPTOR B CD36 Binds to oxidised LDL Binds to malaria parasites Binds to dead cells ```
419
How do inflammation and homeostasis affect arterial ox-LDL deposits?
Homeostasis Safe clearance, reverse cholesterol transport Inflammation Activation of 'bug detector' pathways
420
What happens to macrophages within plaques?
Generate free radicals that further oxidise lipoproteins Phagocytose/scavenge modified lipoproteins and become foam cells Become activated by modified lipoproteins/free intracellular cholesterol to express/secrete
421
Macrophages within plaques: how do they generate free radicals?
Macrophages have oxidative enzymes that can modify native LDL NADPH Oxidase E.g. Superoxide O2 Myeloperoxidase E.g. HOCl hypochlorous acid (bleach) from ROS + Cl- E.g. HONOO Peroxynitrite -> Generate free radicals that further oxidise lipoproteins
422
Macrophages within plaques: how do the phagocytose/ scavenge modified lipoproteins, and become foam cells?
Macrophages accumulate modified LDL to become enlarged foam cells
423
Macrophages within plaques: How do foam cells become activated by modified lipoproteins/free intracellular cholesterol to express/secrete (5)?
Cytokine mediators (eg TNFa, IL-1, MCP-1) that recruit more monocytes (+ve feedback loop) Chemoattractants and growth factors for VSMC Proteinases that degrade tissue (e.g. the fibrous cap) Tissue factor that stimulates coagulation upon contact with blood Die by apoptosis – contributing to the lipid-rich core of the plaque
424
Macrophages within plaques (stage 3): outline how cytokine mediators recruit more monocytes
CYTOKINES Protein immune hormones that activate endothelial cell adhesion molecules Interleukin-1 upregulates vascular cell adhesion molecule 1 (VCAM-1) VCAM-1 mediates tight monocyte binding Atherosclerosis is reduced in mice w/o IL-1 or VCAM-1 CHEMOKINES Small proteins chemoattractant to monocytes Monocyte chemotactic protein 1 (MCP-1) MCP-1 binds to a monocyte GPCR CCR2 Atherosclerosis reduced in MCP-1 or CCR2 deficient mice
425
Macrophages within plaques (stage 3): outline how chemoattractants and growths factors act on VSMCs
Wound healing role of the macrophage Macrophages release complementary protein GFs that recruit VSMC and stimulate them to proliferate and deposit EC matrix Platelet derived growth factor - > Vascular smooth muscle cell chemotaxis - > Vascular smooth muscle cell survival - > Vascular smooth muscle cell division (mitosis) Transforming growth factor beta - > Increased collagen synthesis - > Matrix deposition
426
Macrophages within plaques (stage 3): outline how proteinases degrade tissue (e.g. the fibrous cap)
Metalloproteinases (=MMPs) = family of ~28 homologous enzymes - Activate each other by proteolysis - Degrade collagen - Catalytic mechanism based on Zn Effect of plaque erosion - Blood coagulation at rupture site may lead to occlusive thrombus and cessation of blood flow
427
Macrophages within plaques (stage 3): outline how foam cells die by apoptosis
OxLDL derived metabolites are toxic e.g. 7-keto-cholesterol Macrophage foam cells have protective systems that maintain survival in face of toxic lipid loading Once overwhelmed, macrophages die via apoptosis Releases macrophage tissue factor and toxic lipids into the ‘central death zone’ called lipid necrotic core Thrombogenic and toxic material accumulates, walled off, until plaque rupture causes it to meet blood
428
What is nuclear factor kappa B (NFkB)?
Transcription Factor Master regulator of inflammation Activated by numerous inflammatory stimuli - Scavenger receptors - Toll-like receptors - Cytokine receptors Switches on numerous inflammatory genes - Matrix metalloproteinases - Inducible nitric oxide synthase
429
Where are atherosclerotic lesions normally distributed?
Not random Branch points and curvatures are 'hot spots' Probably due to non-laminar blood flow at these sites - May suppress inflammatory activation of endothelial cells - Non-uniform blood flow at hots spots may enhance it
430
How do plaques contribute to the growth of the necrotic core?
As the plaque grows it is invaded by small blood vessels that develop from the vasa vasorum in the adventitia These vessels tend to bleed-> contribute to growth of the necrotic core through the supply of erythrocyte-derived cell membranes
431
What are the characteristics of vulnerable plaques?
Large soft eccentric lipid-rich necrotic core Thin fibrous cap (collagens synthesised by VSMC) Reduced VSMC and collagen content Increased VSMC apoptosis Infiltrate of activated Macrophages expressing MMPs
432
What are the chronic symptoms of atherosclerotic narrowing (stenosis) of the arterial lumen?
Angina | Intermittent claudication
433
What usually causes plaque rupture?
Activity of proteases expressed by macrophages fragmenting the matrix of the fibrous cap Can also be caused by intra-plaque haemorrhage
434
What are the acute symptoms of atherosclerosis usually calused by?
Due to occlusive thrombosis at the site of plaque rupture or to the distant effects of dislodged thrombus OR Plaque contents on down-stream smaller blood vessels (embolism)
435
What are the protective functions of macrophages in the plaque?
Clearing debris (modified lipoproteins, dead cells) Stimulating “wound healing” response involving VSMCs
436
What are the deleterious functions of macrophages in the plaque?
Release of free radicals that modify LDL Recruitment of further monocytes via cytokines and chemokines Expression of MMPs that may destabilise the fibrous cap Expression of tissue factor that can stimulate thrombosis
437
Do macrophages promote or limit plaque rupture?
Promote
438
What effect do vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMC) have on plaques?
Protect plaque integrity Contrasting role to macrophages in plaque instability
439
What effect do lipoproteins deposited in the arterial wall have on macrophage functions?
Stimulate it
440
What is the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis: inflammation model?
``` ENDOTHELIAL DYSFUNCTION IN ATHEROSCLEROSIS Endothelial permeability Leukocyte migration Endothelial adhesion Leukocyte adhesion ``` ``` FATTY-STREAK FORMATION IN ATHEROSCLEROSIS Smooth muscle migration Foam-cell formation T cell activation Adherence and aggregation of platelets Adherence and entry of leukocytes ``` ``` (Response to injury model) [FORMATION OF ADVANCED, COMPLICATED LESION OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS Macrophage accumulation Formation of necrotic core Fibrous-cap formation Angiogenesis Senescence] ```
441
What is the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis: response to injury model?
``` Macrophage accumulation Formation of necrotic core Fibrous-cap formation Angiogenesis Senescence ```
442
What are the layers of blood vessels (except for capillaries and venules)?
Tunica intima – endothelium Tunica media – smooth muscle cells Tunica adventitia – vasa vasorum, nerves
443
Describe the anatomical structure of a capillary
Endothelial cells surrounded by basement membrane and pericapillary cells (pericytes)
444
Describe the anatomical structure of a post-capillary venule
Structure similar to capillaries but more pericytes
445
Describe the anatomical structure of an artery
Three thick layers, rich in cells and extracellular matrix
446
What is the vascular endothelium?
Endothelium is the surface separating blood from other tissues Very extensive: - Surface area > 1000 m2 - Weight >100 g Acts as a vital barrier separating blood from tissues Formed by monolayer of endothelial cells, 1 cell deep (contact inhibition) Endothelial cells are flat, about 1-2 µm thick and 10-20 µm in diameter Not all endothelial cells are the same (heterogeneity) In vivo, endothelial cells live a long life and have a low proliferation rate (unless new vessels are required: angiogenesis) Endothelial cells regulate essential functions of blood vessels
447
What functions do endothelial cells regulate?
ANGIOGENESIS Matrix proteins Growth factors THROMBOSIS AND HAEMOSTASIS Anti-thrombotic factors Procoagulant factors INFLAMMATION Adhesion molecules Inflammatory mediators VASCULAR TONE and PERMEABILITY Vasodilator factors Vasoconstrictor factors
448
What activates endothelium cells?
``` Inflammation Mechanical stress Viruses Smoking High blood pressure OxLDL High glucose ```
449
How does the endothelium normally regulate leukocyte recruitment and inflammation?
Recruitment of blood leukocytes into tissues takes place normally during inflammation Leukocytes adhere to the endothelium of post-capillary venules and transmigrate into tissues
450
How is the endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis affected by leukocyte recruitment and inflammation?
In atherosclerosis, leukocytes adhere to activated endothelium of large arteries and get stuck in the subendothelial space Newly formed post-capillary venules at the base of developing lesions provide a further portal for leukocyte entry
451
How can leukocyte recruitment and adhesion be seen?
Intra-vital microscopy Capture-> rolling-> slow rolling-> arrest-> adhesion, strenghtening, spreading-> intravascular crawling-> paracellular and transcellular transmigration NB. rolling-> arrest= activation So... rolling-> activation-> firm adhesion
452
How is the endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis affected by permeability?
The endothelium regulates the flux of fluids and molecules from blood to tissues and vice versa Increased permeability results in leakage of plasma proteins through the junctions into the subendothelial space Causes lipoprotein trapping and oxidative modification Modified LDLs may then be taken up by macrophages forming foam cells-> chronic inflammation
453
How is the endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis affected by blood flow?
``` LAMINAR FLOW Normal Streamlined Outermost layer moving slowest, centre moving fastests -> High shear stress ``` Antithrombotic Antimigration Antigrowth Promotes: - NO production - Factors that inhibit coagulation, leukocyte adhesion, smooth muscle cell proliferation - Endothelial survival ``` DISTURBED FLOW Branch points Interrupted blood flow Fluid passes a constriction etc. -> Low shear stress ``` Prothrombotic Promigration Progrowth Promotes: - Coagulation, leukocyte adhesion, smooth muscle cell proliferation - Endothelial apoptosis
454
How is the endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis affected by angiogenesis?
``` Angiogenic factor production -> Release of factor -> Extracellular receptor binding (-> Intracellular signalling occurs) -> Extracellular activation (-> Endothelial matrix degradation) -> Extracellular proliferation -> Directional migration -> Extracellular matrix remodelling ``` Tube formation Loop formation Vascular stabilization Occurs in 3 1. Endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis 2. Fatty-streak formation in atherosclerosis 3. Formation of an advanced, complicated lesion of atherosclerosis
455
Define: angiogenesis
• formation of new blood vessels by sprouting from pre-existing vessels o Initiated by pro-angiogenic stimulation of a pre-existing mature blood vessel
456
What is the Janus paradox
Angiogenesis promotes plaque growth, but can be used therapeutically to induce new formation in ischaemic tissues Delivers growth factors and stem cells to the ischaemic region to induce new vessel growth
457
What is cellular senescence?
Growth arrest that halts the proliferation of ageing and/or damaged cells
458
Why is cellular senescence good/not-so-good?
GOOD Prevents the transmission of damage to daughter cells Replicative senescence: the limited proliferative capacity of human cells in culture Senescence as response to stress and damage NOT-SO-GOOD Senescent ells are pro-inflammatory and contribute to many diseases Senescent cells have distinctive morphology and acquire specific markers, e.g. B-gal
459
How is the endothelial dysfunction in atherosclerosis affected by cellular senescence?
Senescent endothelial cells found in atherosclerotic lesions Endothelial cell senescence can be induced by CV risk factors e.g. ox stress Senescent cells have a pro-inflammatory and prothrombotic phenotype and may contribute to atherosclerosis plaque progression/complications
460
What potential benefits does red wine have?
IN VITRO AND ANIMAL STUDIES - Resveratrol promotes endothelail protective pathways (eNOS) - Resveratrol acts as an anti-aging compound and reduces vascular cell senescence HUMANS Red wine prevents pro-inflammatory changes induced by a high fat meal in leukocytes Red wine consumption increases circulating endothelial progenitor cells and improves endothelial function in obese people with T2D Resveratrol, like other toxins, has an hormetic (i.e. dose-response) action: - Beneficial effects at lower doses - Cytotoxic effects at higher doses BUT alcohol is damaging to users and others
461
What are the major determinants of CHD risk?
``` Coronary heart disease determinants of risk: Tobacco use Physical inactivity Harmful use of alcohol Unhealthy diet -> Hypertension Obesity Diabetes mellitus Hyperlipidaemia ``` Responsible for 80% of CHD
462
Outline the global and UK burden of CHD
GLOBAL 17million deaths per year= cardiovascular disease Leading cause of death in age Leading cause of death in developed and low/medium income countries UK 88,000 CHD deaths per year, commonest cause of death CHD accounts for 18% deaths in men and 10% deaths in women
463
Describe the epidemiology of stable angina
Incidence increasing ~2M cases in UK Age 55-64y Affects 8% males and 3% females Age 65-74y Affects 14% males and 8% females Over 300,000 angina patients attended cardiac outpatient clinics in 2009-10
464
How does coronary artery disease present clinically?
Sudden cardiac death Acute coronary syndrome - Acute myocardial infarction - Unstable angina Stable angina pectoris Heart failure Arrhythmia
465
What causes myocardial ischaemia?
Mismatch between myocardial oxygen supply and demand Primary reduction in blood flow Inability to increase blood flow to match increased metabolic demand Coronary artery lumen must be reduced by >75% to significantly affect myocardial blood supply
466
How does MI feel to the patient?
Like weight on chest radiating to throat and towards arms
467
What factors affect coronary blood flow?
Aortic blood pressure - Decreased blood pressure reduces coronary flow Myocardial work - Exercise increases coronary flow Coronary artery narrowing - Fixed narrowing (such as a “fatty plaque”) - An acute plaque change (due to rupture or haemorrhage) - A blood clot in the vessel (thrombus) - Vasoconstriction Aortic valve dysfunction Increased right atrial pressure
468
What does epicardial stenosis cause (on resting coronary resistance and flow)?
Decreased normal resting coronary flow
469
What happens to the effect of cardiac stenosis (on resting coronary resistance and flow) with vasodilators?
Less stenosis - > More coronary vasodilator reserve - > Higher hyperemic response (mean hyperemic flow/mean resting flow)
470
What is angina pectoris?
Clinical diagnosis Discomfort in chest, jaw, shoulders, arms or back Provoked by exertion of emotional stress Relived by rest
471
What invasive and non-invasive, functional and anatomical tests can be done to help diagnose angina?
``` FUNCTIONAL NON-INVASIVE Exercise ECG Stress echo Stress cardiac MRI *PET/CT *Stress nuclear MPS *FFRct (CT subscript) ``` FUNCTIONAL INVASIVE * CFR * Pressure wire (FFR) * iFR * IVUS * OCT ANATOMICAL NON-INVASIVE * CT coronary calcium score * CT coronary angiogram ANATOMICAL INVASIVE *Coronary angiogram *= exposed to ionising radiation
472
What are the treatment strategies for angina?
PREVENT ATHEROSCLEROSIS PROGRESSION AND RISK OF DEATH/MI - Education - Lifestyle modification - Aspirin, statins, ACE inhibitors REDUCE MYOCARDIAL OXYGEN DEMAND - HR (b blockers, Ca antagonists, If blockers) - Wall stress (ACE inhibitors, Ca antagonists) - Metabolic modifiers IMPROVE BLOOD SUPPLY - Vasodilators (nitrates, nicorandil, Ca antagonists) - Revascularisation (PCI, CABG)
473
What are acute coronary syndromes?
Inflammation - Systemic - Local Plaque - Rupture - Erosion Thrombosis
474
What are the mechanisms underlying MI?
Myocardial cell death arising from interrupted blood flow to the heart - Coronary plaque rupture - Coronary plaque erosion - Coronary dissection Mechanisms of myocardial cell death - Oncosis - Apoptosis
475
Define: infarction
Tissue necrosis due to ischaemia
476
Define: embolus
Detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood to a site distant from its point of origin
477
Define: thrombosis
Formation of a solid mass of blood constituents within the circulatory system Virchow's triad= predisposition
478
What is the difference between white and red thrombi?
WHITE THROMBUS Platelet rich Common in arterial thrombosis (high pressure/turbulent circulation) Benefit from antiplatelet therapy RED THROMBUS Fibrin rich, with trapped erythrocytes Common in venous or low pressure situations (stasis) Benefit from anticoagulant or antifibrinolytic therapy
479
What do hypercoagulable conditions cause?
People with hypercoagulable states have an increased risk for blood clots Hypercoagulable states are usually genetic (inherited) or acquired conditions
480
List some inherited hypercoagulable conditions
Factor V Leiden (the most common) Prothrombin gene mutation Deficiencies of natural proteins that prevent clotting (such as antithrombin, protein C and protein S) Elevated levels of homocysteine Elevated levels of fibrinogen or dysfunctional fibrinogen (dysfibrinogenemia)
481
List some acquired hypercoagulable conditions
``` Cancer Some medications used to treat cancer, such as tamoxifen, bevacizumab, thalidomide and lenalidomide Recent trauma or surgery Central venous catheter placement Obesity Pregnancy ```
482
What does tissue factor determine?
Thrombosis TF/VIIa with co factors-> Xa -> (II) -> IIa-> FIBRINOGEN TO FIBRIN
483
What is cardiac troponin useful for?
cTnI and cTnT are very sensitive and specific indicators of damage to the heart muscle (myocardium) Measured in the blood to differentiate between unstable angina and myocardial infarction (heart attack) in people with chest pain or acute coronary syndrome cTn complex – thin filament of striated muscle 3 components, coded by separate genes Proteolytic cleavage during myocardial ischaemia Circulating cTn: posttranslational modified, degraded and truncated forms cTn can be released transiently without cardiomyocyte death
484
Why are thrombi clinically important?
Most patients with ischaemic incidents suffer them
485
How does an infarction form?
Coronary artery becomes obstructed | Zone of perfusion is area at risk on endocardium-> zone of necrosis
486
What effect does reperfusion have on myoscardial ischaemia?
Reduces infarct size (by 40% from 70->30) Cardioprotection reduces infarct size by a further 25%
487
How long does post-MI LV remodelling take?
Acute infraction= hours Infarct expansion= hours to days Global remodelling= days to months
488
What mechanisms underly LV remodelling?
Infarct thinning, elongation, expansion LV dilatation - Reduce wall tension - Maintains cardiac output Non-infarcted myocardium - LVH and myofilament dysfunction - Altered electromechanical coupling - Myocardial fibrosis - Apoptosis - Inflammation
489
What are the consequences of adverse LV remodellingLV remodelling?
``` Increased systolic wall tension/stress Increased MVO2 Reduced myocyte shortening Increased diastolic wall tension/stress Reduced subendocardial perfusion Dysynchronous depolarization/contraction Mitral regurgitation Ventricular arrhythmias Ventricular fibrillation ```
490
How can thrombotic burden/risk be managed?
ACUTE Thrombectomy Drugs – Oral antiplatelets: Aspirin, clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor SC anticoagulants: LMWH, fondaparinux IV antiplatelets: GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors IV anticaogulants: Bivalirudin,, fibrinolytics, Factor Xa inhibitors RECURRENT Oral antiplatelet drugs Anticoagulants Direct thrombin inhibition – Factor Xa inhibitors
491
How can plaques be stabilised?
Mechanical e.g. stent Drugs e.g. statins (high dose) and ACE inhibitors
492
How can LV remodelling be managed?
Non-drug e.g. CRT-P/D, progenitor cells Drugs e.g. B blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin R blockers, aldosterone R antagonists
493
What are the types of TIA/stroke?
EMBOLIC ICA plaque rupture Intracardiac (e.g. AF, old MI, valve disease) Intracardiac communication ``` TREATMENT Fibrinolysis Clot extraction Antiplatelet drugs Modify atherosclerotic risk factors Endarterectomy, stent Hole closure ``` ``` HAEMORRHAGIC Vascular malformation Hypertension Tumor Iatrogenic ``` TREATMENT Coil/clip aneurysm Withdraw pro-haemorrhagic medication Control hypertension
494
What embolisms can be found in arterial vessels?
``` Thrombus [ACS, TIA, stroke] Air Fat Amniotic Foreign body/material ```
495
What are the consequences of a gas, fat, amniotic fluid and cholesterol embolism?
GAS/AIR EMBOLISM Iatrogenic Decompression sickness Trauma FAT EMBOLISM Trauma ``` AMNIOTIC FLUID EMBOLISM Pulmonary vasoconstriction, inflammation Sudden CV collapse Pulmonary HTN + RV failure -> LV failure DIC Rx: pulmonary vasodilators, FVIIa, ITU support ``` CHOLESTEROL EMBOLISM Showers of microemboli from within plaque of large calibre artery Plaque rupture (spontaneous, traumatic, iatrogenic) Embolization of plaque debris (cholesterol crystals, platelets, fibrin) Lodging of emboli in arterioles 100-200mm diam. Foreign body inflammatory response End-organ damage due to microvascular plugging and inflammation
496
Define: heart failure
A clinical syndrome caused by an abnormality of the heart and recognised by a characteristic pattern of haemodynamic, renal, neural and hormonal responses
497
What is the prognosis of heart failure (3 years)?
50% dead in 3 years
498
What is the incidence and prevalence of heart failure?
Prevalence= 1 - 3 %; 10% in those over 75 years Worldwide 22 million Incidence= 0.5 - 1.5 % per annum 2 million Men:women 1:1
499
What causes heart failure?
``` GENERAL Arrhythmias Valve disease Pericardial disease Congenital heart disease Myocardial disease ``` MYOCARDIAL DISEASE Coronary artery disease Cardiomyopathy - Dilated (DCM) - specific or idiopathic (IDCM) - Hypertrophic (HCM or HOCM or ASH) - Restrictive - Arrhythmic right ventricular cardiomyopathy(ARVC) Hypertension Drugs - Beta-blockers - Calcium antagonists - Anti-arrhythmics Other or unknown
500
How does heart disease relate to heart failure?
Coronary heart disease is the leading cause of death in Europe Modern treatment increases survival Survivors are left with a damaged heart -> 50% of all survivors develop heart failure Deaths due to heart attacks are declining but due to heart failure are increasing
501
Define: cardiomyopathy
Heart disease in the absence of a known cause and particularly coronary artery disease, valve disease, and hypertension
502
What percentage of heart failure is caused by cardiomyopathy?
5%
503
What causes dilated cardiomyopathy?
Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy Genetic and/or Familial cardiomyopathies ``` Infectious causes E.g. Viruses & HIV Mycobacteria Rickettsia Fungus Bacteria Parasites ``` ``` Toxins and poisons E.g. Ethanol Metals Cocaine Carbon dioxide or hypoxia ``` Drugs E.g. Chemotherapeutic agents Antiviral agents Metabolic disorders E.g. Nutritional deficiencies and endocrine diseases Collagen disorders, autoimmune cardiomyopathies Peri-partum cardiomyopathy, neuromuscular disorders
504
What causes restrictivecardiomyopathy?
Associated with fibrosis E.g. Diastolic dysfunction (elderly, hypertrophy, ischaemia, scleroderma( ``` Infiltrative disorders E.g. Amyloidosis Sarcoid disease Inborn errors of metabolism Neoplasia ``` Storage disorders E.g. Haemochromatosis and haemosiderosis Fabry disease, glycogen storage disease Endomyocardial disorders E.g. Endomyocardial fibrosis Hypereosinophilic syndrome carcinoid metastases Radiation damage
505
What causes death in heart failure?
Progression of heart failure - Increased myocardial wall stress - Increased retention of sodium and water Sudden death - Opportunistic arrhythmia - Acute coronary event (often undiagnosed) Cardiac event e.g. myocardial infarction Other cardiovascular event e.g. stroke, PVD Non cardiovascular cause
506
What hormonal mediators are involved in heart failure?
``` CONSTRICTORS Noradrenaline Renin/angiotensin II Endothelin Vasopressin NPY ``` ``` DILATORS ANP Prostaglandin E2 and metabolites EDRF Dopamine CGRP ``` ``` GROWTH FACTORS Insulin TNF alpha Growth hormone Angiotensin II Catecholamines NO ``` CYTOKINES OXYGEN RADICALS
507
What inflammatory markers are cytokines are there? (Organ specific and all cells)
ORGAN SPECIFIC Heart - Troponin T - Troponin I Vessel wall - ICAM-1 - VCAM-1 - E-selectin - P-selectin Macrophages - Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 - Secretory phospholipase A2 Adipose tissue ``` ALL CELLS Interleukin-1b Interleukin-6 Tissue necrosis factor a (ABOVE) -> Liver-> (BELOW) C-reactive protein Fibrinogen Serum amyloid A ```
508
What are the symptoms and signs of heart failure?
``` PATIENT SYMPTOMS Ankle swelling Exertional breathlessness Fatigue Orthopnoea PND Nocturia Anorexia Weight loss ``` ``` CLINICAL SIGNS Tachycardia Decreased pulse volume Pulsus alternans Increased JVP Oedema Rales Hepatomegaly Ascites ``` ``` INVESTIGATION (SIGNS) X-ray Echocardiogram Radionuclide ventriculogrpahy Ambulatory ECG monitoring Exercise test (VO2) Cardiac catheter ```
509
How is functional capacity of patients with heart failure determines?
NYHA classification Quality of life decreases Class 1-4 CLASS 1 Patients with cardiac disease but without resulting limitation of physical activity Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain CLASS 2 Patients with cardiac disease resulting in slight limitation of physical activity They are comfortable at rest Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain CLASS 3 Patients with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity They are comfortable at rest Less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain. CLASS 4 Patients with cardiac disease resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort Symptoms of heart failure or anginal syndrome may be present even at rest If any physical activity is undertaken, discomfort is increased
510
From onset, how does heart failure progress?
Onset of heart failure -> Sudden death OR coronary events Progression-> mild, moderate, severe 1ST STAGE Loss of myocardium Fall of bp- baroreceptors ergoreflexes and chemoreflexes activated Maintains hormone activation ``` 2ND STAGE Bacterial invasion Immune and inflammatory response Onset of cachexia Hastens demise-> rapid decrease in quality of life ```
511
What are the syndromes of heart failure?
ENTITY Synonym or variant ``` ACUTE HEART FAILURE Pulmonary oedema (large white patch on X ray) ``` CIRCULATORY COLLAPSE Cardiogenic “shock” (poor peripheral perfusion, oliguria, hypotension) CHRONIC HEART FAILURE Untreated, congestive, undulating, treated, compensated
512
What are the objectives when treating chronic heart failure?
``` PREVENTION Myocardial damage - Occurrence - Progression of damage - Further damaging episodes ``` Reoccurrence - Symptoms - Fluid accumulation - Hospitalisation RELIEF OF SYMPTOMS AND SIGNS Eliminate oedema and fluid retention Increase exercise capacity Reduce fatigue and breathlessness PROGNOSIS Reduce mortality
513
What management measures are helpful to prevent heart failure?
``` LIFESTYLE Weight reduction Discontinue smoking Avoid alcohol excess Exercise ``` ``` MEDICAL Treat HTN, diabetes, arrhythmias Anticoagulation Immunization Sodium / fluid restriction ``` Diuretics - Relieve fluid retention - Decrease symptoms e.g. pulmonary congestion and peripheral oedema - Can lead to electrolyte depletion ``` ACE Inhibitors / ARAs Beta-Blockers Aldosterone Antagonists (Spironolactone) Digoxin Devices (cardiac resynchronization, ICD) ``` (Drugs in order of when to give, generalist-> specialist)
514
What treatments can be given for severe heart failure?
INTRAVENOUS DRUGS Diuretics or combination of diuretics Nitrates Positive inotropes - dopamine/dobutamine FLUID CONTROL Haemofiltration Peritoneal dialysis or haemodialysis DEVICES ICD or pacing Intraaortic balloon pump Ventricular assist device, total artificial heart ``` SURGERY CABG for "hibernation" Valve surgery Cardiomyoplasty, volume reduction/restriction Transplantation ```