Case 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are pancreatic digestive enzymes secreted by?

A

pancreatic acini

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2
Q

where is large volumes of sodium bicarbonate solution secreted by?

A

the small ductules (duct cells) and larger ducts leading from the acini

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3
Q

what leaves the pancreas and how?

A

The combined product of enzymes and sodium bicarbonate (pancreatic juice) then flows through a long pancreatic duct that normally joins the hepatic/bile duct immediately before it empties into the duodenum through the papilla of Vater, surrounded by the sphincter of Oddi.

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4
Q

what is pancreatic juice secreted most abundantly in response to? what determines the characteristics of the pancreatic juice

A

the presence of chyme in the duodenum

• The characteristics of the pancreatic juice are determined to some extent by the types of food in the chyme.

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5
Q

what is the endocrine function of pancreas? what secreted from where?

A
  • Insulin is secreted by beta-cells of the islet of Langerhans.
  • Glucagon is secreted by alpha-cells of the islet of Langerhans.
  • Insulin and glucagon is secreted directly into the blood.
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6
Q

what is the fundamental secretory unit composed of?

A

an acinus and an intercalated duct

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7
Q

how do intercalated ducts arrive at main pancreatic duct?

A

Intercalated ducts merge to form intralobular ducts, which, in turn, merge to form interlobular ducts, and then the main pancreatic duct.

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8
Q

what do pancreatic secretions contain?

A
  1. Digestive enzymes - proteins, carbohydrates and fats.
  2. Bicarbonate ions (large quantities) – neutralisation of the acidity of the chyme emptied from the stomach into the duodenum.
  3. Water
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9
Q

what are the three protein digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

A
  1. Trypsin – the most abundant of the protein digestive enzymes to be secreted. It splits whole and partially digested proteins into peptides of various sizes but do not cause release of individual amino acids.
  2. Chymotrypsin - It splits whole and partially digested proteins into peptides of various sizes but do not cause release of individual amino acids.
  3. Carboxypolypetidase - this splits peptides into individual amino acids, thus completing the digestion of some proteins all the way to the amino acid state.
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10
Q

when first synthesised in the pancreatic cells, what form are these proteolytic digestive enzymes in? what is this called? what are they called? and how is each activated? when do they become activated?

A

• When first synthesized in the pancreatic cells, the proteolytic digestive enzymes are in the inactive forms ( termed ‘zymogens’) which are inactive enzymatically:
1. Trypsinogen
o Activated by the enzyme enterokinase (secreted by the intestinal mucosa when chyme comes into contact with the mucosa).
o It can also be autocatalytically activated by trypsin that has already been formed from previously secreted trypsinogen.
2. Chymotrypsinogen
o Activated by trypsin to form chymotrypsin.
3. Procarboxypolypeptidase
o Activated by trypsin to form carboxypolypeptidase.
• They become activated only after they are secreted into the intestinal tract.

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11
Q

what is the carbohydrate digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas? what does it do?

A

pancreatic amylase
• This hydrolyses starches, glycogen, and other carbohydrates (except cellulose) to form mostly disaccharides and a few trisaccharides.

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12
Q

what are the three fat digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

A
  1. Pancreatic Lipase – this hydrolyses neutral fat into fatty acids and monoglycerides.
  2. Cholesterol Esterase – this causes hydrolysis of cholesterol esters.
  3. Phospholipase – this splits fatty acids from phospholipids.
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13
Q

what do proteases help keep the intestine free of?

A

parasites such as bacteria, yeast and protozoa

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14
Q

what might a shortage of amylase cause?

A

• Diarrhoea due to the effects of undigested starch in the colon.

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15
Q

what can lack of lipase cause?

A
  • Lack of needed fats and fat-soluble vitamins.

* Diarrhoea and/or fatty stools.

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16
Q

what does the exocrine pancreas have a large store of?

A

digestive enzymes for carbohydrates and proteins, but not for lipids.

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17
Q

what does trypsin inhibitor do?

A

prevents digestion of the pancreas itself.
• It is important that the proteolytic enzymes of the pancreatic juice do not become activated until after they have been secreted into the intestine because the trypsin and the other enzymes would digest the pancreas itself.

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18
Q

which cells secrete trypsin inhibitor? what does it do in the pancreas?

A

• The cells that secrete proteolytic enzymes also secrete trypsin inhibitor.
 This substance is formed in the cytoplasm of the glandular cells, and it prevents activation of trypsin both inside the secretory cells and in the acini and ducts of the pancreas.
 As trypsin activates the other pancreatic proteolytic enzymes, trypsin inhibitor prevents activation of the others as well.

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19
Q

how can acute pancreatitis take place?

A
  • When the pancreas becomes severely damaged or when a duct becomes blocked, large quantities of pancreatic secretion sometimes become pooled in the damaged areas.
  • Under these conditions, the effect of trypsin inhibitor is often overwhelmed, in which case the pancreatic secretions rapidly become activated, thus causing digestion of the pancreas, giving rise to the condition called acute pancreatitis.
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20
Q

what are the protective factors against acinar cell autodigestion? what are their mechanisms?

A
  • Packaging of many digestive proteins as zymogens = precursor proteins lack enzymatic activity
  • Selective sorting of secretory proteins and storage in zymogen granules = restricts the interaction of secretory proteins with other cellular compartments
  • Protease inhibitors in the zymogen granule = block the action of prematurely activated enzymes
  • Condensation of secretory proteins in low pH = limits the activity of active enzymes
  • Nondigestive proteases = degrade active enzymes
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21
Q

what is the concentration of bicarbonate ions in pancreatic juice? why is this important?

A
  • Upon stimulation of the pancreas to secrete copious quantities of pancreatic juice, the bicarbonate ion concentration can rise to five times (145 mEq/L) its concentration in the plasma.
  • This provides a large quantity of alkali in the pancreatic juice that serves to neutralize the hydrochloric acid emptied into the duodenum from the stomach.
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22
Q

describe the secretion of sodium carbonate solution

A
  1. Carbon dioxide diffuses into the ductal cell from the blood:
     Under the influence of carbonic anhydrase, it combines with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3).
     The carbonic acid in turn dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions (HCO3- and H+).
    o Some HCO3- ions also enter the cell directly across the basolateral membrane via an Na/HCO3 cotransporter.
     Then the bicarbonate ions are actively transported into the lumen via a Cl-HCO3 exchanger.
  2. The hydrogen ions are exchanged for sodium ions through the blood border of the cell by a secondary active transport process.
     This supplies the sodium ions (Na+) that are transported through the luminal border into the pancreatic duct lumen to provide electrical neutrality for the secreted bicarbonate ions.
  3. The overall movement of sodium and bicarbonate ions from the blood into the duct lumen creates an osmotic pressure gradient that causes osmosis of water also into the pancreatic duct, thus forming an almost completely isosmotic bicarbonate solution.
  4. Some sodium ions (Na+) enter the lumen through the tight junctions due to the negative voltage of the lumen.
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23
Q

what are the three basic stimuli important in causing pancreatic secretion?

A
  1. Acetylcholine (M3 receptors) - released from the parasympathetic vagus nerve endings and from other cholinergic nerves in the enteric nervous system.
  2. Cholecystokinin (CCK) – secreted by the duodenal and upper jejunal mucosa in response to presence of fats and amino acids.
  3. Secretin - secreted by the duodenal and jejunal mucosa in response to the presence of highly acid food in the small intestine.
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24
Q

what do ACh and CCK stimulate in the pancreas?

A

stimulate the acinar cells to secrete large quantities of pancreatic digestive enzymes but relatively small quantities of water and electrolytes to go with the enzymes.

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25
Q

without water in the duct what happens?

A

Without the water, most of the enzymes remain temporarily stored in the acini and ducts until more fluid secretion comes along to wash them into the duodenum.

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26
Q

what does secretin stimulate?

A

stimulates ductal epithelial cells to secrete of large quantities of water solution of sodium bicarbonate.

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27
Q

what happens when these stimuli (ACh, CCK and secretin) for pancreas all occur at once?

A
  • When these stimuli all occur at once, the total secretion is far greater than the sum of the secretions caused by each one separately.
  • Therefore, the various stimuli are said to ‘multiply’, or ‘potentiate’ on another.
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28
Q

what are two pancreatic acinar cell pathways for stimulating the insertion of zymogen granules and thus releasing digestive enzymes?

A
  • ACh and CCK both activate Gαq, which stimulates PLC, which ultimately leads to the activation of PKC and the release of Ca2+.
  • Elevated [Ca2+]i also activates calmodulin (CaM), which can activate protein kinases (PK) and phosphatases (PP).
  • Finally, VIP and secretin both activate Gαs, which stimulates adenylyl cyclase (AC), leading to the production of cAMP and the activation of PKA.
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29
Q

what do duct cells have receptors for? what do these substances do?

A
  • The duct cells have receptors for secretin, GRP (gastrin-releasing peptide), all of which stimulate HCO3- secretion.
  • The duct cells have receptors for substance P which inhibits HCO3- secretion.
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30
Q

cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion

  • what are the simuli
  • which most important
  • what does it cause
  • how
A
  • The sight, taste, or smell of food stimulates pancreatic acinar cells, through the vagus nerve and M3 receptors (acetylcholine)(biggest stimulus to get pancreas working), to release digestive enzymes, and to a lesser extent, stimulates duct cells to secrete HCO3- and fluid.
  • However, only a small amount of the secretion flows immediately through the pancreatic ducts into the intestine because only small amounts of water and electrolytes are secreted along with the enzymes.
  • VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
  • GRP (gastrin releasing peptide)
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31
Q

gastric phase of pancreatic secretion

  • how does the presence of food modulate pancreatic secretion
  • how does the presence of food in the stomach affect pancreatic secretions
  • how important
A

• The presence of food modulates pancreatic secretion by:

  1. Affecting hormone release
  2. Stimulating neural pathways
  3. Modifying pH and availability of nutrients in the proximal part of the small intestine

• The presence of food in the stomach stimulates pancreatic secretions – primarily from the acinar cells – through two routes:

  1. Distention of the stomach activates a vagovagal reflex.
  2. Protein digestion products (peptones) stimulate G-cells in the antrum of the stomach to release gastrin, which is a poor agonist of the CCKA receptors on acinar cells.
  • VIP
  • GRP
  • gastric phase smaller component
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32
Q

intestinal phase of pancreatic secretion

  • what stimulates this
  • what does it cause
  • how important
A
  • Protein and lipid breakdown products stimulate a vagovagal reflex that stimulates primarily the acinar cells.
  • The acidity of the chyme stimulates S-cells in the duodenum to secrete secretin, which acts on receptors on duct cells, stimulating HCO3- secretion (main effect in this phase).
  • Protein and lipid breakdown products stimulate I-cells in duodenum to secrete CCK, which acts on receptors on acinar cells, stimulating enzyme secretion.
  • most important stimulus to get pancreas working – responsible for 80% of what pancreas produces
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33
Q

what percentage of maximum enzyme secretion does each phase in pancreatic secretion cause?

A
cephalic = 25% 
gastric = 10-20% 
intestinal = 50-80%
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34
Q

secretin

  • what is it
  • forms
  • what cells
  • when released
  • what does it cause
A
  • Secretin is a polypeptide, containing 27 amino acids, present in an inactive form, prosecretin, in so-called S-cells in the duodenal and jejunal mucosa.
  • When acid chyme with pH less than 4.5 to 5.0 enters the duodenum from the stomach, it causes duodenal mucosal release and activation of secretin, which is then absorbed into the blood.
  • The constituent of chyme that causes this secretin release is the HCl from the stomach.
  • Secretin in turn causes the pancreas to secrete large quantities of fluid containing a high concentration of bicarbonate ion (up to 145mEq/L) but a low concentration of chloride ion.
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35
Q

what are the functions of sodium bicarbonate secretion?

A

• Sodium bicarbonate causes neutralization of the HCl.
• This is followed by another reaction in the duodenum: HCl +NaHCO3&raquo_space;> NaCl +H2CO3
 Then the carbonic acid immediately dissociates into carbon dioxide and water.
 The carbon dioxide is absorbed into the blood and expired through the lungs, thus leaving a neutral solution of sodium chloride in the duodenum.
 In this way, the acid contents emptied into the duodenum from the stomach become neutralized, so that further peptic digestive activity by the gastric juices in the duodenum is immediately blocked.
 Because the mucosa of the small intestine cannot withstand the digestive action of acid gastric juice, this is an essential protective mechanism to prevent development of duodenal ulcers.

• Bicarbonate ion secretion by the pancreas provides an appropriate pH for action of the pancreatic digestive enzymes, which function optimally in a slightly alkaline or neutral medium, at a pH of 7.0 to 8.0.
 The pH of the sodium bicarbonate secretion averages 8.0.

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36
Q

cholecystokinin

  • what is it
  • what cells where
  • what stimulates release
  • what causes
A

• Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a polypeptide containing 33 amino acids.
• It is released by I-cells in the duodenal and upper jejunal mucosa.
• This release of CCK results especially from the presence of proteoses and peptones (products of partial protein digestion) and long-chain fatty acids in the chyme coming from the stomach.
• CCK, like secretin, passes by way of the blood to the pancreas, where it binds to CCKA receptors causing secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes by the acinar cells.
• This accounts for 70-80% of the total secretion of the pancreatic digestive enzymes after a meal.
• Picture:
 Intense sodium bicarbonate secretion in response to acid in the duodenum, stimulated by secretin.
 A dual effect in response to soap (a fat).
 Intense digestive enzyme secretion (when peptones enter the duodenum) stimulated by cholecystokinin.

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37
Q

what enzymes for hydrolysis of disaccharides and small glucose polymers are there in the enterocytes lining the villi of the small intestine?

A
  1. Lactase: split lactose into galactose and glucose.
  2. Sucrase: split sucrose into fructose and glucose.
  3. Maltase: split maltose into multiple molecules of glucose.
  4. α-dextrinase: split small glucose polymers into multiple molecules of glucose.
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38
Q

where are the enzymes located in small intestine?

A

in the enterocytes covering the intestinal microvilli brush border, so that the disaccharides are digested as they come in contact with these enterocytes.

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39
Q

what are the products of carbohydrate digestion? what happens to them?

A

• Thus, the final products of carbohydrate digestion are all monosaccharides.
 They are all water soluble and are absorbed immediately into the portal blood.
• Glucose represents more than 80% of the final products of carbohydrate digestion, and galactose and fructose each seldom more than 10%.

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40
Q

where are peptidases located?

A
  • The brush border consists of hundreds of microvilli projecting from the surface of each cell.
  • In the membrane of each of these microvilli are multiple peptidases that protrude through the membranes to the exterior, where they come in contact with the intestinal fluids.
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41
Q

which two types of peptidase enzymes are especially important? what happens to the products? where are other enzymes?

A
  1. aminopolypeptidase
  2. dipeptidases
    • They split large polypeptides into tripeptides and dipeptides and a few into amino acids.
    • The breakdown products of polypeptides are transported through the microvillar membrane to the interior of the enterocyte.
    • There are more specific peptidases inside the enterocyte.
    • Once the peptides have been broken down into amino acids, they enter the blood from the basolateral membrane of the enterocyte.
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42
Q

where does some fat digestion occur?

A
  • Some triglycerides are digested in the stomach by lingual lipase that is secreted by lingual glands in the mouth and swallowed with the saliva.
  • This amounts for 10% of fat digestion.
  • Fat digestion mainly occurs in the small intestine.
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43
Q

describe and explain the emulsification of fat

A

Emulsification of Fat by Bile Acids and Lecithin
• The first step in fat digestion is emulsification.
• This is the physical breakdown of fat globules into very small sizes so that the water-soluble digestive enzymes can act on the globule surfaces.
1. It begins by agitation in the stomach to mix the fat with the products of stomach digestion.
2. Then, most of the emulsification occurs in the duodenum under the influence of bile.
3. Bile doesn’t contain any digestive enzymes; however, it does contain a large quantity of bile salts as well as the phospholipid lecithin.

  1. The polar parts (the points where ionization occurs in water) of the bile salts and lecithin molecules are highly soluble in water, whereas most of the remaining portions of their molecules are highly soluble in fat.
    o Therefore, the fat-soluble portions of these liver secretions dissolve in the surface layer of the fat globules, with the polar portions projecting.
  2. The polar projections, in turn, are soluble in the surrounding watery fluids, which greatly decreases the interfacial tension of the fat and makes it soluble as well.
    o When the interfacial tension of a globule of non-miscible fluid is low, this non-miscible fluid, on agitation, can be broken up into many very minute particles far more easily than it can when the interfacial tension is great.

o Consequently, a major function of the bile salts and lecithin, especially the lecithin, in the bile is to make the fat globules readily fragmentable by agitation with the water in the small bowel.

  1. As the fat globules are broken down (diameter is reduced) as a result of agitation in the small intestine, their surface area increases. Therefore, the emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat globules for the action of enzymes to follow.
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44
Q

describe the digestion of fat

A

The lipase enzymes are water-soluble compounds and can attack the fat globules only on their surfaces. The main enzyme to further break down fat globules is the pancreatic lipase enzyme.
o The triglycerides of the diet are split by pancreatic lipase into free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides.

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45
Q

what is the role of bile salts in accelerating fat digestion?

A

• The hydrolysis of triglycerides results in accumulation of monoglycerides and free fatty acids in the vicinity of digesting fats, which block further digestion.
• Bile salts help prevent this.
 They form a ‘micelle’ around the fat globule that is to be digested.
 These develop because of the hydrophilic and hydrophobic nature of bile salts.

  • Micelles also help transport the monoglycerides and free fatty acids to the brush borders of the intestinal epithelial cells.
  • There the monoglycerides and free fatty acids are absorbed into the blood, but the bile salts themselves are released back into the chyme to be used again and again for this “ferrying” process.
  1. Emulsification of large fat droplets (increase surface area for action of lipase)
  2. Formation of mixed (contain mixture of monoglycerides, fatty acids, bile salts) micelles = stabilises products of TG hydrolysis (MG + FA) while they are ‘translocated’ to apical membrane from lumen
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46
Q

what stimulates pancreatic secretion (fats)?

A
  • Triglycerides do not stimulate pancreatic secretion, but their hydrolytic products – monoglycerides and free fatty acids – do.
  • The longer the chain of the fatty acid, the greater is the secretory response.
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47
Q

what are the different methods of absorption and what is absorbed my each method?

A

 Simple diffusion – this is the main way in which lipids are absorbed

 Carrier-mediated – amino acids, sugars and possibly lipids

  • secondary active
  • facilitated diffusion

 Endocytosis - (receptor-mediated)
– vitamin B12 + intrinsic factor
-cholesterol
-small portion of absorption, although larger part when you are baby/younger

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48
Q

what are the different sites of absorption? and what absorbed there?

A

 Mouth, oesophagus, stomach – limited diffusion
 Duodenum and jejunum – this is the major site of nutrient and ion absorption
 Ileum – vitamin B12 and bile salts & K+
(huge length of small intestine) (used for absorption if duodenum and jejunum don’t do good enough job)
 Colon – some Na+ and H2O (+short chain fatty acids)
 Rectum – limited diffusion

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49
Q

how is the small intestine adapted to being the prime site of absorption?

A
  1. Large absorptive surface area.
  2. Rich blood supply of blood vessels and lacteals (to drain lipids) found in the mucosal lining.
  3. Expansion of nutrient specific transport proteins.
    o These belong to a family of transport proteins called “Solute Carrier (SLC) Transport Proteins”.
    o Although, these transport proteins are found on the plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cells, they too can be found on the organelles inside the cell itself, thus leading to undefined side effects.
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50
Q

what are the three levels of the surface area of the small intestine?

A
  1. Folds of Kerckring
  2. Villi (+ crypts of Lieberkuhn)
  3. Microvilli
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51
Q

what does the small intestine absorb net amounts of? what does it secrete?

A
  • The small intestine absorbs net amounts of water, Na+, Cl-, and K+.
  • The small intestine secretes HCO3-.
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52
Q

with regards to absorption, what are the functional differences throughout the small intestine?

A
  1. Segmental heterogeneity
     Different parts of the small intestine are involved in the absorption of different components of diet.
  2. Crypt-villus/surface heterogeneity
     Absorptive function is located in villous cells in the small intestine, whereas secretory processes reside in the crypt cells.
  3. Cellular heterogeneity
     Specific transport mechanisms are restricted to certain cells.
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53
Q

how are carbohydrates absorbed? what form? how?

A

• Essentially all the carbohydrates in the food are absorbed in the form of monosaccharides; only a small fraction are absorbed as disaccharides and almost none as larger carbohydrate compounds.
• There are three monosaccharides that are absorbed:
1. Glucose – most abundant monosaccharide absorbed (80%). This is because glucose is the final digestion product of carbohydrates.
2. Galactose
3. Fructose

• All monosaccharides are absorbed by an active transport process.

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54
Q

glucose absorption is dependent on what? why?

A
  • Glucose absorption is dependent on Na+ ion absorption.

* Glucose absorption occurs in a cotransport mode with active transport of sodium.

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55
Q

describe the absorption of glucose from lumen to blood

  • what transporters
  • type of transport
A

• There are two stages in the transport of sodium through the intestinal membrane that cause absorption of glucose:
1. Active transport of sodium ions through the basolateral membranes of the intestinal epithelial cells into the blood, thereby depleting sodium inside the epithelial cells.
2. Decrease of sodium inside the cells causes absorption of sodium ions from the intestinal lumen across the apical membrane of the epithelial cells to the cell interiors by a process of facilitated diffusion.
 2Na+ ions bind to a sodium-glucose transporter protein.
 This causes absorption of glucose.
 The low concentration of sodium inside the cell literally “drags” sodium to the interior of the cell and along with it the glucose at the same time.
 Once inside the epithelial cell, other transport proteins and enzymes cause facilitated diffusion of the glucose through the cell’s basolateral membrane into the paracellular space and from there into the blood.

  • Na+/K+-ATPase pump – basolateral membrane
  • Na+-dependent co-transporter SGLT1 (sodium-glucose transporter 1)(secondary active into cell) (2Na+ and 1glc (glucose)) (works for glucose and galactose – they’re both hexose sugars)
  • GLUT2 (facilitated diffusion out of basolateral membrane) (glucose transporter) (fructose can also move out of the cell via this)

Secondary active transport = against a concentration gradient – energy derived from Na+ gradient created by Na+ pump (Na+ pump = primary active transport)

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56
Q

how is galactose transported?

A

by the same mechanism as glucose.

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57
Q

how does fructose absorption take place?

  • what happens to it
  • what is rate
  • what transporter
A

Fructose absorption does not occur by the sodium co-transport mechanism. Instead, fructose is transported by facilitated diffusion all the way through the intestinal epithelium but not coupled with sodium transport.
 Much of the fructose, on entering the cell, becomes phosphorylated, then converted to glucose, and finally transported in the form of glucose the rest of the way into the blood.
 Because fructose is not co-transported with sodium, its overall rate of transport is only about one half that of glucose or galactose.
- GLUT5 (facilitated diffusion into cell) (fructose = pentose sugar)
- GLUT2 (facilitated diffusion out of basolateral membrane) (glucose transporter) (fructose can also move out of the cell via this)

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58
Q

describe the absorption of fats

A
  • The bile micelles, which develop during digestion of fats, are soluble in chyme because of their size and their highly charged exterior.
  • In this form, the monoglycerides and free fatty acids are carried to the surfaces of the microvilli of the intestinal cell brush border and then penetrate into the recesses among the moving, agitating microvilli.
  • Here, both the monoglycerides and fatty acids diffuse immediately out of the micelles and into the interior of the epithelial cells, which is possible because the lipids are also soluble in the epithelial cell membrane.
  • This leaves the bile micelles still in the chyme, where they function again and again to help absorb still more monoglycerides and fatty acids – a “ferrying” function.
  • After entering the epithelial cell, the fatty acids and monoglycerides are taken up by the cell’s smooth endoplasmic reticulum; here, they are mainly used to form new triglycerides that are subsequently released in the form of chylomicrons.
  • These chylomicrons are exocytosed through the base of the epithelial cell, and are transported in the lymphatic system to the liver.

FAT ABSORPTION (A DEVELOPING STORY)

i. Simple diffusion of FA – limited with few FFAs in undissociated state (pKa about 4.9)
ii. FFA transporters – FAT plus CD36 + others? (SCFA transporter in colon)
iii. MG transport – evidence for carrier-mediated mechanisms (no detail)

MG & FA ABSORPTION & TG RE-SYNTHESIS
- FA & MG are absorbed (in some way) … (lets just say simple diffusion)
THEN:
- TG re-synthesised in ER, packaged in chylomicrons
- Exocytosis of chylomicrons
- Chylomicrons transported in lymphatic system to liver

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59
Q

describe and explain the direct absorption of fatty acids into the portal blood

A
  • Small quantities of short- and medium-chain fatty acids are absorbed directly into the portal blood rather than being converted into triglycerides and absorbed by way of the lymphatics.
  • The cause of this difference between short- and long-chain fatty acid absorption is that the short-chain fatty acids are more water-soluble and mostly are not reconverted into triglycerides by the endoplasmic reticulum.
  • This allows direct diffusion of these short-chain fatty acids from the intestinal epithelial cells directly into the capillary blood of the intestinal villi.
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60
Q

absorption of proteins

  • in what form are they absorbed
  • how
  • how are some others absorbed
  • how many different types of transporting proteins
A

• Most proteins, after digestion, are absorbed through the luminal membranes of the intestinal epithelial cells in the form of dipeptides, tripeptides, and a few free amino acids.
• The energy for most of this transport is supplied by a sodium co-transport mechanism in the same way that sodium co-transport of glucose occurs:
 Most peptide or amino acid molecules bind in the cell’s microvillus membrane with a specific transport protein that requires sodium binding before transport can occur.
 After binding, the sodium ion then moves down its electrochemical gradient to the interior of the cell and pulls the amino acid or peptide along with it.
 This is called co-transport (or secondary active transport) of the amino acids and peptides.
• A few amino acids do not require this sodium co-transport mechanism but instead are transported by special membrane transport proteins in the same way that fructose is transported, by facilitated diffusion.
• At least five types of transport proteins for transporting amino acids and peptides have been found in the luminal membranes of intestinal epithelial cells. This multiplicity of transport proteins is required because of the diverse binding properties of different amino acids and peptides.

AMINO ACIDS ABSORPTION

  • 20 dietary amino acids with a range of physical properties (e.g. neutral, acidic, basic, imino, etc.)
  • 50% absorbed by PepT1 as di- & tri-peptides (hydrolysed to a.a. in enterocyte – released from the basolateral membrane of cell as amino acids)
  • Other 50% by specific transporters
  • XAG- -> anionic (aspartate, glutamate)
  • B0 -> neutral a.a.
  • b0+ -> cationic & cystine
  • PAT1 -> proline

AMINO ACIDS – SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT
PepT1 – peptides, H+ (always a concentration gradient of H+ into cell) - cotransport
B^0 – Na+, alanine – cotransport
XAG- - 2Na+, glutamate-, H+, K+ (goes out) – cotransport

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61
Q

absorption of water - how? how much absorbed and where? what not transported by?

A
  • Water is transported through the intestinal membrane entirely by diffusion (osmosis).
  • This is due to an osmotic gradient that is created as a result of absorption of ions in the paracellular spaces, and consequently into the blood.
  • Conversely, water can also be transported in the opposite direction—from plasma into the chyme.
  • Much of the osmosis occurs through the tight junctions between the apical borders of the epithelial cells, but much also occurs through the cells themselves.

ABSORPTION OF H2O
- H2O moves down osmotic gradient
- Osmotic gradient created (mainly) by absorption of nutrients
- 8.4 l absorbed in total per day (due to water consumed as well as all the secretions produced)
-6.5 l absorbed in small intestine
-whereas only 1.9 l absorbed in colon (fairly minor role contrary to what people believe)
Route for H2O: (not quite sure)
- Via junctional complexes between cells
- Via SGLT1 & a.a. transporters
- NOT aquaporin water channels (not expressed in small or large intestine tissues in any great number)

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62
Q

what is the mechanism for sodium absorption? what type of absorption?

A
  • Sodium ions (Na+) are actively transported from inside the epithelial cells through the basal and side walls of these cells into paracellular spaces.
  • This occurs due to the Na+/K+ ATPase pump mainly.
  • Part of the sodium is absorbed along with chloride ions - the negatively charged chloride ions are mainly passively “dragged” by the positive electrical charges of the sodium ions.
  • Active transport of sodium through the basolateral membranes of the cell reduces the sodium concentration inside the cell to a low value (50 mEq/L).
  • Because the sodium concentration in the chyme is normally about 142 mEq/L (that is, about equal to that in plasma), sodium moves down this steep electrochemical gradient from the chyme through the brush border of the epithelial cell into the epithelial cell cytoplasm.
  • This provides still more sodium ions to be transported by the epithelial cells into the paracellular spaces.

‘ACTIVE’ TRANSPORT OF NA+ (AND Cl-)

  • Na-H exchanger (duodenum, jejunum)
  • Na/glucose or Na/amino acid cotransporters (jejunum, ileum)
  • Parallel Na-H and Cl-HCO3 exchangers (ileum, proximal colon)
  • Epithelial Na+ channel (distal colon)
  • Diets don’t contain a lot of sodium, so we’ll evolved to have a good absorption system of sodium so that we conserve it in our body – if you have a lot of sodium in your diet, then this can be contributory to hypertension
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63
Q

what is the effect of aldosterone on sodium absorption?

A

Aldosterone Greatly Enhances Sodium Absorption
• When a person becomes dehydrated, large amounts of aldosterone almost always are secreted by the cortices of the adrenal glands.
• Within 1 to 3 hours this aldosterone causes increased activation of the enzyme and transport mechanisms for all aspects of sodium absorption by the intestinal epithelium.
• And the increased sodium absorption in turn causes secondary increases in absorption of chloride ions, water (thereby overcoming the dehydration), and some other substances.
• This effect of aldosterone is especially important in the colon because it allows virtually no loss of sodium chloride in the faeces and also little water loss.

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64
Q

absorption of chloride ions

  • where
  • how
A

Absorption of Chloride Ions in the Duodenum and Jejunum
• In the upper part of the small intestine, chloride ion (Cl-) absorption is rapid and occurs mainly by diffusion.
• Absorption of sodium ions through the epithelium creates electronegativity in the chyme and electropositivity in the paracellular spaces between the epithelial cells.
• Then chloride ions move along this electrical gradient to “follow” the sodium ions.

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65
Q

absorption of bicarbonate ions

  • where
  • why
  • how
A

Absorption of Bicarbonate Ions in the Duodenum and Jejunum
• Often large quantities of bicarbonate ions must be reabsorbed from the upper small intestine because large amounts of bicarbonate ions have been secreted into the duodenum in both pancreatic secretion and bile.

• The bicarbonate ion is absorbed in an indirect way as follows:
o When sodium ions are absorbed, moderate amounts of hydrogen ions are secreted into the lumen of the gut in exchange for some of the sodium.
o These hydrogen ions in turn combine with the bicarbonate ions to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which then dissociates to form water and carbon dioxide.
 The water remains as part of the chyme in the intestines, but the carbon dioxide is readily absorbed into the blood and subsequently expired through the lungs.
 Thus, this is so-called “active absorption of bicarbonate ions”.

  • HCO3- no active absorption in SI or LI
  • Faces [K+] = 90 mM; [HCO3-] = 30 mM
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66
Q

how much is 1 unit of alcohol?

A

10ml or 8g pure ethanol.

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67
Q

where is alcohol absorbed? where transported to?

A

• Alcohol is absorbed from the upper small intestine via the portal vein and is then transported to the liver.
- also absorbed in the stomach

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68
Q

where and how is alcohol metabolised?

A

• Some alcohol is metabolized in the stomach by alcohol dehydrogenase.
 Females have a lack of this enzyme, therefore, their recommended safe limit is less than that of men.
• The rest of the alcohol is metabolized in the liver:
 Alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde and excreted by conversion to carbon dioxide in citric acid cycle.
 The enzyme cytochrome p4502E1 is involved in the metabolism of alcohol in the liver.

  • I think some is metabolised in the stomach because some ADH is found there (first pass metabolism) but most in liver
  • ADH is found mostly in the liver and lining of stomach (but highest concentration in the liver)
  • about 20% of alcohol absorbed in the stomach and 80% in the small intestine
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69
Q

what is the rate of metabolism of alcohol?

A

varies but is usually at a rate of 1 unit per hour.

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70
Q

what are the effects of alcohol?

A
  • Alcohol has a stimulant effect at low levels.
  • However, chronic use of alcohol (moderate to severe doses) has depressant effects on the CNS, mainly the depression of cardiovascular and respiratory centres in the brainstem.

• At low doses, alcohol has a protective effect against atheromas.
- Alcohol does not protect from CVD except in women over 55- up to 5 units per week

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71
Q

what happens in acute alcohol poisoning?

A
o	Confusion, Loss of coordination
o	Vomiting (this is a good sign as the person is trying to eliminate the toxins from their body, however, this can lead to complications like aspiration).
o	Seizures, Irregular or slow breathing (less than eight breaths a minute), Blue-tinged or pale skin (due to low oxyhaemoglobin), Low body temperature (hypothermia), Stupor (being conscious but unresponsive), Unconsciousness (passing out)
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72
Q

how can alcohol affect different parts of the GI tract? what does it cause?

A

 Mouth/ Upper GI tract
o Increased incidence of cancers of upper GI tract / aerodigestive tract
o Especially tongue, buccal mucosa, pharynx, upper oesophagus
o Associated particularly with spirit use
o Possible a co-factor with cigarette smoking
 Oesophagus
o Carcinoma of oesophagus, especially squamous carcinoma
o Oesophageal varices (dilation of veins, subject to rupture), associated with chronic liver disease
 Stomach
o Acute gastritis
o Acute ulceration
o Chronic peptic ulceration
o Portal gastropathy
 Pancreas
o Acute pancreatitis
o Chronic pancreatitis
 Liver
o Alcohol liver disease
 Acute fatty change (early) - reversible
 Alcoholic hepatitis - reversible
 Hepatic fibrosis - reversible
 Cirrhosis (severe) – irreversible
 Hepatocellular carcinoma

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73
Q

what does a normal liver do?

A
  • Protein synthesis (e.g. albumin 35-50g/L, clotting factors)
  • Glycogen storage
  • Deamination of polypeptides
  • Detoxification of xenobiotics, hormones, ingested drugs
  • Bilirubin metabolism
  • Coagulation factor synthesis
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74
Q

what are alcohol related disease mechanisms?

A
  • Direct toxic effect
  • Indirect metabolite effect (e.g. acetaldehyde)
  • Activation of free radicals
  • Induction of enzyme systems, especially cytochrome p450
  • Nutritional deficiencies, especially vitamin B
  • Liver function impairment
75
Q

what is part of/happens in alcohol-related liver disease? what is reversible what isn’t?

A
  1. acute fatty change (early) - reversible
  2. alcoholic hepatitis - reversible
  3. hepatic fibrosis - reversible
  4. cirrhosis (severe) - irreversible
76
Q

acute fatty change

  • where
  • what
  • what may cause
  • when reversible
  • what is alcohol normally converted to but what converted to here
A

 Predominantly acinar zone 3 – this area is furthest away from blood supply
 Mainly large droplet (macrovesicular)
 May cause acute hepatic failure
 Reversible on withdrawal of alcohol

(Krebs cycle diagram – if consume too much alcohol and the liver isn’t able to metabolise it, instead of going to CO2 and H2O, it goes through the acetaldehyde pathway and makes lipids – the lipids are accumulated within the liver cells)

77
Q

alcoholic hepatitis

  • what happens
  • when reversible
A

 Alcoholic Steatohepatitis
o Fatty change, mainly large droplet
o Mallory’s hyaline
o Intracytoplasmic accumulation of cytoskeletal components (keratin)
o Associated neutrophil polymorph infiltration
o Reversible on withdrawal of alcohol

(if you keep drinking alcohol in excess for prolonged periods, you damage/break down the structural components of the liver cells and when you break down the cells and they are no longer recognised as cells, it induces an inflammatory response) (Mallory’s hyaline)

78
Q

what is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)?

  • what associated with
  • what features
  • what progress to
  • reversible or not
A

o Identical features to alcoholic hepatitis
o Associated with obesity, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia, drug use especially corticosteroids and amiodarone
o May progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis
o Reversible on correction of underlying factor
(epidemic)

79
Q

hepatic fibrosis

  • where starts
  • what initially
  • what caused by
  • when reversible
A

o Starts in acinar zone 3
o Initially pericellular fibrosis
o Caused by activation of hepatic stellate (Ito) cell = facultative myofibroblast
o Reversible by TIMPs (Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinases) on withdrawal of alcohol

(the result of prolonged inflammatory response – start to replace hepatocytes with scar tissue – collagen – made within the liver itself – the cells lie down collagen in the sinusoidal spaces)

80
Q

cirrhosis

- what are the effects

A
o	Liver Failure 
	Protein synthesis: low albumin
	Coagulation factors: bleeding 
	Hyperoestrogenism: gynaecomastia, gonadal atrophy, Dupuytren’s contracture, liver palms, spider naevi
	Jaundice
	Encephalopathy: confusion
o	Portal Hypertension
	Ascites
	Varices
	Splenomegaly 
o	Hepatocellular Carcinoma
	Very common carcinoma where HBV endemic (SE Asia, Africa)
	Very poor prognosis i.e. 6-9 months
	Raised serum alpha-fetoprotein levels

(end stage liver disease) (complete nodularity of the liver)

81
Q

what are tools to identify heavy drinkers?

A

 Blood tests:
o Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
o Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
 Screening tools - CAGE or AUDIT can help identify heavy drinkers

82
Q

what is CAGE questionnaire?

A
  • A CAGE questionnaire is used as a screening test for problem drinking and potential alcohol problems.
  • A total score of 2 or greater is considered clinically significant.
  • C = have you ever attempted to CUT down your drinking?
  • A = do you ever get ANNOYED when people complain about your drinking?
  • G = do you sometimes feel GUILTY about things you have done while drinking?
  • E = do you ever need a drink to get going the morning after (EYE OPENER)?
  • Any two positive responses are strongly indicative of alcoholism
83
Q

what is AUDIT?

A
  • Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)
  • Better at detecting harmful drinking
  • Score >8 is 95% sensitive and 85% specific for harmful drinking
84
Q

what are the three theories of addiction?

A
  1. Moral Model: addiction as the result of weakness and a lack of moral fibre
  2. Biomedical Model: addiction as a disease
  3. Social Learning Theories: behaviours that are learned according to the rules of learning theory
85
Q

what is the moral model?

A
  • Addicts are “weak” and can overcome a compulsion to use with willpower.
  • Drug abusers choose to use drugs.
  • Drug abusers are anti‐social and should be punished.
  • Drugs are evil.
86
Q

what is the biomedical model?

A
•	Addiction as a “brain disease”.
•	Neurotransmitter imbalance.
•	Disease Model:
	Agent: drug
	Vector: dealers
	Host: addict
•	Need to “stamp out” the disease by eliminating drugs.
•	Drug antagonist medications: Welbutrin; naltrexone; antabuse
87
Q

what is the social model?

A

• Drug use is a learned behaviour:
 Classical conditioning: associative behaviour (e.g. associating drinking with feeling relaxed)
 Operant conditioning: probability of behaviour occurring is increased if it is either positively reinforced by the presence of a positive event, or negatively reinforced by the absence or removal of a negative event (e.g. probability of drinking increased by feelings of social acceptance, confidence and control and removal of withdrawal symptoms).
 Observational learning/ modelling: behaviours are learnt by observing significant others carrying them out (e.g. parents drinking).
 Cognitive factors: factors such as self-image, problem-solving behaviour, coping mechanisms.
• People use drugs because drug use is modelled by others.
• Peer pressure.
• Environmental effects lead to drug use (advertising, etc).
• Drug use is a maladaptive relationship negotiation strategy.

88
Q

explain alcohol and dopamine and reward sensation

A
  • Alcohol inhibits the inhibition that GABA interneurones have on dopamine neurones.
  • So now dopamine interneurones become dis-inhibited, hence why there is an increase in dopamine release.
  • So you have extra dopamine in the brain – the dopamine receptors upregulate. (think there is actually a downregulation - so need more dopamine to produce response)
  • So when you are presented with the stimulus of alcohol, your response is dampened.
  • Therefore, you have to drink more to maintain the state of reward sensation and so you become addicted.
89
Q

what is acute pancreatitis?

A

an inflammatory condition that may cause extensive local damage to the pancreas, as well as compromise the function of other organs such as the lungs.

90
Q

what are the main causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

 Alcohol ingestion and acute intoxication
 Gallstones (obstruction of pancreatic duct)
 Bile reflux
 Trauma

I GET SMASHED 
I - idiopathic (20%)
G - gallstones (50%) - microlithiasis 
E - ethanol (25%) 
T - trauma 
S - steroids 
M - mumps 
A - autoimmune 
S - scorpion venom 
H - hyperlipidaemia 
E - ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreatography)
D - drugs 
  • hypothermia
  • hyperparathyroidism
91
Q

what is the clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis?

A

 Severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back
 Nausea and vomiting
 Rapid development of shock
 Greatly elevated serum amylase

  • Respiratory distress
  • Fever
  • Haemorrhage
  • Shock
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • oliguric (decreased production of urine)
92
Q

what are the main causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A

 Alcohol (especially chronic excessive consumption) (60-70%)
 Autoimmune pancreatitis - e.g. IgG4
 Cystic fibrosis (Cl- ion channel dysfunction in the pancreas as well)
 Hyperlipidaemia - hypertriglyceridemia
 Idiopathic (20-30%)

  • Genetic – e.g. cystic fibrosis (CFTR), SPINK1, PRSS1
  • Can occur after acute pancreatitis
  • Can occur without overt preceding illness
  • Can have acute flairs of chronic pancreatitis
  • Associated with hyperparathyroidism and aminoaciduria
93
Q

what are the clinical presentations of chronic pancreatitis? symptoms and signs?

A

 Intermittent severe upper abdominal and back pain
 Weight loss
 Exocrine tissue replaced by fibrosis
 Leads to pancreatic malabsorption (steatorrhoea and reduced vitamins A, D, E, K)
 Relative preservation of endocrine tissue (preserved early on, therefore diabetes and complications of glucose metabolism are a relatively late event)

  • Pain (predominant complaint)
  • epigastric to back
  • episodic (relating to ongoing damage)
  • Malabsorption
  • weight loss
  • steatorrhoea – fat malabsorption
  • Diabetes – type 3
  • Jaundice
  • due to bile duct obstruction
94
Q

how is chronic pancreatitis diagnosed?

A

• Currently:
 Faecal elastase test – this is a stable proteolytic enzyme that can be picked up in the faeces. It indicates severe pancreatitis.
 Endoscopic ultrasound – this isn’t so good as there is a lot of bowel gas to go through when imaging the pancreas. However, it is a good way to look at the texture of the pancreas. It is useful, as it allows us to drain cysts, and dilate structures if needed.
 CT/MRI – cross section imaging

• Possible:
 Urine collection and test for PABA (para-amino Benzoic Acid) (less in those with pancreatitis?) (increasingly common)
 Direct hormonal stimulation (research)
- 14CO2 breath test – in use, not in Manchester

• Historical:
 Faecal fat analysis after a three day sample.

(elastase = pancreatic enzyme that breaks down elastin)

95
Q

what are risk factors for chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Tobacco smoke
  • Alcohol
  • Diabetes – independent predictor of mortality. It is difficult to manage a there is the risk of hypoglycaemia.
96
Q

how does alcohol lead to chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Alcohol causes an individual to produce more viscous secretions.
  • Alcohol increases the protein secretions (enzymes) from the acinar cells of the pancreas.
  • Alcohol reduces the secretion of bicarbonate ions and water from duct cells.
  • This prevents the enzymes from being carried away as part of ‘pancreatic juice’.
  • The enzymes accumulate in the acini (plugging of the pancreatic duct) and begin to digest the pancreas itself.
97
Q

how do tobacco smoke and alcohol lead to chronic pancreatitis?

A

they affect the oxidative pathways in the body:
Tobacco smoke and alcohol metabolism ->
Pancreatic oxidative stress (alcohol dehydrogenase) ->
Cytochrome P450 non-oxidative pathway ->
Reactive oxygen species ->
Cell damage

98
Q

malasbsorption in chronic pancreatitis

  • what enzyme levels drop when
  • what does this cause
  • what happens to bicarbonate ions - what does this cause
A

• Lipase levels fall before protease and amylase, causing fat malabsorption and steatohhea (7g faecal fat/100g diet).
- Fat malabsorption occurs when lipase production is reduced by 90%
• Weight loss
• Reduced bicarbonate in the intestine, leading to an acidic environment. This causes reduced bile acid secretion

99
Q

what is treatment for malabsorption in chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Replacement of pancreatic enzymes – Creon (pancrelipase)/pancreatin
  • combination of protease, lipase and amylase

 Capsules/ granules taken before and during meals/ snacks.
 Mimicking normal secretion
- Titration to symptom
-loss of steatorrhoea, weight stabilisation
-improvement in pain?

100
Q

what causes pain in chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Dilation of the pancreatic ducts can occur as a result of blockage (e.g. gallstones) or from the viscous secretions (e.g. alcohol).
  • This will lead to increased pressure in the ducts and cause pressure pains.
  • These can also cause acute inflammation and pancreatic fibrosis.
  • Patients with chronic pancreatitis don’t deal with pain well and so have abnormal CNS pain processing.
  • Reduced bicarbonate secretion can cause pain elsewhere (e.g. stomach – gastritis) because of the lack of neutralization of stomach acid.
  • Pressure in duct or parenchyma causing pancreatic ischaemia
  • Inflammation and pancreatic fibrosis
  • Abnormal CNS pain processing - majority of patients don’t have a fixable cause of pain, it’s due to abnormal processing
  • Reduced bicarbonate secretion
101
Q

what is treatment for acute pancreatitis?

A
  1. Stop drinking
  2. Pancreatic enzyme replacement (Pancreatin) –with a PPI and food
  3. Dietary modification – reduced dietary fat
  4. Pain relief
  5. Support
102
Q

what is pancreatin?

A
  • Pancreatin is a mixture of several digestive enzymes produced by the exocrine cells of the pancreas.
  • It is composed of amylase, lipase and protease (trypsin).
  • This mixture is used to treat conditions in which pancreatic secretions are deficient, such as in pancreatitis.
103
Q

what are complications of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  1. pseudocysts
  2. bleeding
  3. obstruction
  4. pancreatic cancer
104
Q

pseudocysts

  • what are they
  • what can happen to them
  • what can they cause
  • how treated
A

 Localised fluid collection – this is as a response to chronic inflammation usually.
 Can be massive - obstruction and can cause pressure on the surrounding tissue and cause pain.
 Can become infected
To treat pseudocysts, the fluid can be drained:
 FNA fluid analysis : Amylase and Ca 19-9 will show if the pseudocyst is pancreatic.
There are new stents that can now be placed inside the cyst itself, which not only draws out the fluid, but provides access to the tissue inside the cyst. These stents have decreasaed the rates of surgery because of their success.

  • Drain if symptomatic
  • endoscopic
  • radiological
  • surgical
105
Q

bleeding in chronic pancreatitis

- what causes this

A

 Variceal
 Due to underlying cause – ALD (alcoholic liver disease)
 Splenic vein thrombosis
 Pseudocyst – when draining the cysts, they can pull on blood vessels and cause tears and ruptures.
 Pseudoaneurysm

106
Q

what can become obstructed in chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Bile duct -> jaundice

- Duodenal –> gastric outlet obstruction

107
Q

pancreatic cancer

  • how common
  • what does it cause
  • prognosis - why?
  • histology
A

 It’s not a common cancer but if you have chronic pancreatitis, then your risk of developing it increases by 20%.
 It causes increased pain, weight loss and obstructive jaundice.
 There is a poor prognosis:
 There is surgical management – a CT scan is carried out every 3 years to pick up early changes in chronic pancreatitis patients of a developing cancer.

  • Adenocarcinoma more common in chronic pancreatitis
  • 5% develop over 20yr period

Poor prognosis

  • Surgical management
  • Chemotherapy
  • Palliative
  • Hard to detect
  • Don’t get symptoms until quite late
  • CT scans – hard to tell
  • No surveillance schedule – because group is so divergent and different
108
Q

what are many diarrheal illnesses caused by?

A
  • Many diarrheal illnesses are caused by bacterial exotoxins that induce fluid and electrolyte secretion by the intestine.
  • Hence such a toxin is referred to as an enterotoxin.
109
Q

oral rehydration solution

  • why does it work
  • what does it contain
  • how effective
  • what effect does it have
A
  • Despite the massive toxin-induced fluid secretion, both intestinal morphology and nutrient coupled Na+ absorption are normal.
  • Because nutrient-coupled (e.g., glucose or amino acid) fluid absorption is intact, therapeutically increasing the concentration of glucose or amino acids in the intestinal lumen can enhance absorption.
  • ORS contains varying concentrations of glucose, Na+, Cl−, and HCO3 and is extremely effective in enhancing fluid and electrolyte absorption in secretory diarrhoea when the intestine secretes massive amounts of fluid.
  • Administration of ORS can reverse the dehydration and metabolic acidosis that may occur in severe diarrhoea and that are often the primary cause of morbidity and mortality, especially in children younger than 5 years.
110
Q

what do stomach disorders normally lead to? what is effective for this? what are these not effective for?

A
  • Stomach disorders lead to imbalances in acid secretion (usually an excess).
  • Therefore, drugs that act on acids (antacids) or acid secretion (PPIs / H2 antagonists etc) would be effective in gastric dysfunction.
  • However, if it is pancreatic dysfunction then such drugs have little effect.
111
Q

what is one of the most common symptoms in pancreatic and gastric dysfunction? how is symptom distinctive to each?

A

• In both cases, one of the most common symptoms will be pain.
 In pancreatitis, the pain is usually referred to the back of the body too, whereas with gastric pain, the pain is localized to the epigastrium.

112
Q

what type of pain do analgesics and NSAIDs have effect on and what don’t they affect?

A

have little effect in visceral pain, but they are efficient for somatic pain.

Somatic pain is a type of nociceptive pain that is also referred to as skin pain, tissue pain, or muscle pain. Unlike visceral pain (another type of nociceptive pain that arises from internal organs), the nerves that detect somatic pain are located in the skin and deep tissues.

113
Q

describe the brain-gut axis

A

 This is the connection between the gut and the brain that brings about physiological deviations from the norm and pain.
 The vagus nerve goes to the brainstem, whereas the spinal cord projections go to higher centres in the brain.

  • ENS communicates with spinal cord and vagus nerve
  • spinal cord conveys pain
  • vagus conveys physiological signals
114
Q

what are symptoms of malnutrition/malabsorption?

A

 Steatorrhea (bulky, greasy, light cream coloured, excessive foul smelling faeces) – “fatty stools”.
 Excessive flatus – this is because the intestinal bacteria usually only receive fibre. But due to indigestion and malabsorption, there is more food (mainly fats) available for the intestinal bacteria

 Diarrhea is rarely a feature of gastroduodenal disease, except coeliac disease. It is a symptom of pancreatitis.

 Excessive weight loss with a normal diet.

115
Q

what is the bristol stool chart?

A

type 1 = separate hard lumps, like nuts (hard to pass)
type 2 = sausage-shaped bu lumpy
type 3 = like a sausage but with cracks on the surface
type 4 = like a sausage or snake, smooth and soft
type 5 = soft blobs with clear-cut edges
type 6 = fluffy pieces with ragged edges, a mushy stool
type 7 = watery, no solid pieces, entirely liquid

116
Q

coeliac disease

  • what is it
  • what are symptoms
  • what seen on endoscopic examination
  • what to confirm diagnosis
A

• Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder of the small intestine that results in an inflammatory response.
• Symptoms:
 Abdominal pain and bloating.
 Chronic or occasional diarrhea (50% only).
 Nausea or vomiting.
 Weight loss
 Iron-deficiency anaemia (but also folate and/or vitamin B12).
• Upon endoscopic examination, the mucosal folds develop ridges.
• To confirm the diagnosis, a biopsy is taken to look for villus atrophy.

117
Q

what are some clinical investigations of the GI tract? when each used? (mostly about the pancreas)

A

• Endoscopy
 No role in diagnosis of pancreatitis.
 Maybe needed to rule out other causes of pain, vomiting or bleeding if uncertain.
 Specialised endoscopic therapy is sometimes needed (e.g. for gall stones).

• Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancretography (ERCP)
 This involves injecting a dye into the pancreatic duct.
 In pancreatitis, there will be (1) clubbing of the side branches of the main pancreatic duct (2) the main pancreatic duct is dilated (1.5x normal diameter).
 It is RISKY!

• CT and MRI imaging

• Pancreatic Function Testing
 Levels of faecal elastase enzyme are checked as this is a stable proteolytic enzyme.
 A 3 day faecal fat collection can be done, but this is inconvenient.

118
Q

visceral pain

  • how perceived
  • what causes
  • what pathway
  • what receptors
  • what stimuli
A
  • Poorly localised in the brain
  • Midline perception
  • Upper/mid/lower ROUGHLY corresponds to fore/mid/hindgut
  • BUT! Not reliable enough
  • Autonomic activation if severe – Sweaty, faint (low BP), pale, nauseated

• Visceral pain is felt via the somatosensory receptor pathway (Spinothalamic tract):
 Visceral nociceptors
o Intense mechanical stimuli (distention and overstretching)
o Chemical stimuli
o Inflammation

o Not all organs have nociceptors though

119
Q

what is visceral hypersensitivity?

A
  • Some visceral nociceptors become more active after inflammation.
  • Lower pain threshold
  • Normal levels of distension e.g. after eating can become painful
  • This may be a part of functional dyspepsia/IBS pain
  • And contribute to chronic pancreatitis pain
120
Q

what is somatic pain? what comes under this? how felt?

A
  • More readily and precisely localised
  • Parietal peritoneum is somatic – so e.g. perforation of an ulcer or appendicitis becomes more localised
  • Retroperitoneal nerves are somatic too so pancreatic pain in the back is not necessarily entirely referred pain e.g. if an invasive cancer
121
Q

explain referred pain

A
  • Referred pain is pain felt in places remote from the location of the affected organ – e.g. cardiac pain perceived down the arm or jaw
  • Abdominal pain can also be referred – e.g. perceived in back, pelvis, shoulder

• Referred pain occurs due to convergence on second order neurones. The same Spinothalamic pathways carry nerves from adjacent skin and muscles – “visceromotor convergence”.
 The brain misinterprets the signals that originate from internal organs as coming from co-innervated somatic regions.

Causes of referred shoulder pain may include: Abdominal problems, such as gallstones or pancreatitis. (and liver and perforated duodenal ulcer)

122
Q

is the pancreas more on the right or left side?

A
  • Pancreas is more on the left side

- Starts central/slightly to the right and extends to the left side

123
Q

what is the function of the pancreas?

A
Endocrine function: 
-	20% (10%) by mass
-	Islet cells secrete hormones 
-	Blood glucose homeostasis 
Exocrine function:
-	80% (90%) by mass 
-	Digestive enzymes 
-	Acid buffering 
-	Release into duodenum 

FUNCTIONS OF THE EXOCRINE PANCREAS

  • Production of enzymes to facilitate digestion
  • lipase
  • proteases
  • amylase
  • nucleases
  • Release of enzymes into duodenum
  • NaHCO3 buffering of gastric juices
124
Q

what are centroacinar cells?

A

Centroacinar cells are spindle-shaped cells in the exocrine pancreas. Centroacinar cells are an extension of the intercalated duct cells into each pancreatic acinus. The intercalated ducts take the bicarbonate to intralobular ducts which become lobular ducts.

125
Q

describe what you can see in the pancreatic acini

A
  • Centroacinar cells
  • Intercalated duct
  • Acinar cells
  • Zymogen granules
  • Basal lamina
126
Q

where is trypsinogen produced?

A

pancreas

127
Q

where is amylase secreted? what does it digest? what does it produce? what completes digestion?

A
  • Secreted from pancreas and salivary glands
  • Digest starch and glycogen
  • Produces maltose (disaccharide) and maltriose (trisaccharide)
  • Brush border enzymes complete digestion to glucose
128
Q

what is the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis? mild and severe?

A
  • Inappropriate intra-pancreatic activation of trypsin leading to acinar auto-digestion and death
  • Mild – pancreatic inflammation and oedema
  • Severe – pancreatic necrosis and multi-organ failure, death
  • Don’t always know how
  • Final common pathway – increased intracellular calcium and inappropriate enzyme activation
  • pancreatic ductal obstruction
  • abnormal pancreatic secretion
  • ductal damage
  • direction toxin effect of alcohol – inflammation and membrane destruction, hypertriglyceridaemia, protein deposition
129
Q

how is acute pancreatitis diagnosed?

A
Severe abdominal pain 
And 
Enzyme release into blood stream
-	Amylase (normal in 10%) 
-	Lipase (more sensitive/specific) 
\+ 
CXR – exclude perforation 
\+ 
CT – assess for pancreatic necrosis abscess or fluid collection
130
Q

how is AP managed?

  • recognising
  • calculating severity
  • support
A
Recognise 
-	A B C assessment 
Calculate severity 
-	Glasgow/Imrie Score 
-	Atlanta 
Support 
-	Replace fluids 
-	NG suction 
-	Analgesia 
-	Nutrition 
Are they getting better?
-	ITU? 
-	Infection 
-	Necrosis
131
Q

how is severity assessed in AP?

A

Atlanta classification:

  • Mild – no organ failure, or complication
  • Moderate – transient organ failure OR complication
  • Severe – persistent organ dysfunction lasting > 48 hrs
132
Q

what are complications in AP?

A
  • Acute fluid collection
  • common
  • usually self-resolving (acute – may need help if chronic)
  • Pseudocysts
  • organised fluid collections lined by granulation tissue
  • may self-resolve
  • symptoms due to mass effect (the effect of a growing mass that results in secondary pathological effects by pushing on or displacing surrounding tissue)
  • symptoms due to infection
  • Walled Off pancreatic Necrosis (WON)
  • dying/non-viable pancreatic tissue
  • requires drainage
133
Q

how can AP recurrence be prevented?

A
  • USS, MRCP (Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography), EUS (endoscopic ultrasound)– are there gallstones?
  • Remove gallstones if present
  • ERCP
  • cholecystectomy
  • Reduce alcohol (& smoking)
  • Consider drug causes
  • And autoimmune, familial, anatomical causes
  • Cystic fibrosis – normally carriers rather than people actually with CF – cystic fibrosis-associated pancreatitis
134
Q

CP

  • what is it
  • what happens
  • what does it lead to
A
  • Chronic, continuous inflammation
  • Fibrotic changes and acinar to ductal metaplasia
  • loss of functional unit
  • Impairment of pancreatic function
  • exocrine – digestive enzymes
  • endocrine – insulin
  • Chronic pain
135
Q

what is the pathogenesis of CP?

A
-	Increased acinar protein secreted 
& 
-	Reduction in NaHCO3 + fluids 
-> Increased viscosity pancreatic duct plugging 
-> acinar atrophy 
-> fibrosis
136
Q

how is pain management in CP?

A
Analgesia 
-	Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs 
-	Opiates (avoid if possible) 
-	Neuropathic – e.g. tricyclic antidepressants 
Optimise diabetic control 
Endoscopic therapy 
-	Stone disease/structures 
Nerve blocks 
Surgery – decompression vs. resection 
-	Big surgery, doesn’t always work
137
Q

pancreatic diabetes

  • what type
  • what percentage of all diabetes
  • how easy to manage
  • how treated
A
  • 5-10% of all diabetes
  • Independent predictor of mortality – shows severity of the CP disease
  • Difficult to manage
  • patient characteristics
  • risk of hypoglycaemia
  • Usually low insulin requirements – but brittle
  • Insulin pumps can be useful
138
Q

prognosis for CP?

A
  • 70% survival 10yrs

- 45% survival 20yrs

139
Q

what is the main effect of secretin on the pancreas?

A

The predominant effect of secretin on the pancreas is to stimulate duct cells to secrete water and bicarbonate.

140
Q

what does CCK do to the pancreas?

A

Cholecystokinin, officially called pancreozymin, is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine. Its presence causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively, and also acts as a hunger suppressant.

141
Q

summary of AP and CP

A

SUMMARY – AP

  • Gallstones and alcohol
  • Multi-organ failure
  • High mortality
  • Reversible

SUMMARY – CP

  • Alcohol
  • Chronic symptoms
  • pain
  • malabsorption
  • higher risk of cancer
  • Irreversible
142
Q

how do you work out units?

A

Total volume of a drink (in ml) x its ABV (alcohol by volume) (percentage) / 1000 = units

143
Q

what is the pathway of alcohol?

A
  1. Mouth & oesophagus – alcohol is diluted by saliva before being swallowed – some is immediately absorbed
  2. Stomach – more alcohol is absorbed here, irritating the lining of the stomach and increasing the acidity
  3. Small intestine – any remaining alcohol is passed here and is the site of most alcohol absorption
  4. Bloodstream – alcohol quickly diffuses through the body, affecting almost all cells
  5. Brain – these cells are more susceptible because they are usually protected from toxins by the blood-brain barrier
  6. Liver – blood-alcohol is metabolised in two stages and then respired into CO2, H2O and fatty acids (Krebs cycle)
  7. Excretion via urine, the lungs, and sweat
144
Q

what is digested to what? what is important in each digestion?

A

Proteins -> amino acids, di- & tripeptides (stomach, pancreas, brush border enzymes)
Polysaccharides (disaccharides) -> monosaccharides (saliva, pancreas, brush border enzymes)
Triglycerides -> free fatty acids, monoglycerides (STOMACH, pancreas, bile salts)

145
Q

blood from where goes through the portal vein to the liver?

A

All blood from lower part of oesophagus all way down to colon go through portal vein to the liver after absorption has occurred, so if drugs are labile and liver is the first site of breakdown of drugs, then you get first-pass metabolism – large amounts of the drug gets broken down in the liver, so its rendered pretty ineffective

The first pass effect (also known as first-pass metabolism or presystemic metabolism) is a phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.

146
Q

why the small intestine?

A
  1. Expansion of absorptive surface: total area about 200 m^2 (600x > tube of same dimensions)
    - foldings in wall -> villi -> microvilli ‘brush border’
    - N.B. decrease surface area = malabsorption
  2. Polarised expression of transport proteins (epithelial cells have two sides (apical and basolateral membrane)
147
Q

what transporter for monosaccharides out of basolateral membrane?

A

GLUT2

148
Q

describe SGLT1 transporter - what used for?

A
  • Uses two sodiums that have to bind to a binding site
  • They open up a binding site for sodium
  • Once they’ve all bound, the protein undergoes a conformational change, the glucose and sodium can move through and they can be released on the inside of the cell
149
Q

glucose-galactose malabsorption syndrome

  • what causes it
  • consequences
  • treatment
A
  • Genetic disease (autosomal recessive – extremely rare)
  • SGLT1 mutated = no absorption of glucose or galactose
  • Severe and potentially fatal diarrhoea in infants (potentially fatal – dehydration)
  • Treatment – avoid glucose and galactose
  • Emphasises the requirement of transport proteins for absorption
150
Q

problems with amino acid absorption?

A

Rare genetic diseases = generally mild GI malabsorption, especially in developed countries where people have generally a more nutritionally-rich diet, and have PEPT1 transporter which transports a bulk of amino acids into our body
BUT do cause appearance of amino acids in urine, e.g. Hartnup disease (B^0), Cystinuria (b^0+; kidney stones) (due to having these transporters in the kidney)
N.B. SI and kidney proximal tubule share many properties

151
Q

what happens if you have no bile?

A

steatorrhea

152
Q

cholesterol absorption

  • where
  • by what
  • how
  • what inhibits
A
  • Duodenum
  • Niemann-Pick C1-Like 1 (NPC1L1) protein
  • Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  • Ezetimibe inhibits endocytosis = decrease plasma cholesterol
153
Q

short chain fatty acids

  • are they major part of diet
  • produced by what
  • what important for
  • transport
  • used for what
A

(butyrate, propionate, acetate)

  • SCFA’s not major component of diet, BUT produced by bacterial fermentation (colon)
  • Microbiome SCFA production of major interest in aetiology of both metabolic diseases and colon cancer
  • SMCT1 – transport SCFA & Na+ (Na+/K+-ATPase set up gradient for Na+ to come into cell)
  • SCFA used by colonocyte for intracellular metabolism
154
Q

how much water is secreted and absorbed by the GI tract each day?

A
  • Saliva – 1.5 L/day
  • Gastric secretion – 2.0 L/day
  • Pancreatic secretion – 1.5 L/day
  • Bile secretion – 0.5 L/day
  • Secreted by small intestine – 1 L/day
  • Reabsorbed by small intestine – 6.5 L/day
  • Reabsorbed by colon – 1.9 L/day

= 8.5 L in
= 8.4 L absorbed
= the remainder about 100ml – in faeces

155
Q

what is the water balance in the whole body? (intake and giving out)

A

2500 ml = total in and out each day?

  • Ingested fluids = 1200 ml
  • Ingested food = 1000 ml
  • Metabolism = 300 ml
  • Total = 2500 ml
  • Urine = 1500 ml
  • Faces = 100 ml
  • Skin/sweat = 550 ml
  • Exhaled air = 350 ml
  • Total = 2500 ml
156
Q

what ions secreted and absorbed where in the GI tract?

A
  • Saliva – Na+ & Cl-
  • Gastric secretion – H+ & Cl-
  • Pancreatic secretion – HCO3- (duodenum)
  • Bile secretion – Na+ & Cl- (duodenum)
  • Secreted by small intestine – HCO3- (jejunum)
  • Secreted by colon – K+ & HCO3- (distal colon)
  • Reabsorbed by small intestine – Na+ & Cl- (duodenum, jejunum) & K+ (ileum)
  • Reabsorbed by colon – Na+ & Cl- (distal colon)
  • Excreted in faeces – HCO3- (hard to absorb, a lot turned into CO2 and water by neutralisation, but also lost in faeces) & K+
157
Q

absorption of potassium

A
  • K+
  • SI = paracellular diffusion in ileum
  • LI = predominantly secretion
  • Faces [K+] = 90 mM; [HCO3-] = 30 mM
158
Q

what can severe diarrhoea lead to?

A

-> hypokalaemia & metabolic acidosis (due to loss of bicarbonate)

159
Q

what are the different types of diarrhoeas?

A
  • Increase osmotic load (Un-absorbable, water-soluble solutes in the bowel that retain water through osmosis) in colon -> increase fluid in faeces
  • Osmotic load – incomplete digestion and absorption of food
  • lack of enzymes or transporters
  • damage to mucosal cells (coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease)
  • Osmotic load – secretion of ions by gut!
160
Q

what can lack of enzymes or transporters cause?

A
  • Congenital (neonate) = ‘watery’
  • glucose-galactose malabsorption (SGLT1)
  • lactase deficiency
  • Disease of pancreas and biliary systems = steatorrhoea
  • pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis
  • hepatitis, gall stones
161
Q

what are diseases/infections which cause damage to mucosa?

A
  • Immune/autoimmune
    -coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease
  • Infections (water & hygiene)
    -bacteria (Shigella & Campylobacter) -> destruction of intestinal wall (decrease surface area) -> blood in faeces (dysentery)
    -bacteria (Salmonella) -> inflammation
    -Protozoa (Giardia, Entamoeba)
    N.B. UK main causes rotavirus & norovirus (winter vomiting bug)
162
Q

what can cause secretion of ions by gut? what happens?

A
  • Vibrio cholerae, some strains of E. coli & rotavirus
  • Toxin produced by bacteria which ‘hi-jacks’ normal cellular processes
  • Intestinal cells normally secrete H2O (together with mucus & HCO3-) about 1 litre/day
  • In cholera, secretion exceeds 20 litres/day
  • Toxins may also inhibit Na+ absorption BUT not SGLT1 (basis of oral rehydration therapy)
163
Q

what results of diarrhoea?

A

Failure to digest/absorb

164
Q

what is malabsorption?

A

Incomplete digestion results in malabsorption

165
Q

which vitamins are fat soluble? how are they absorbed? with what do you get deficiencies?

A
  • Fat soluble: A, D, E & K
  • evidence of facilitated diffusion and/or endocytosis at physiological concentrations
  • require optimal fat digestion – deficiencies with pancreatic and biliary disease
166
Q

what are water soluble vitamins? how are they absorbed?

A

Water soluble: B group & C

  • specific transporters (facilitated & secondary)
  • B12 (endocytosis)
167
Q

how is calcium ion absorbed?

A
  • Paracellular

- TRPV6 channel

168
Q

how is iron absorbed?

A
  • Dcytb reduces non-heme Fe3+ to Fe2+
  • DMT cotransports Fe2+ with H+
  • Heme Fe2+ enters by unknown mechanisms
  • Heme oxygenase oxides the Fe2+ in heme, and then releases Fe3+
  • Fe2+ transfers to mobilferrin
  • Fe2+ leaves the cell via ferroportin (FP1) and after hephaestin oxidises it to Fe3+, the iron binds to transferrin in plasma
169
Q

what is a key regulator of the entry of iron into the circulation in mammals?

A

hepcidin

170
Q

what is FAST?

A

fast alcohol screening test

FAST is an alcohol harm assessment tool. It consists of a subset of questions from the
full alcohol use disorders identification test (AUDIT). FAST was developed for use in
emergency departments, but can be used in a variety of health and social care
settings.

171
Q

what is AUDIT-C?

A

AUDIT alcohol consumption questions
- How often do you have a drink containing alcohol?
- How many units of alcohol do you drink on a typical day when you are drinking?
- How often have you had 6 or more units if female, or 8 or more if male, on a single occasion in the last year?
Numbered scoring system – 0 to 4
Scoring: a total of 5+ indicates increasing or higher risk drinking – an overall total score of 5 or above is AUDIT-C positive

172
Q

what is the leading risk factor for deaths among men and women aged 15-49?

A

alcohol

173
Q

what is the HARK questionnaire?

A

To identify intimate partner violence:
H = humiliation
- Within the last year, have you ever been humiliated or emotionally abused in other ways by your partner or ex-partner?
A = afraid
- Within the last year, have you been afraid of your partner of ex-partner?
R = rape
- Within the last year have you been raped or forced to have any kind of sexual activity by your partner or ex-partner?
K = kick
- Within the last year, have you been kicked, hit, slapped or otherwise physically hurt by your partner or ex-partner?

174
Q

what is the IRIS team?

A
  • Identification and Referral to Improve Safety
  • IRIS is a general practice-based domestic violence and abuse (DVA) training support and referral programme
  • Core areas of the programme are training and education, clinical enquiry, care pathways and an enhanced referral pathway to specialist domestic violence services
  • It is aimed at women who are experiencing DVA from a current partner, ex-partner or adult family member
  • IRIS also provides information and signposting for male victims and for perpetrators
  • IRIS is a collaboration between primary care and third sector organisations specialising in DVA
  • IRIS was the first European randomised controlled trial of an intervention to improve the health care response to domestic violence and abuse
  • It aimed to determine the cost-effectiveness of a general practice based domestic violence training and support programme and measure two outcomes:
  • referral of women to a domestic violence agency providing advocacy
  • recording of disclosure of domestic violence in the patient’s medical records
175
Q

what is the difference between dependency and addiction?

A
  • Addiction is characterised by an inability to stop using a drug; failure to meet work, social, or family obligations; and sometimes, tolerance and withdrawal
  • Tolerance and withdrawal reflex physical dependence in which the body adapts to the drug, requiring more of it to achieve a certain effect (tolerance) and eliciting drug-specific physical or mental symptoms of drug use is abruptly ceased (withdrawal)
  • Physical independence can happen with the chronic use of many drugs – including many prescription drugs, even if taken as instructed
  • Thus, physical dependence does not constitute addiction, but it often accompanies addiction
176
Q

what is ALT test?

A

ALT test = alanine aminotransferase test

  • Normally levels in the blood are low
  • If your liver is damaged, it will release more ALT into your blood
  • Doctors often do the ATL test along with other liver tests
177
Q

what is ALP test?

A

ALP test = alkaline phosphatase test
- Enzyme has a particularly important role in liver function and bone development
- Elevated ALP levels are generally a sign of a liver or bone condition – an obstruction of the liver or damage to it will cause ALP levels to rise – this will also occur if there’s an increase in bone cell activity
ALP can be used to evaluate the bile duct system of the liver.

178
Q

what is the AST test?

A
  • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is an enzyme that is found mostly in the liver, but also in muscles. When your liver is damaged, it releases AST into your bloodstream. An AST blood test measures the amount of AST in your blood. The test can help your health care provider diagnose liver damage or disease.
179
Q

what does a bilirubin test show? what is bilirubin?

A
  • Bilirubin is a waste product from breakdown of red blood cells
  • It passes through the liver and is processed before being excreted through your stool
  • A damaged liver can’t properly process bilirubin – this leads to an abnormally high level of bilirubin in the blood
  • A high result on the bilirubin test may indicate that the liver isn’t functioning properly
180
Q

what does urea test show? what is urea?

A
  • Urea is the final breakdown product of amino acids
  • Nitrogen in the form of ammonia is produced in the liver when protein is broken down – the nitrogen combines with other chemicals in the liver to form the waste product urea
  • Urea is released into the bloodstream and carried to the kidneys where it’s filtered out of the blood and excreted in the urine
  • Healthy kidneys remove more than 90% of the urea, so blood levels can show how well your kidneys are working
  • Most diseases that affect the kidneys or liver can affect the amount of urea present in the blood – if increased amounts of urea are produced by the liver or decreased amounts are removed by the kidneys then blood urea concentrations will rise
  • If significant liver damage or disease reduces the production of urea, then urea concentrations may fall
181
Q

how does creatinine test work? what is creatinine?

A
  • Creatinine is a waste product that forms when creatine, which is found in your muscle, breaks down
  • Creatinine levels in the blood can give doctor information about how well your kidneys are working

If your kidneys aren’t functioning properly, an increased level of creatinine may accumulate in your blood. A serum creatinine test measures the level of creatinine in your blood and provides an estimate of how well your kidneys filter (glomerular filtration rate).

182
Q

what is HbA1c test?

A
  • Level is routinely performed in people with type 1 and type 2 diabetes
  • Blood HbA1c levels are reflective of how well diabetes is controlled
  • HbA1c is your average blood glucose levels for the last two or three months
  • It’s glycated haemoglobin – something that’s made when the glucose in your body sticks to your red blood cells
  • Your body can’t use the sugar properly, so more of it sticks to your blood cells and builds up in your blood
  • Red blood cells are active for around 2-3 months, which is why the reading is taken quarterly
183
Q

what enhances the efficacy of pancreatin?

A

Omeprazole enhances the efficacy of pancreatin

- All pancreatic enzymes should be taken with a PPI

184
Q

what do differenet stages of the stool table indicate? what do you want?

A
  • There are seven types of stools according to the Bristol Stool Chart
  • The type of stool or faeces depends on the time it spends in the colon
  • After you pass faeces, what you see in the toilet bowl is basically the result of your diet, fluids, medications and lifestyle
  • Every person will have different bowel habits, but the important thing is that your stools are soft and easy to pass – like types 3 and 4
  • Type 1-2 indicate constipation
  • Type 3-4 are ideal stools as they are easier to pass
  • Type 5-7 my indicate diarrhoea and urgency