Casefiles Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

What is the cause of the bacteria involved in septic abortion? What type of bacteria?

A

Ascended from lower genital tract (vagina), usually polymicrobial, particularly anaerobes

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2
Q

What are the two most common complications of spontaneous abortions?

A

Hemorrhage and infection

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3
Q

What are the four parts of treatment of septic abortion?

A
  1. Maintain BP; 2. Monitor BP, O2, urine output; 3. Start antibiotic therapy; 4. Uterine curettage
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4
Q

What antibiotics are used for septic abortion?

A

Gentamicin and clindamycin

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5
Q

Why is monitoring urine output in septic abortion important?

A

Oliguria is an early sign of septic shock

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6
Q

A 22 yo F had a septic abortion, was treated with 48 hr triple Abx and D&C of the uterus. After 48 hrs she is still not improved, CT scan reveals pockets of air within the muscle of the uterus. What is the likely cause? Treatment?

A

Necrotizing metritis with gas-forming bacteria such as Clostridial species. Hysterectomy should be performed.

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7
Q

What level does the urine protein/creatinine ratio need to exceed for the diagnosis of preeclampsia?

A

A urine protein/creatinine ratio >0.3

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8
Q

What are the key labs to draw in preeclampsia?

A

CBC (with plt count), LFTs, and serum creatinine

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9
Q

What is the definition of chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

A

BP of 140/90 before pregnancy or at less than 20 weeks gestation, or persisting more than 12 weeks postpartum

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10
Q

What is the definition of gestation hypertension?

A

Hypertension without proteinuria (or other features of preeclampsia) at >20 weeks’ gestation persistent for at least 4 hours

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11
Q

In the absence of proteinuria, what other findings can suffice in the diagnosis of preeclampsia?

A

HTN with thrombocytopenia, impaired LFTs, renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, cerebral disturbances, or visual impairment

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12
Q

What is posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome? What is seen on MRI?

A

Cliniconeuroroadiological syndrome with HA, encephalopathy, seizure, cortical visual disturbances; MRI shows enhancement in the posterior parietal areas

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13
Q

How is posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome treated?

A

Antihypertensives, anti-epileptics, ICU monitoring

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14
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of preeclampsia?

A

Vasospasm and “leaky vessels” - vasospasm and endothelial damage

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15
Q

What are the complications of preeclampsia?

A

Placental abruption, eclampsia, coagulopathies, renal failure, hepatic sub-capsular hematoma, hepatic rupture, uteroplacental insufficiency

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

Nulliparity, extremes of age, African-American race, PH or FH of severe preeclampsia, CHTN, CKD, obesity, antiphospholipid syndrome diabetes, multifetal gestation

17
Q

Why is dyspnea important to monitor in a patient on Mg sulfate?

A

SE of Mg sulfate is pulm edema

18
Q

What are the first signs of magnesium toxicity?

19
Q

What are the common DDx for abnormal liver function tests in pregnancy?

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy, preeclampsia, HELLP, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

20
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Generalized itching, mildly elevated LFTs, elevated bile salts

21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Nausea, vomiting, icteric, hypoglycemia, coagulopathy

22
Q

What are the first line agents for acute onset severe hypertension in pregnancy?

A

IV labetalol, IV hydralazine, or oral nifedipine

23
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal death due to eclampsia?

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage

24
Q

When is the greatest risk for occurrence of eclampsia?

A

Just prior to delivery, during labor, and within the first 24 hrs postpartum

25
What populations are more susceptible to candidal vulvovaginitis?
Women who are pregnant, taking broad spectrum antibiotics, diabetic, or immunocompromised
26
What is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis?
Fluconazole (oral) or imidazole cream
27
What is the treatment for trichomoniasis?
Oral metronidazole (2 gram as a single dose)
28
What are the most common side effects of metronidazole?
GI - nausea, abdominal discomfort, bloating or diarrhea
29
What is the best treatment for metastatic cervical cancer?
Radiotherapy (brachytherapy = implants; teletherapy = whole pelvis radiation) with a chemosensitizer (such as a platinum agent)
30
What HPV types ares associated with cervical cancer? Venereal warts?
Types 16 and 18 = cancer; types 6 and 11 = warts
31
Where do the majority of cervical dysplasia and cancers arise?
Squamocolumnar junction
32
What is the next step after an abnormal Pap smear?
Colposcopic examinations with directed biopsies
33
How does cervical cancer spread?
Through the cardinal ligaments to the pelvic sidewalls
34
What is the most common cause of death in metastatic cervical cancer?
Bilateral ureteral obstruction leading to uremia