CaseFiles_2 Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

The most common causes of abnormal serum triple test screening are

A

wrong dates and multiple gestations (assess via obstetric ultrasound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the uterine height when it is the appropriate time for serum testing for Down’s, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects? What are the chemicals that are analyzed?

A

16-20 weeks (15-21). 16 weeks: fundus midway between symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. At 20 weeks: fundal height at umbilicus.

AFP, hCG, and unconjugated estriol (“triple screen”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is alpha-fetoprotein?

A

A glycoprotein made by the yolk sac and later by fetal liver/GI tract, analogous to albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is first trimester screening?

A

performed between 10 and 13 weeks. PAPP-A, B-hCG and nuchal translucency for risk of Down or trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AFP levels greater than ______ multiples of the median (MOM) are suspicious for neural tube defects. What are other causes of this level?

A

2-2.5
Can also be caused by multiple gestations, underestimation of gestational age, abdominal wall defects, oligohydramnios, and fetal skin defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Down syndrome is associated with (high/low) AFP. What are other causes of a similar AFP level?

A

LOW AFP. Also caused by molar pregnancy, fetal death, increased maternal weight, overestimation of gestational age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the results of the triple test in Down syndrome?

A

1) AFP: low
2) hCG: high
3) unconjugated estriol: low
* *note, sometimes they add inhibin A: high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the results of the triple test in Edwards Syndrome?

A

1) AFP: low
2) hCG: low
3) unconjugated estriol: low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the results of the first trimester screening for the trisomies?

A

Trisomy 21: PAPP-A low, BhCG high, nuchal transulency low (thick!!!)
Trisomy 13 and 18: PAPP-A low, BhCGlow (nuchal transulency thick?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are findings on ultrasound suspicious for Down syndrome?

A

1) thickend nuchal fold
2) shortened femur length
3) echogenic bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of ACE-I?

A

skull anomalies, limb defects, miscarriage, renal failure in neonate, renal tubule dysgenesis, oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does organogenesis occur in gestation?

A

Days 15-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A double-bubble sign indicates ____________, related to what genetic abnormality?

A

duodenal atresia, associated with Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pregnancies with elevated msAFP, which after evaluation are still unexplained, are at increased risk for:

A

stillbirth, growth restriction, preeclampsia, and placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Teratogenic exposure prior to ___ weeks gestation leads to an “all or nothing” effect.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is velamentous cord insertion?

A

umbilical vessels separate before reaching the placenta, protected only by a thin fold of amnion, instead of by the cord or the placenta itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The incidence of vasa previa (umbilical vessels not protected by cord or membranes crossing the internal cervical os in front of the fetal presenting part) is (increased/decreased) in IVF?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complications associated with twin gestation (x5):

A

1) preterm delivery
2) congenital malformations (esp in monozygotic)
3) preeclampsia
4) postpartum hemorrhage
5) twin-twin transfusion syndrome
6) gestational diabetes
7) DVTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is the use of OCPs related to twinning?

A

Since OCPs slow tubal motility (though to lead to monozygotic twinning), you should know if a mother used OCPs within 3 months of becoming pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Monozygotic twins are associated with a (higher/lower) incidence of discordant growth and malformations.

(Mono/di)chorionic twins are associated with a higher rate of spontaneous abortion.

A
Monozygotic = higher risk of malformations
Monochorionic = higher rate of spontaneous abortion
21
Q

How dos timing of division affect the chorionicity/amnionicity of monozygotic twins?

A

If timing of division is within:

1) 72 hours: dichorionic/diamniotic
2) Day 4-8: monochorionic/diamniotic
3) Day 8-12: monochorionic/monoamniotic
4) After day 12: conjoined

22
Q

The rate of dizygotic twinning (increases/decreases) with age and peaks at ___ years.

A

increases; 37 years

23
Q

What is the chorionicity/amnionicity of all dizygotic twins?

A

All dizygotic twins are dichorionic and diamniotic

24
Q

Why is there greater physiologic anemia in a twin pregnancy?

A

Blood volume and stroke volume are increased more than singleton pregnancy, but the red cell mass increases proportionately less

25
Why can nausea/vomiting be increased in a twin gestation?
increased serum levels of hCG
26
What are risk factors for vasa previa?
1) bilobed, succenturiate-lobed, or low-lying placenta 2) multifetal pregnancy 3) pregnancy resulting from IVF
27
If vasa previa is idenfitied, when should the planned C section take place? What about vaginal digital examination?
C-section 35-36 weeks of gestation | digital examination is CONTRAINDICATED
28
What is fetal blood volume at term?
250-500 cc
29
What is the treatment for twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
1) laser ablation of the shared anastomotic vessels | 2) serial amniocentesis for decompression
30
Diagnosis of vasa previa is best made by
ultrasound with color Doppler
31
Twin gestation without a dividing membrane (monoamniotic) is associated with a high stillbirth rate due to
cord entanglement
32
A substantial discordance of the twins and a discrepancy of the distribution of the amniotic fluid volume should lead one to suspect:
TTT syndrome
33
The use of oral suppressive antiviral therapy (acyclovir) at ___ weeks for women who have had a recurrence or first episode during pregnancy has been shown to decrease viral shedding and the frequency of outbreaks at term and decrease the need for C section.
36 weeks! | Also being used in women who have not had a recurrence during pregnancy.
34
A woman with HSV may breastfeed if
there is no involvement of the breast
35
T/F: Herpes zoster on the chest wall is a contraindication for breastfeeding.
True! Herpes zoster infection in a neonate can have fatal consequences.
36
Painful lesions on the vulva with ragged edges, a necrotic base, and inguinal lymphadenopathy should make you think of
chancroid, by Haemophilus ducreyi (syphilis has a painless chancre as first stage; vulvar CA is nontender and ulcerative and more common in post-menopausal women).
37
The most common cause of infectious vulvar ulcers in the US is
Herpes simplex virus
38
Although most neonatal herpes infections occur from genital tract secretions and fluids during birth, 5% of infections are aquired in utero. These latter cases are usually due to (recurrences/primary episodes).
Primary episodes --> higher chance of in utero infection
39
What is antepartum bleeding?
Bleeding after 20 weeks gestation
40
How can you distinguish between antepartum bleeding as a result of placenta previa or placental abruption (the two most common causes of antepartum bleeding)?
Placental abruption is associated with PAINFUL uterine contractions and excessive uterine tone; placenta previa is painless.
41
T/F: Postcoital spotting is consistent with placenta previa.
True! Vaginal intercourse may induce bleeding in placenta previa.
42
WHat is the difference between "marginal placenta previa" and low-lying placenta?
In low-lying placenta, the edge of htep lacenta is within 2 to 3 cm of the internal cervical os, while in marginal placenta previa, it abuts against the os.
43
When a patient presents with antepartum hemorrhage, why should an ultrasound be used before speculum or digital examination?
The latter two may induce bleeding. Due the speculum before digital, BOTH after u/s
44
The presence of placenta previa or placenta accreta requires that C section should occur at ___ weeks gestation. If they are presenting at ____ weeks gestation, they should have the C section immediately.
34 (to balance risk of prematurity with maternal benefit of scheduled delivery) If they are presenting 35-36 weeks, C section immediately
45
T/F: Placenta accreta is more common with placenta previa.
True! Especially in the presence of a uterine scar such as after C section or after prior uterine curettage.
46
T/F: Grand multiparity is a risk factor for placenta previa.
True
47
Polyhydramnios and hypertension are risk factors for what regarding the placenta?
Placental abruption
48
Why is repeat sonography warranted when placenta previa is diagnosed at early gestation, such as the second trimester?
Placenta transmigration away from the cervix can occur