Category A Flashcards

Core

1
Q

Using Barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?

A

Mechanical

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2
Q

Making use of plant varieties that are naturally resistant to insect feeding is an example of which type of pest management method?

A

Genetic

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3
Q

Which statement about biological control methods is true?

A

Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is recommended in biological control

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4
Q

Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of pest management?

A

Physical

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5
Q

Which statement about cultural control practices is true?

A

They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival.

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6
Q

Monitoring pests at airports and ocean ports that pose a serious threat to public health or widespread damage to crops or animals is an example of which type of pest management method?

A

Regulatory

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7
Q

Which statement about pest management strategies in IPM is true?

A

The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels.

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8
Q

Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?

A

Planting weed-and disease - free seed on an athletic field

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9
Q

Which statement about action thresholds is true?

A

The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density.

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10
Q

Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance?

A

Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class.

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11
Q

Which statement about FIFRA is false?

A

It prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating pesticide use laws more stringent that federal regulations.

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12
Q

Under federal law, which statement about trained and certified applicators is true?

A

They may apply and/or supervise the application of restricted - use pesticides.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the pesticide registration and reregistration process?

A

To provide evidence that the pesticide will not cause unreasonable risks to human health or the environment.

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14
Q

Which statement about federal pesticide regulation is true?

A

Approved pesticide labels have the force of the law.

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15
Q

Which of the following criteria is used by EPA in establishing pesticide tolerances?

A

The toxicity of the pesticide and its break down products.

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16
Q

Under federal law, which of the following actions is unlawful and subject to civil or criminal penalties?

A

Detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any par of a container or labeling.

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17
Q

Which federal regulation requires employee training in the use of pesticides?

A

Worker Protection Standard.

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18
Q

Which group of pesticides is exempt from registration because it poses little or no risk to humans and the environment?

A

Minimum Risk

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19
Q

The active ingredient in Temp 20WP is listed as B-Cyfluthrin, cyano(4-fluoro-3-phenoxyphenyl) 3-(2,2-dichloroethenyl) - 2,2 dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate. What does the term “Cyfluthrin” represent?

A

The common name

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20
Q

Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true?

A

Various manufactures use different trade names, even though the products may contain the same active ingredient.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the signal word?

A

Indicates the product’s relative acute toxicity to humans and animals.

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22
Q

The routes of entry statement, “extremely hazardous by skin contact-rapidly absorbed through the skin,” on a label would most likely carry which signal word?

A

Danger

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23
Q

“Do not breathe vapors or spray mist” is an example of a:

A

Specific action statement

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24
Q

Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under:

A

Directions for use.

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25
"If Swallowed, call doctor" is an example of what kind of statement?
Mandatory
26
Who is responsible for developing SDSs for pesticides and providing them on request?
The product manufacturer
27
The name "X-Pest 5G" on a pesticide label indicates a:
Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient.
28
Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?
Suspension
29
Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1% or less per unit volume)?
Ready - to use (low concentrate) solution (RTU)
30
Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100% active ingredient?
Ultra-low volume (ULV)
31
Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations?
Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate.
32
Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading?
Water - dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF)
33
Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?
Pellet
34
Which is an advantage of micro encapsulated materials?
Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness.
35
Which type of adjuvant functions as a wetting agent and spreader (i.e., physically altering the surface tension of spray droplets)?
Surfactant
36
Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?
Thickener
37
The capacity of a pesticide to cause short - term (acute) or long - term (chronic) injury is referred to as its:
Toxicity
38
Which statement about harmful effects of pesticides is false?
The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation.
39
Which signal work is associated with very low oral LD50 values?
DANGER-POISON
40
Which statement about pesticide toxicity is true?
A pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD50 of 250mg/kg
41
For which class(es) of pesticides might cholinesterase monitoring be appropriate?
Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides.
42
Which statement about what happens to pesticides inside the body is true?
The kidneys filter pesticides form the blood into the urine.
43
Which statement about pesticide exposure routes is true?
Eating, drinking, or smoking without first washing your hands after handling pesticides is likely to transfer the product to your mouth.
44
Which statement about first aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye is false?
You should drip water directly into the eye
45
What is the first thing you should do to help a victim of inhalation exposure?
Get the victim to fresh air
46
Which statement about heat stress is true?
Lack of sweat is a symptom of heatstroke.
47
Which statement about PPE requirements listed on the pesticide label is true?
A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early- entry workers
48
Which part of the product formulation determines what glove type is needed?
Solvents
49
If there are no manufacturer use recommendations, a pesticide applicator should replace the chemical cartridges of his or her respirator:
At the end of each workday.
50
When oil may be present, which particulate filter mist be used?
P-Series
51
Air-purifying respirators protect applicators from pesticide exposure by:
Filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide.
52
You should do a qualitative fit test of your respirator:
If you have a significant change in weight
53
Every time you wear any tight-fitting respirator to apply pesticides, you should first:
Perform a seal check(s)
54
Which statement about washing work clothes soaked with a pesticide concentrate is true?
Do no attempt to wash it-dispose of it immediately
55
Work clothes worn to apply pesticides should be laundered with a suitable detergent:
After each day's use
56
Which property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move in surface water runoff?
High solubility
57
Which statement about movement of pesticides from the application site is true?
Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesitcides.
58
Which is an example of non point- source contamination of groundwater?
Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains.
59
Under which conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through soil?
Sandy soil, low in organic matter
60
Which best management practice will help prevent contamination of surface water and groundwater by pesticides?
Following IPM principles
61
Which two factors are most important in avoiding vapor drift?
Temperature and pesticide volatility
62
Which statement about sensitive area is true?
Pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas
63
Which statement about protecting bees from pesticide injury is true?
Apply insecticides in the evening or at night
64
Which statement about transporting pesticides is true?
Enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection.
65
Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true?
Carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site.
66
What is the first thing to do if a pesticide container is leaking?
Put on personal protective equipment.
67
Which recommended practice will minimize pesticide storage problems?
Store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to prevent rusting.
68
What is the first step a business should take to develop an effective pesticide security program?
Conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities.
69
Which of the following is considered a good security practice?
Instruct employees on pesticide inventory control
70
Which statement about emergency response planning is true?
It is important to make a detailed report of what took place before, during, and after the incident.
71
What is the hackbone of any emergency response plan?
Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis.
72
In addition to an emergency response plan, which of the following will further reduce the risk of a pesticide fire?
Keep a fire - detection system in the storage area.
73
Which is a recommended action to take in the event of a pesticide fire?
Construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water
74
which is an appropriate action to take in the event of a pesticide spill?
Put on the appropriate PPE before responding to the spill.
75
Determining when to apply a pesticide includes considering the:
Life cycle of the pest and weather conditions.
76
The "Directions for Use" section of a pesticide label indicates the:
Various crops or areas on which the pesticide may be legally used.
77
When two or more pesticides mixed together form a putty or paste, separate into layers, or look like cottage cheese, it is an example of:
Physical incompatibility
78
After filling a tank one-fifth to one-half full with carrier, what is the usual order for tank mixing the remaining products?
Add compatibility agent (if needed), add suspension products, add solution products, add surfactants, (if needed), add emulsion products.
79
Which statement about the proper technique for opening pesticide containers is true?
Use a sharp knife or scissors to open paper or cardboard containers.
80
Which statement about measuring and/or transferring pesticides is true?
After adding the pesticide to the partially filled spray tank, rinse the measuring container and pour the rinse solution into the tank.
81
Which statement about cleaning and disposing of pesticide containers is true?
Containers must be disposed of in accordance with label directions and current regulations.
82
Which statement about triple-rinsing and pressure-rinsing pesticide containers is true?
Rinsate from triple rinsing or pressure rinsing may be stored for later use.
83
Which statement about pesticide rinstates is true?
Rinsates may be applied to labeled target sites at or below labeled rates.
84
Which statement about pesticide equipment cleanup is false?
Leftover pesticide residue in the spray tank is permitted when changing products?
85
Which application method involves uniformly applying a pesticide to an entire area or field?
Broadcast
86
Which type of pesticide application would you use to control cockroaches inside buildings?
Crack and crevice
87
Which statement about containment pads is true?
Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixed.
88
Which statement about sprayer nozzles is true?
Nozzles control the amount of material applied and type of pattern created.
89
Which statement about granular applicators is true?
Drop spreaders are superior to rotary spreaders when more precise placement of the pesticide is desired.
90
Which technique would help minimize off-target drift?
Using the largest droplets practical to provide necessary coverage.
91
You are applying a pesticide to a triangular area that has a base of 60 ft and a height of 30 ft. How man square feet is the area?
900
92
You are applying a pesticide to a circular area with a 20 ft diameter. How many square feet is the area?
314
93
You have calibrated your equipment to spray 50 gallons per acre. You need to spray 1 acre. The label calls for 3 lbs of formulation per 100 gallons of water. how many pounds of formulation should you add to the tank to make 50 gallons of finished spray?
1.5