CBT Flashcards
(329 cards)
1
Q
- How many supernumeraries are we authorized to carry on the upper deck?
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and 4-ERF)
B. 8 - BCF and 4 - ERF
C. 10 - BCF and 6 - ERF
D. 12 - BCF and 8 - ERF
A
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and
2
Q
What is the wingspan of the B747-400? A. 72' 9” B. 211' 5” C. 225' 2” D. 231' 10”
A
B. 211’ 5”
3
Q
5. What is the MGLW of the B747-400BCF aircraft? A. 670,000 lbs B. 653,000 lbs C. 652,000 lbs D. 630,000 lbs
A
C. 652,000 lbs
4
Q
6. The PBE has a maximum duration of: A. 5 min B. 10 min C. 15 min D. 20 min
A
C. 15 min
5
Q
8. With the main deck cargo door open, what is the wind limit? A. 45 knots B. 60 knots C. 65 knots D. 40 knots
A
C. 65 knots
6
Q
9. To open or close the main deck cargo door, what is the wind limit? A. 45 knots B. 60 knots C. 65 knots D. 40 knots
A
D. 40 knots
7
Q
10. What color of the PBE paper indicator signifies a failed vacuum seal, requiring the unit to be replaced? A. Pink B. Blue C. Yellow D. White
A
A. Pink
8
Q
11. What is the MGLW of the B747-400 ERF aircraft? A. 670,000 lbs B. 653,000 lbs C. 652,000 lbs D. 630,000 lb
A
B. 653,000 lbs
9
Q
12. What is the narrowest taxiway on which you can attempt to taxi a B747-400? A. 35' B. 40' C. 50' D. 60'
A
B. 40’
10
Q
- What turns ON the Emergency Lighting system?
A. Positioning the flight deck EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch to ON
B. Loss of DC power when the system is armed
C. Pressing the upper deck EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch
D. All of the above answers are correct
A
D. All of the above answers are correct
11
Q
- When the weather is less than a 1000’ ceiling and 3 statute miles (5 km) visibility, no turns will be commenced below:
A. 400 feet Above Field Elevation (AFE)
B. 500 feet AFE
C. 1000 feet AFE, unless an earlier turn is prescribed by the assigned instrument departure procedure
D. There is no restriction regarding minimum turning altitudes
A
C. 1000 feet AFE, unless an earlier turn is prescribed by the assigned instrument
12
Q
- Takeoff data output from Aerodata, whether derived from the TLR or uplinked via ACARS, provides the Thrust Limit, V
speeds and noise abatement profile for the selected runway.
A. True
B. False
A
B. False
13
Q
- If an engine fails in IMC conditions, and no special departure procedure exists, the correct procedure is to:
A. Follow the assigned instrument departure procedure
B. Climb straight ahead
C. Climb straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE, then commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed using maximum
bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed
D. Climb straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE, then commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed using a maximum
bank angle of 15 degrees
A
C. Climb straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE, then commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed using maximum
bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed
14
Q
- If a simple engine failure departure procedure specifies a turn to a NAVAID, a holding pattern should be taken up at
the NAVAID using a direct entry.
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
15
Q
- Flap retract altitudes shown on TLRs and Complex Special Engine Failure Procedures are MSL.
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
16
Q
- Flap retract altitudes shown on ACARS takeoff output are MSL.
A. True
B. False
A
B. False
17
Q
- Level 1 contamination, with Dry Snow as the contaminant, indicates a show depth of:
A. Less than 4 inches
B. More than 1 inch and less than 2 inches
C. Less than 1 inch
D. Less than 1/2 inch
A
C. Less than 1 inch
18
Q
- The designation “26L-E1000F” for a runway identifier means:
A. Runway 26L at Echo
B. Runway 26L at Echo, with 1000 feet closed
C. This is not a valid runway designation
D. Runway 26L with the east 1000 feet closed
A
D. Runway 26L with the east 1000 feet closed
19
Q
9. Refer to the TLR heading. The planned takeoff weight for this flight is: A. 869,700 pounds B. 787,600 pounds C. 785,600 pounds D. Not Shown
A
B. 787,600 pounds
20
Q
- Refer to the TLR Runway Information Section. Runway 17 is the departure runway. The width is insufficient to allow
back taxi and turnaround. The Maximum takeoff weight for the planned conditions and turn procedure are:
A. 821,000 pounds and a special departure
B. 792,000 pounds and runway heading
C. 836,000 pounds and a left turn to 130 degrees
D. 792,000 pounds and a left turn to 130 degrees
A
D. 792,000 pounds and a left turn to 130 degrees
21
Q
- Refer to the TLR Special Engine Failure Takeoff Procedures section above. The correct departure procedure for
runway 21 in the event of an engine failure below 1000 feet is:
A. At 9.3 DME of the PXR VOR, turn left to a heading of 130 degrees. Retract the flaps at 2510MSL
B. At 9.3 DME of the PXR VOR, turn left to a heading of 130 degrees. Retract the flaps at 2510AFE
C. At 1650 feet, turn left to a heading of 130 degrees. Retract the flaps at 2510 MSL D. Both a and c are correct
A
D. Both a and c are correct
22
Q
- Refer to the Takeoff Performance Section. The airport is located in the contiguous United States and the ATIS is
advising runway 35 for departure, with a wind of 320 degrees at 6 knots, a temperature of 28 degrees Centigrade and
the QNH is within planning tolerances. The Weight and Balance shows a takeoff weight of 792,466 pounds. The correct
Thrust Limit, pack configuration, Flap Setting, V Speeds and Departure Profile are:
A. TO-2, assumed temperature of 51, Packs On, Flaps 20, V1-138, VR-162, V2-173, NADP 1
B. TO-2, assumed temperature of 51, Packs On, Flaps 20, V1-138, VR-162, V2-173, NADP 2
C. Takeoff is not allowed, as indicated by the dashed lines for Runway 35
D. TO, Packs Off, Flaps 20 V1-146, VR-163, V2-175, NADP 2
A
D. TO, Packs Off, Flaps 20 V1-146, VR-163, V2-175, NADP 2
23
Q
- Using the TLR for takeoff performance, the ATIS indicates Low Level Windshear Advisories. There is no pilot reported
windshear for your departure runway. You should:
A. Not depart
B. Select TO, with no assumed temperature
C. Depart using the data derived from the TLR Takeoff Performance Section
D. Select TO, with no assumed temperature and use the Maximum Weights Section of the TLR for flap setting
and V speeds
A
D. Select TO, with no assumed temperature and use the Maximum Weights Section of the TLR for flap setting
and V speeds
24
Q
- Using the TLR for takeoff performance, the First Officer reads the Takeoff CG from the weight and balance, the
Captain enters the CG on the FMS Takeoff Page and the FMS gives a Stab Trim setting of 6.2. The First Officer should:
A. Crosscheck the Stab Trim setting against the table in the TLR
B. No crosscheck is required
C. Crosscheck the Stab Trim setting against the table in the QRH
D. Either a or c is correct
A
D. Either a or c is correct
25
15. The TLR takeoff data is valid within which of the following ranges:
A. QNH not more than .10 below planned, Temperature not more than planned, weight not more than 10,000
pounds greater than planned
B. QNH not more than .10 below planned, Temperature not more than the MT listed for the runway, weight
not more than 10,000 pounds greater than planned
C. QNH not more than .10 below planned, Temperature not less than planned, weight not more than 10,000
pounds greater than planned
D. QHN not more than .10 below planned, Temperature is not more than the MT and less than 10° below
planned, weight not more than 10,000 pounds greater than planned
D. QHN not more than .10 below planned, Temperature is not more than the MT and less than 10° below
planned, weight not more than 10,000 pounds greater than planned
26
16. Refer to the TLR Normal Landing Section. The temperature is reported as 22 degrees Centigrade, the visibility is
reported as 800 Meters, and the landing runway is 06. The ATIS remarks include “Runway Wet”. The maximum landing
weight is:
A. 573,500 pounds
B. 799,300 pounds
C. 729,600 pounds
D. Not shown
C. 729,600 pounds
27
17. Refer to the TLR Landing Distance Section. Your intended landing runway is 9,000 feet long. Your actual landing
weight is 568,000 pounds. Is Autobrakes 2 and flaps 25 sufficient for landing?
A. Yes
B. No
A. Yes
28
18. Refer to the TLR Landing Distance Section above. For each listed weight, the associated landing distance is the AFM
landing distance from 50 feet above the threshold, plus 15%.
A. True
B. False
B. False
29
```
19. If a diversion or an emergency return to the airport is necessary, and you have no ACARS connectivity, the correct
source for landing data is:
A. The TLR
B. The AOM, Vol 1, Chapter SP
C. The QRH
D. None of the above
```
C. The QRH
30
20. When using ACARS to request takeoff or landing performance data, open boxes indicate required entries and dashed
lines indicate optional entries.
A. True
B. False
B. False
31
21. When entering takeoff conditions, the fuel entered on the ACARS Init Page is pre populated as FOB, but the ZFW and
CG must be manually entered.
A. True
B. False
A. True
32
```
22. It can take up to ___ minutes for takeoff or landing data to be returned via ACARS, depending on data connection
speed.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
```
B. 10
33
23. The Departure or Arrival ATIS will pre populate the respective Takeoff Conditions or Landing Conditions page.
A. True
B. False
B. False
34
24. If there is a Special Engine Failure procedure for the selected takeoff runway, that procedure will be printable from
the ACARS takeoff output. However, Complex Special procedures do not print from the ACARS takeoff output.
A. True
B. False
A. True
35
25. The Enroute Icing prompt on the Landing Conditions page is selected when:
A. Wing anti ice is required on approach
B. Engine anti ice is required on approach
C. The airframe is contaminated with ice, thus reducing approach climb performance
D. None of the above
C. The airframe is contaminated with ice, thus reducing approach climb performance
36
3. During which phase of flight do the packs operate in normal flow?
A. In all flight phases
B. During climb and cruise only
C. During cruise only
D. On the ground, and during cruise and descent
C. During cruise only
37
```
5. With the EQUIP COOLING selector switch set to OVRD, equipment cooling is provided:
A. At all times
B. Only if the aircraft is pressurized
C. Only on the ground
D. Except when smoke is detected
```
B. Only if the aircraft is pressurized
38
6 Assuming no system faults, on touchdown the cabin altitude controller directs the outflow valves to:
A. Maintain slight positive cabin pressure
B. Mid range positions
C. Fully open positions
D. Fully open positions, even if Outflow Valve MAN L/R switches are in ON positions
C. Fully open positions
39
```
8. An overheat of the aft cargo compartment with the AFT CARGO HT switch ON would normally cause which EICAS
message to appear?
A. TEMP ZONE
B. BLD ISLN
C. BLD DUCT LEAK C
D. TEMP CARGO HEAT
```
D. TEMP CARGO HEAT
40
9. With the Lower Lobe Cargo Conditioned Air Flow Rate Selector in OFF, what is the temperature range available via the
FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector?
A. 18 degrees C to 29 degrees C
B. The FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector is inoperative in this configuration
C. 4 degrees C to 29 degrees C
D. 40 degrees F to 85 degrees F
B. The FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector is inoperative in this configuration
41
11. With the APU Bleed Air switch ON, the APU bleed air valve opens when the:
A. APU switch is moved from OFF to ON
B. APU switch is moved from OFF to START
C. APU switch is moved from START to ON
D. EICAS memo message APU RUNNING appears
D. EICAS memo message APU RUNNING appears
42
12. The Engine Bleed Air SYS FAULT light illuminates when the:
A. Engine start valve is open when commanded closed
B. Engine Bleed switch is OFF and the engine is running
C. HP Bleed valve is closed when commanded open
D. PRV is open when commanded closed
D. PRV is open when commanded closed
43
14. The engine bleed fault detection system is reset, after a fault has been cleared, by:
A. Pressing the PACK RST button
B. Pressing the ZONE RST button
C. System logic
D. Moving the Engine Bleed Air switch from OFF to ON
D. Moving the Engine Bleed Air switch from OFF to ON
44
18. Overpressurization relief on the B747-400 is provided by:
A. Two mechanical pressure relief valves located on the left side of the fuselage
B. Two pressure relief valves each in side cargo door, lower forward, and lower aft cargo doors
C. Automatic pressurization controllers A and B
D. Outflow valves when in both automatic and manual control
A. Two mechanical pressure relief valves located on the left side of the fuselage
45
20. The FLT DECK TEMP selector in MAN allows:
A. The zone requiring the coldest temperature to control the pack outlet temperatures
B. Manual control of the master trim air valve
C. Manual control of the flight deck trim air valve
D. Manual control of the air conditioning pack outlet temperature
C. Manual control of the flight deck trim air valve
46
```
The Autothrottle and AFDS independently provide speed protection for all operations except when in which pitch
mode?
A. All pitch modes have speed protection
B. V/S
C. TOGA during go-around
D. TOGA during takeoff
```
B. V/S
47
4. During a VNAV climb which has priority for altitude capture?
A. The MCP altitude window
B. The FMC target altitude
C. The MCP altitude window or FMC target - whichever is reached first
D. The higher of the MCP altitude window or FMC target altitude
C. The MCP altitude window or FMC target - whichever is reached first
48
5. Which of the following will cause the VNAV mode to disengage?
A. When the MCP window altitude is reached
B. Pressing the FLCH button
C. LOC capture
D. Autothrottle disconnect
B. Pressing the FLCH button
49
```
6. What is the maximum localizer intercept angle?
A. less than 30 degrees
B. less than 60 degrees
C. less than 90 degrees
D. less than 120 degrees
```
D. less than 120 degrees
50
```
9. During an Autoland approach, which Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) indicates that the thrust levers are being
retarded to idle for landing?
A. RETARD
B. THR
C. HOLD
D. IDLE
```
D. IDLE
51
```
10. How may autopilots are required for an autoland?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. At least 1 and the autothrottle
```
B. 2
52
```
12. What pitch mode(s) allow aircraft operation away from the MCP selected altitude?
A. FLCH
B. VNAV
C. V/S
D. HDG SEL/HDG HOLD and SPD together
```
C. V/S
53
13. How can the altitude displayed in the MCP Altitude Window be changed?
A. Rotating the Altitude Selector
B. Entering the desired altitude in the FMS-CDU
C. Pushing the Altitude Selector
D. All of the above answers are correct
A. Rotating the Altitude Selector
54
14. The Autopilot DISENGAGE Bar, when pushed down:
A. Disengages the autopilot(s)
B. Disengages the autopilot(s) and prevents re-engagement
C. Resets the autopilot(s) and clears any AFDS faults present
D. Works exactly like the yoke mounted Autopilot Disengage Switches
B. Disengages the autopilot(s) and prevents re-engagement
55
```
16. If active, at what speed during the takeoff roll will the autothrottle mode change to HOLD?
A. V1
B. 80 knots
C. 65 knots
D. 50 knot
```
C. 65 knots
56
```
17. During an Autoland approach, at what approximate radio altitude does the Autopilot start the runway alignment?
A. 50 ft.
B. 1,000 ft.
C. 500 ft.
D. None of the above
```
C. 500 ft.
57
18. The FMA “VNAV ALT” indicates that:
A. The aircraft has reached an MCP selected altitude, which differs from the VNAV profile altitude
B. The aircraft has reached a VNAV profile altitude
C. MCP Altitude HOLD button has been pressed
D. MCP SPD button has been pressed
A. The aircraft has reached an MCP selected altitude, which differs from the
58
20. How is the autopilot FLARE mode engagement annunciated by the FMA?
A. FLARE replacing LAND 3
B. FLARE appearing in green font, with an amber horizontal line through it
C. FLARE appearing in white font
D. FLARE replacing G/S in green font
D. FLARE replacing G/S in green font
59
21. When in a bank and the HDG HOLD button is pressed, the aircraft will:
A. Roll wings level and maintain the heading at rollout
B. Roll wings level to maintain the heading the aircraft was on when HDG HOLD was pressed
C. Roll wings level and maintain heading selected in MCP HDG window
D. Enter ATT roll mode
A. Roll wings level and maintain the heading at rollout
60
```
23. If LNAV was armed before starting takeoff roll, when will it generally become an active mode?
A. 50 feet above airport elevation
B. At acceleration altitude
C. After LNAV button is pushed
D. 400 feet above airport elevation
```
A. 50 feet above airport elevation
61
```
30. When you turn the F/D switch ON in flight with 25 degrees bank (assuming both FD’s and all autopilots were off), the
active roll mode will be
A. HDG HOLD
B. ATT
C. HDG SEL
D. TO/GA
```
B. ATT
62
```
31. If you press the SPD button while in TO/GA pitch mode
A. Nothing will happen
B. Autothrottle mode changes to SPD
C. Autothrottle mode changes to HOLD
D. Autothrottle mode changes to THR
```
A. Nothing will happen
63
CAT 2/3
1. If the RVR is at or above 1600, how many transmissometers are required for a Category II Approach and which is
controlling?
A. Two are required and both are controlling.
B. Two are required and touchdown is controlling.
C. One-touchdown is required and controlling.
C. One-touchdown is required and controlling.
64
```
2. The Localizer deviation limit below 1000’ HAT is _______ dot.
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1
```
B. 1/3
65
3. The pilot in command making an approach in actual Cat II weather conditions must have at least:
A. Completed an actual CAT II approach in the preceding 12 months (A/C or simulator)
B. 300 hours as PlC in any Cat II equipped aircraft.
C. Completed the Kalitta Air CAT II/III initial course.
D. 200 Hours as PlC in any CAT III equipped turbojet aircraft.
E. Both a. and c.
E. Both a. and c.
| 4. What do you have to see
66
```
4. What do you have to see at DH to legally continue the approach?
A. 3000 Feet of Runway
B. Sequenced Flashing Lights.
C. Threshold Lights.
D. The White Approach Lights
```
C. Threshold Lights.
67
```
5. ILS courses for CAT II operations have an Inner Marker (IM). The purpose of this IM is to:
A. Mark the 50-ft. Decision Height.
B. Mark the 200-ft. Decision Height.
C. Mark the 150 ft, Decision Height.
D. Mark the 100-ft. Decision Height
```
D. Mark the 100-ft. Decision Height
68
6. If the pilot's seat is adjusted lower than the optimum eye reference position:
A. The aircraft appears to be higher relative to the desired glideslope.
B. The visible ground segment would be reduced.
C. There is a tendency to lower the nose of the aircraft.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
69
7. Standard CAT II altitude callouts will be in reference to the barometric altimeter, except for the "minimums” call on
approaches that use the radio altimeter for DH.
A. True
B. False
A. True
70
8. Which of the RVR readings is controlling for the initiation of a Category II approach?
A. Touchdown Zone RVR.
B. Touchdown Zone and Mid-point RVR
C. Touchdown Zone, Mid-point and Rollout RVR
A. Touchdown Zone RVR
71
9. ATIS wind reports indicate that a 90-degree crosswind at 13 knots exists at the CAT II runway of intended landing. You
should know that:
A. The maximum crosswind acceptable at landing for CAT II is 10 knots.
B. A CAT II approach is authorized even though the crosswind component
C. You may continue the approach to the DH before executing the missed approach.
D. All of the above.exceeds
B. A CAT II approach is authorized even though the crosswind component exceeds 10 knots.
72
```
10. Which section of an approach chart will indicate that the radio altimeter is not authorized for use in determining DH?
A. The Chart Minimums Section.
B. The Chart Heading Section.
C. The Chart Profile View.
D. All of the above.
```
A. The Chart Minimums Section
73
11. If a go-around has been initiated due to a momentary loss of runway visual references, it is permissible to abort the
go-around and make the landing once visual contact has been regained.
A. True
B. False
B. False
74
12. During rollout you notice that the runway centerline lights are just beginning to alternate red and white.
Approximately how much runway is remaining?
A. 1000 feet.
B. 1500 feet.
C. 2000 feet.
D. 3000 feet
D. 3000 feet.
75
13. Each autoland approach must be reported:
A. Only in actual CAT II weather conditions.
B. Only when a successful landing was accomplished.
C. After each attempt for an autoland approach and landing.
D. Only if the approach terminated with a missed approach procedure
C. After each attempt for an autoland approach and landing
76
```
14. What color are the runway edge lights in the last 2000 feet of an instrument runway in the HIRL system?
A. Red
B. White
C. Amber
D. Alternating Amber and White
```
C. Amber
77
15. Which of the following visual references would allow the Captain to continue the approach for landing below the
DH?
A. Red Terminating Bars with ALSF I.
B. Red Side Row Barrettes inside the 500' bar with ALSF II.
C. Touchdown Zone Lights.
D. Any of the above.
D. Any of the above
78
```
16. Cat II minimums for Kalitta Air operations are:
A. DH 100 ft., RVR 1000
B. DH 150 ft., RVR 1200
C. DH 150 ft., RVR 1600
D. DH 100 ft., RVR 1200
```
D. DH 100 ft., RVR 1200
79
```
17. At the DH on a CAT II approach, only the Sequenced Flashing Lights are visible. The Captain should:
A. Call "Landing".
B. Disconnect the autothrottles.
C. Go-around.
D. Any of the above.
```
C. Go-around.
80
18. The CAT II approach plate for the approach you are presently executing states RA NOT AUTH in the straight in DH
data block. This indicates that:
A. DH will be determined by the Captain's barometric altimeter only.
B. DH will be determined by the First Officer's barometric (electric) altimeter.
C. DH will be determined by 100 feet on the Captain's radio altimeter.
D. DH will be determined by the Inner Marker.
D. DH will be determined by the Inner Marker.
81
19. On a CAT IIIB approach, the Captain must have the following visual cues in sight at Alert Height (AH):
A. Red side row barrettes with the ALSF II lighting system.
B. Red Terminating bars with the ALSF I lighting system.
C. Runway environment
D. No outside visual cues are required
D. No outside visual cues are required
82
```
20. If the autoland status changes from “LAND 3” to “LAND 2” (B744) or “Triple” to “Dual” (B747), the lowest minimums
that you may descend to are:
A. 100 feet AH
B. 100 feet DH
C. 100 feet MDA
D. 200 feet MDA
```
B. 100 feet DH
83
21. You are flying a CAT III approach into Denver and the RVR drops below CAT III minimums after the aircraft is
established on the final segment:
A. Execute an immediate missed approach.
B. Execute a missed approach at AH.
C. Continue the approach.
D. Disconnect the autopilots and continue to DH for a “look-see.”
C. Continue the approach
84
22. The following ground equipment must be functional in order to conduct a CAT III approach:
A. Three transmissometers, any one of which may be temporarily inoperative
B. Sequenced Flashers
C. Marker Beacon Receivers
D. One ILS transmitter
A. Three transmissometers, any one of which may be temporarily inoperative
85
23. The SMGCS must be installed and operational at any airport where CAT III approaches are being conducted if the
RVR drops below 1,200 feet:
A. True
B. False
A. True
86
24. You are conducting a CAT III approach. At AH with no visual contact with the runway, you unintentionally disconnect
the autopilot. You should:
A. Execute a manual go-around
B. Since the aircraft is in trim, land the aircraft
C. Land the aircraft if the sequence flashers are in sight
D. Reconnect the autopilots and do an autoland
A. Execute a manual go-around
87
```
25. The minimum threshold crossing height of the B-744 and B-747 on an ILS approach is:
A. 44 feet
B. 47 feet
C. 50 feet
D. 42 feet
```
D. 42 feet
88
26. On a CAT IIIb approach, the autopilot should be disconnected at touchdown.
A. True
B. False
B. False
89
27. You are planning to do a CAT III approach into AMS. The ATIS reports “Mu 28, 22, Sleet at one zero one five.” Can
you conduct the approach?
A. Yes
B. No
B. No
90
28. The CAT II/III Status Indicator (or placard) is located:
A. On the Captain’s P1 panel.
B. On the Captain’s and First Officer’s ND’s.
C. On the EICAS display.
D. None of the above
A. On the Captain’s P1 panel
91
29. What is the purpose for the runway/ runway hold position sign?
A. Denotes entrance to runway from a TW
B. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a RW
C. Denotes intersecting runways
A. Denotes entrance to runway from a TW
92
30. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
A. Identifies taxiway the aircraft is holding on
B. Holds aircraft short of the runway
C. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway
B. Holds aircraft short of the runway
93
31. When turning on to a TW from another TW, what is the purpose of the TW directional sign?
A. Indicates direction to the takeoff runway
B. Indicates designation & direction of exit TW from RW
C. Indicates designation and direction of TW leading out of an intersection
C. Indicates designation and direction of TW leading out of an intersection
94
32. What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?
A. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering
B. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection
C. Identifies the exit boundary for the RW protected area
A. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering
95
33. What does this airport sign indicate?
A. Railroad crossing at designated taxiway
B. Exit boundary for the ILS critical area
C. Exit boundary for runway safety area or runway approach
B. Exit boundary for the ILS critical area
96
34. What does this airport sign indicate?
A. CAT III approaches in progress
B. Entry boundary for the ILS critical area
C. Identifies the entry boundary for the RW protected area
B. Entry boundary for the ILS critical area
97
35. Every FAR Part 139 airport conducting operations when the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is less than
________________ feet is required to develop a SMGCS Plan.
A. 8000
B. 6000
C. 1200
D. 600
C. 1200
98
36. What purpose does this sign serve?
A. Identifies the taxiway on which an aircraft is located
B. Provides general taxiing direction to the named runway
C. Denotes the entrance to a runway from a TW
A. Identifies the taxiway on which an aircraft is located
99
37. Taxiways which are not part of the SMGCS plan routes are designated by:
A. A light grey screen while approved routes are printed with a darker grey screen
B. A dark grey screen while approved routes are printed with a lighter grey screen
C. A dark grey screen while approved routes are printed with a white screen
D. A light grey screen while approved routes are printed with a blue screen
A. A light grey screen while approved routes are printed with a darker grey screen
100
38. Taxiway Centerline Lights guide traffic under low visibility conditions. These lights consist of continuous _______ inpavement
lights embedded along the painted taxiway centerline stripe and are in addition to the _________ taxiway
edge lights.
A. White / Blue
B. Magenta / Cyan
C. Green / White
D. Green / Blue
D. Green / Blue
101
39. Yellow chevrons identify pavement areas that are usable for landing, takeoff and taxiing.
A. True
B. False
B. False
102
40. A “pink spot” [a pink circle containing a black number surrounded by a white inner ring and a black outer ring]
painted into the taxiway in the movement area designates:
A. Active runway
B. Geographic Position Marker
C. Taxiway Clearance Ball
D. Apron Holding Location
B. Geographic Position Marker
103
1. With VHF-L Direct selected on the B747-400ERF the:
A. Captain's headset, boom mike and control wheel PTT are connected directly to the left VHF radio
B. Captain has a hot mike on left VHF radio, bypassing PTT switches and audio panel
C. Captain is using the observer's audio panel instead of the Captain's audio panel
D. Captain's hand mike and speaker are connected directly to the left VHF radio
A. Captain's headset, boom mike and control wheel PTT are connected directly to the left
104
2. The EICAS advisory message >HF DATA EICAS indicates that the:
A. Selected HF radio is in voice mode and is unavailable for ACARS data communication
B. Selected HF radio is in data mode
C. Selected HF radio is currently being used for ACARS data transmission
D. Selected HF radio has failed and unavailable for ACARS data communication
D. Selected HF radio has failed and unavailable for ACARS data communication
105
3. The EICAS advisory message >RADIO TRANSMIT indicates:
A. Another aircraft or ground station has a stuck mike on selected frequency
B. Your SELCAL system has failed
C. Possible stuck mike on your aircraft
C. Possible stuck mike on your aircraft
106
4. An “Offside Tuning” light illuminated on the right Radio Tuning Panel indicates:
A. HF R is selected on right Radio Tuning Panel
B. VHF C is selected on left Radio Tuning Panel
C. HF R is selected on center Radio Tuning Panel
D. HF L is selected on center Radio Tuning Panel
C. HF R is selected on center Radio Tuning Panel
107
5. The OBS AUDIO SYSTEM switch in the F/O position:
A. Connects Observer Audio Panel to F/O’s microphones, speakers, headset, PTT etc
B. Connects Observer Audio Panel to Captain's microphones, speakers, headset, PTT etc
C. Connects F/O Audio Panel to observer's microphones, speakers, headset, PTT etc
D. Connects Captain Audio Panel to observer’s microphones, speakers, headset, PTT etc
A. Connects Observer Audio Panel to F/O’s microphones, speakers, headset, PTT etc
108
6. A FAULT light illuminated on the ACARS printer indicates the:
A. Printer has failed
B. Printer is out of paper
C. Printer's cover is not latched properly
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
109
```
7. HF radios should not be used:
A. On the ground
B. While the aircraft is being fueled
C. While in the vicinity on thunderstorms
D. All of the above
```
B. While the aircraft is being fueled
110
8. While operating in North Atlantic MNPS airspace, you notice that you will arrive at your next waypoint 3 minutes
earlier than you reported previously as your estimate. You should:
A. Do nothing, it is within tolerances
B. Advise Dispatch of your new ETA
C. Notify ATC and provide your updated ETA at least 10 minutes prior to reaching your next waypoint
D. Notify ATC and provide your updated ETA as soon as practical correct D (as the MNPS authorities have recently
amended their reporting requirements, omitting the old 10 minute prior restriction to reporting
D. Notify ATC and provide your updated ETA as soon as practical correct D (as the MNPS authorities have recently
amended their reporting requirements, omitting the old 10 minute prior restriction to reporting
111
9. What additional communication procedures are in effect while operating in the Yangoon FIR (Myanmar/Burma)?
A. IATA In-Flight Broadcast Procedures on 128.95
B. Mandatory position reporting to ATC over each waypoint as it is a non-radar environment
C. Mandatory weather reports at all FIR boundary waypoints
D. All of the above
A. IATA In-Flight Broadcast Procedures on 128.95
112
10. What additional communication procedures are in effect while operating over most of Africa?
A. Mandatory weather reports at all FIR boundary waypoints
B. Mandatory position reporting to ATC over each waypoint as it is a non radar environment
C. IATA In Flight Broadcast Procedures on 126.9
D. All of the above
C. IATA In Flight Broadcast Procedures on 126.9
113
CYCLE A
2. How many supernumeraries are we authorized to carry on the upper deck?
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and 4-ERF)
B. 8 - BCF and 4 - ERF
C. 10 - BCF and 6 - ERF
D. 12 - BCF and 8 - ERF
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and 4-ERF)
114
```
7. What is the maximum operating altitude of a B747-400?
A. 43,100 ft
B. 45,000 ft
C. 45,100 ft
D. 47,000 ft
```
C. 45,100 ft
115
19. Assuming no system faults, on touchdown the cabin altitude controller directs the outflow valves to:
A. Maintain slight positive cabin pressure
B. Mid range positions
C. Fully open positions
D. Fully closed positions
C. Fully open positions
116
22. With the Lower Lobe Cargo Conditioned Air Flow Rate Selector in OFF, what is the temperature range available via
the FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector?
A. 18 degrees C to 29 degrees C
B. The FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector is inoperative in this configuration
C. 4 degrees C to 29 degrees C
D. 40 degrees F to 85 degrees F
B. The FWD Lower Lobe Temperature selector is inoperative in this configuration
117
27. The engine bleed fault detection system is reset, after a fault has been cleared by?
A. Pressing the PACK RST button
B. Pressing the ZONE RST button
C. System logic
D. Moving the Engine Bleed Air switch from OFF to ON
D. Moving the Engine Bleed Air switch from OFF to ON
118
```
29. The Maximum Differential Cabin Pressure for takeoff and landing is?
A. 9.5 psi
B. 8.7 psi
C. 8.5 psi
D. 0.11 psi
```
D. 0.11 psi
119
35. In icing conditions on the ground, what are the engine run-up requirements?
A. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
B. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 15 min, and before starting takeoff roll
C. 70% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
D. 70% N1, for 30 sec every 15 min, and before starting takeoff roll
A. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
120
39. The EICAS advisory message indicates that...?
A. An engine anti-ice valve is not in the commanded position
B. Ice is detected and any engine anti-ice system in the OFF position
C. Engine anti-ice system has failed
D. Any engine anti-ice system is ON, however the ice detector (if installed) does not detect ice, and TAT is 12C
or above
D. Any engine anti-ice system is ON, however the ice detector (if installed) does not detect ice, and TAT is 12C
or above
121
```
50. What is the maximum localizer intercept angle?
A. less than 30 degrees
B. less than 60 degrees
C. less than 90 degrees
D. less than 120 degrees
```
D. less than 120 degrees
122
```
54. How may autopilots are required for an autoland?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. At least 1 and the autothrottle
```
B. 2
123
66. If the crew takes no action following an engine failure in cruise, above the maximum engine out altitude, the
following will occur...?
A. The AFDS will initiate an immediate engine-out VNAV descent
B. The AFDS will maintain altitude and the aircraft will eventually stall
C. The AFDS will maintain altitude until minimum airspeed is reached, then speed protection will force it to
descend
D. The EICAS advisory >AUTOPILOT< will be displayed
B. The AFDS will maintain altitude and the aircraft will eventually stall
124
78. An “Offside Tuning” light illuminated on the right Radio Tuning Panel indicates?
A. HF R is selected on right Radio Tuning Panel
B. VHF C is selected on left Radio Tuning Panel
C. The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
D. HF L is selected on center Radio Tuning Panel
C. The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
125
85. The EICAS Advisory message indicates?
A. IDG oil pressure low
B. IDG oil temperature high
C. GEN CONT open due to an uncorrectable generator frequency fault
D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above
126
87. The DC 4 isolation relay should open if?
A. The FMA “LAND 3” is displayed
B. The STANDBY POWER switch is selected to BAT
C. The number 4 GEN CONT switch is selected to OFF
D. The number 4 BUS TIE switch is selected to OFF
D. The number 4 BUS TIE switch is selected to OFF
127
94. The GEN CONT OFF light on the overhead panel, indicates...?
A. An AC bus tie breaker (BTB) is open
B. A generator is connected to its respective AC bus
C. A generator control breaker (GCB) is open
D. Answers A and C are both correct
C. A generator control breaker (GCB) is open
128
```
98. What is the minimum engine oil pressure?
A. 10 psi
B. 11 psi
C. 9.4 psi
D. 16 psi
```
A. 10 psi
129
```
106. During engine start, the Engine Start switch solenoid releases at?
A. 45% N1
B. 50% N1
C. 50% N2
D. 55% N2
```
C. 50% N2
130
110. When one manually switches an EEC from NORM to ALTN in flight, one would expect the following to occur?
A. N1 remains the same but autothrottle disengages
B. N1 increases and autothrottle disengages
C. N1 decreases and autothrottle disengages
D. N1 increases with the autothrottle remaining engaged
B. N1 increases and autothrottle disengages
131
```
113. What is the desired minimum oil quantity for the APU?
A. 16 quarts
B. .55
C. 15.1 liters
D. .80
```
B. .55
132
115. Why are we instructed to wait two minutes before selecting the BATTERY switch OFF, after bringing the APU
selector to OFF, when shutting down the APU?
A. To ensure we have fire detection capability throughout the APU shutdown cycle
B. To allow us to monitor the APU shutdown via the EICAS STATUS page
C. To ensure we have overheat detection capability throughout the APU startup cycle
D. Because that is how it was done on the DC-8
A. To ensure we have fire detection capability throughout the APU shutdown cycle
133
119. The APU is available for?
A. Electrical power and bleed air for one pack in the air at all times
B. Electrical power and bleed air for one pack up to 20,000 feet
C. Bleed air for one pack up to 15,000 feet only
D. Bleed air for all packs up to 15,000 feet only
C. Bleed air for one pack up to 15,000 feet only
134
123. How is a fault in just one of the engine fire detector loops indicated to the crew?
A. Single loop faults are not displayed, system automatically configures for single loop operation
B. An EICAS caution message and aural caution signal
C. Engine fire warning on the associated engine
D. Engine fire warning and automatic discharge of an engine fire bottle to the associated engine
A. Single loop faults are not displayed, system automatically configures for single loop operation
135
127. An APU fire on the ground is indicated outside the aircraft by...?
A. A red light and continuous fire bell in the right body gear wheel well
B. A red light and intermittent horn in the nose gear well
C. A red light and intermittent horn in the left and right body gear wheel wells
D. A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well
D. A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well
136
```
128. The lower cargo fire extinguishing system is designed to provide effective concentration of extinguishing agent for?
A. 204 minutes
B. 234 minutes
C. 304 minutes
D. 334 minutes
```
D. 334 minutes
137
130. The EICAS warning message is cancelled when?
A. A fire is no longer being detected
B. Either Master Warning/Caution Reset switch is pressed
C. Landing gear is extended
D. Fire bottle is discharged and extinguishes the fire
A. A fire is no longer being detected
138
ELECTRICAL
2. Assuming no other failures and all switches in normal positions, a fault on AC bus 4 rendering it unpowered would:
A. Leave DC bus 4 unpowered
B. Leave DC bus 4 powered via the AC bus tie breaker 4
C. Leave DC bus 4 unpowered, as AC bus tie breaker 4 and DC Isolation Relay 4 would open
D. Leave DC bus 4 powered via the DC tie bus
D. Leave DC bus 4 powered via the DC tie bus
139
```
5. The Ground Handling bus should be powered if:
A. AC Bus 1 is powered
B. APU GEN 2 AVAIL light illuminated
C. EXT PWR 1 AVAIL light illuminated
D. EXT PWR 2 ON light illuminated
```
C. EXT PWR 1 AVAIL light illuminated
140
6. The DC 4 isolation relay should open if:
A. The FMA “LAND 3” is displayed
B. The STANDBY POWER switch is selected to BAT
C. The number 4 GEN CONT switch is selected to OFF
D. The number 4 BUS TIE switch is selected to OFF
D. The number 4 BUS TIE switch is selected to OFF
141
8. Which of the following conditions will cause the SSB (spilt system breaker) to open?
A. FMA “LAND 3” displayed
B. APU GEN 1 and 2 ON lights illuminated
C. EXT PWR 2 ON light illuminated
D. All 4 IDG’s are connected to the synchronous bus
B. APU GEN 1 and 2 ON lights illuminated
142
```
9. What is the normal power source for the Main Standby bus?
A. Captain's transfer bus
B. Main standby inverter
C. AC bus 3
D. AC bus 1
```
C. AC bus 3
143
```
11. The External Power 1 ON light is illuminated. With no electrical faults and all switches in their normal positions, DC
busses 1,2,3 and 4 are:
A. Connected together by the DC tie bus
B. Isolated from each other
C. Powered by their respective inverters
D. Powered by the main battery bus
```
A. Connected together by the DC tie bus
144
12. How is electrical load shedding indicated to the crew?
A. EICAS messages for individual systems such fuel pumps being shed
B. The EICAS advisory message “LOAD SHEDDING”
C. The EICAS advisory messages “ELEC UTIL BUS L/R”
D. UTILITY power OFF lights
A. EICAS messages for individual systems such fuel pumps being shed
145
13. The GEN CONT OFF light on the overhead panel, indicates:
A. An AC bus tie breaker (BTB) is open
B. A generator is connected to its respective AC bus
C. A generator control breaker (GCB) is open
D. Answers A and C are both correct
C. A generator control breaker (GCB) is open
146
```
15. The main deck cargo door (side) may be opened when:
A. APU GEN 1 AVAIL light is illuminated
B. EXT PWR 2 AVAIL light is illuminated
C. EXT PWR 2 ON light is illuminated
D. Answers B and C are correct
```
B. EXT PWR 2 AVAIL light is illuminated
147
```
16. The nose cargo door may be opened when:
A. EXT PWR 2 AVAIL light is illuminated
B. EXT PWR 1 AVAIL light is illuminated
C. EXT PWR 3 AVAIL light is illuminated
D. EXT PWR 1 ON light is illuminated
```
A. EXT PWR 2 AVAIL light is illuminated
148
```
ENGINES APU
2. In the EEC normal mode, thrust is set by controlling N1 based on:
A. Thrust lever position
B. FMC calculated levels
C. Reference Thrust displayed on EICAS
D. Maximum EGT limits
```
A. Thrust lever position
149
```
7. Continuous Ignition is turned on automatically when:
A. Flaps not UP
B. Nacelle anti-ice ON
C. N2 below 50% in flight
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
150
```
10. What is the unlimited engine start EGT limit?
A. 870 degrees C
B. 650 degrees C
C. 585 degrees C
D. 750 degrees C
```
D. 750 degrees C
151
```
12. What is the maximum continuous EGT limit?
A. 960 degrees C
B. 985 degrees C
C. 925 degrees C
D. 750 degrees C
```
C. 925 degrees C
152
13. When one manually switches an EEC from NORM to ALTN in flight, one would expect the following to occur:
A. N1 remains the same but autothrottle disengages
B. N1 increases and autothrottle disengages
C. N1 decreases and autothrottle disengages
D. N1 increases with the autothrottle remaining engaged
B. N1 increases and autothrottle disengages
153
```
14. During engine start with Autostart working normally, an engine fails to indicate rotation. Possible remedies include
checking and placing the:
A. APU Bleed Air switch ON
B. Auto Ignition switch to BOTH
C. Engine 4 Bleed Air Switch ON
D. answers A and C are both correct
```
D. answers A and C are both correct
154
```
16. What is the desired minimum oil quantity for the APU?
A. 16 quarts
B. .55
C. 15.1 liters
D. .80
```
B. .55
155
20. Before pushback, we should not start the APU:
A. Prior to 10 minutes before pushback
B. Prior to 30 minutes before pushback
C. Unless we have received permission from ground personnel
D. No such guidance exists
B. Prior to 30 minutes before pushback
156
22. The APU is available for:
A. Electrical power and bleed air for one pack in the air at all times
B. Electrical power and bleed air for one pack up to 20,000 feet
C. Bleed air for one pack up to 15,000 feet only
C. Bleed air for one pack up to 15,000 feet only
157
25. During normal operations, the fuel for the APU is supplied from:
A. Main tank 1 via a dedicated DC pump
B. Main tank 2 via the AC pumps, or a dedicated DC pump
C. Main tank 4 via the AC pumps, or a dedicated DC pump
D. Main tank 3 via a dedicated DC pump
B. Main tank 2 via the AC pumps, or a dedicated DC pump
158
FIRE DETECTION
1. How is a fault in just one of the engine fire detector loops indicated to the crew?
A. Single loop faults are not displayed, system automatically configures for single loop operation
B. An EICAS caution message and aural caution signal
C. Engine fire warning on the associated engine
D. Engine fire warning and automatic discharge of an engine fire bottle to the associated
A. Single loop faults are not displayed, system automatically configures for single loop operation
159
2. Pulling the number 4 Engine Fire Switch, among other things, accomplishes the following:
A. Discharges a fire bottle into engine 4
B. Shuts off fuel, bleed air, hydraulics, and electrical generation on engine 4
C. Arms a squib in one fire bottle
D. Extinguishes Fuel Control Switch Fire light
B. Shuts off fuel, bleed air, hydraulics, and electrical generation on engine 4
160
3. Pushing the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM Switch should, among other things:
A. Arm aircraft depressurization, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to the lower cargo compartments
B. Configure equipment cooling to closed loop, turn off pack number two, turn off all airflow to the lower cargo
compartments
C. Arm lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs, configures equipment cooling to
override mode
D. Discharge lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to lower cargo
compartments, reconfigure equipment cooling to Override
C. Arm lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs, configures equipment cooling to
override mode
161
4. The EICAS advisory message >DET FIRE/OVHT 2 indicates
A. Overheat condition on engine 2
B. Engine 2 fire and overheat detection is inoperative
C. Single overheat detection loop on engine 2 has failed
D. Single fire and overheat detection loop on engine 2 has failed
B. Engine 2 fire and overheat detection is inoperative
162
5. An APU fire on the ground is indicated outside the aircraft by
A. A red light and continuous fire bell in the right body gear wheel well
B. A red light and intermittent horn in the nose gear well
C. A red light and intermittent horn in the left and right body gear wheel wells
D. A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well
D. A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well
163
```
6. The lower cargo fire extinguishing system is designed to provide effective concentration of extinguishing agent for
A. 204 minutes
B. 234 minutes
C. 304 minutes
D. 334 minutes
```
D. 334 minutes
164
7. On the ground, an APU fire sensed by only one APU fire loop will:
A. Have no indication, since both loops are needed to trigger fire warning
B. Cause an APU fire warning
C. Cause an APU fire warning and automatically shut down the APU
D. Cause an APU fire warning, APU shutdown, and APU fire bottle discharge
D. Cause an APU fire warning, APU shutdown, and APU fire bottle discharge
165
9. Pushing the MAIN DECK CARGO FIRE ARM Switch should, among other things:
A. Arm aircraft depressurization, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to main deck and lower cargo
compartments
B. Reconfigure equipment cooling to Override, turn off pack number two, turn off all airflow to lower cargo
compartments
C. Arm main cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs
D. Discharge main cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to lower cargo
compartments, reconfigure equipment cooling to Override
A. Arm aircraft depressurization, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to main deck and lower cargo
compartments
166
10. Pushing the CARGO FIRE DEPRESS/DISCH Switch after pushing the MAIN CARGO DECK FIRE ARM Switch should,
among other things:
A. Arm aircraft depressurization, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to main deck and lower cargo
compartments
B. Start aircraft depressurization to maintain a cabin altitude of 25,000'
C. Arm main cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs
D. Discharge main cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to lower cargo
compartments, reconfigure equipment cooling to Override
B. Start aircraft depressurization to maintain a cabin altitude of 25,000'
167
11. Pushing the CARGO FIRE DEPRESS/DISCH Switch after pushing the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM Switch should, among other
things:
A. Arm aircraft depressurization, turn off two packs, turn off all airflow to lower cargo compartments
B. Reconfigure equipment cooling to closed loop, turn off pack number two, turn off all airflow to lower cargo
compartments
C. Arm lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers, turn off two packs
D. Discharge aft lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
D. Discharge aft lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
168
```
FLIGHT CONTROLS
2. In the normal mode, all leading edge flaps are fully extended when the flap lever is moved to:
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
```
B. 5
169
4. An aileron lockout system:
A. Locks out inboard ailerons at high speeds
B. Locks out inboard ailerons at low speeds
C. Locks out outboard ailerons at high speeds
D. Locks out outboard ailerons at low speeds
C. Locks out outboard ailerons at high speeds
170
6. How many aileron sections will be inoperative with the loss of a single hydraulic system?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Two outboards if the flaps are retracted at the time of the failure
A. None
171
```
9. Aileron trim position is shown on the:
A. EICAS status display
B. Control Wheel
C. Rear of the center console
D. Primary EICAS display
```
B. Control Wheel
172
```
11. Flap lever position is transmitted to the flap control unit(s). How many FCU(s) are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
```
C. 3
173
12. Flap control unit(s) provide the following functions:
A. Primary control, secondary control, indication and annunciation
B. Primary control, indication and annunciation
C. Primary control, alternate control, indication and annunciation
D. Primary control, secondary control, alternate control
A. Primary control, secondary control, indication and annunciation
174
14. In primary (normal) mode, flaps are driven:
A. Leading edge pneumatically, trailing edge electrically
B. Leading edge hydraulically, trailing edge pneumatically
C. Leading edge electrically, trailing edge hydraulically
D. Leading edge pneumatically, trailing edge hydraulically
D. Leading edge pneumatically, trailing edge hydraulically
175
```
16. If any trailing edge flap group fails to move to the commanded position in the primary (normal) mode, it is driven in
the secondary mode:
A. Electrically only
B. Hydraulically only
C. Pneumatically only
D. Electrically or hydraulically
```
A. Electrically only
176
```
17. Flap load relief is a function of:
A. Primary, secondary, and alternate control modes
B. Primary and secondary control modes
C. Primary and alternate control modes
D. Primary control mode only
```
D. Primary control mode only
177
```
18. With the ALTN FLAPS ARM switch ON, flaps can be commanded using:
A. Flap Lever
B. ALTN FLAPS Selector
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
```
B. ALTN FLAPS Selector
178
FLIGHT INST
1. The POS switch on the EFIS control panel, displays when pressed:
A. Displays the FMC and IRU positions on the CDU, along with the RNP/ANP
B. Displays FMC calculated ETAs, altitudes and altitude constraints at each waypoint on the ND
C. Displays radials and distances to VORs, NDBs, fixes selected in FIX pages, and IRU positions on the ND
D. Displays VOR raw data radials, associated DME tick marks, IRU and FMS positions
D. Displays VOR raw data radials, associated DME tick marks, IRU and FMS positions on the ND
179
2. The Pitch Limit Indication when displayed, indicates:
A. Stick shaker activation point for the current flight condition
B. Stick shaker activation point when flaps are retracted
C. Nose up pitch limit of 18 degrees
D. Nose up pitch limit of 20 degrees
A. Stick shaker activation point for the current flight condition
180
4. The Captain's PFD Barometric Setting is adjusted using the:
A. Center FMS CDU
B. Standby Altimeter Barometric Setting Control knob
C. Captain's EFIS Control Panel BARO Selector
D. PFD Barometric Setting Knob
C. Captain's EFIS Control Panel BARO Selector
181
8. Transitioning to metric altitudes upon entering the Kunming FIR from Yangon, you get a clearance to “maintain
FL10,100 meters”. To comply, you should:
A. Select MTRS on the EFIS Control Panel. Rotate the ALT Selector knob until you see 10,100M on your PFD and
climb or descend to that altitude
B. Use the chart provided in the GOM APPENDIX I, to convert FL10,100 meters to FL331. Set this on the MCP
and press the altitude selector button to commence a climb or descent to FL331
C. Use a calculator or flight computer to convert FL10,100 meters to feet and climb or descend to the
calculated flight level
D. All of the above methods are correct
B. Use the chart provided in the GOM APPENDIX I, to convert FL10,100 meters to FL331. Set this on the MCP
and press the altitude selector button to commence a climb or descent to FL331
182
9. The INBD CRT display control switch, when in NORM:
A. Displays the ND on the inboard display, and PFD if the outboard display fails
B. Displays the PFD on the outboard display, and ND if inboard display fails
C. Displays the PFD on the inboard display
D. Displays the ND on the inboard display, and primary EICAS if upper EICAS display fails
A. Displays the ND on the inboard display, and PFD if the outboard display fails
183
11. The LWR CRT display control switch, when in NORM:
A. Displays the ND on the lower display
B. Displays the primary EICAS on the lower display
C. Displays page selected from the EICAS display select panel on the lower EICAS screen, and displays PFD if the
outboard display fails
D. Displays page selected from the EICAS display select panel on the lower EICAS screen, and displays primary
EICAS if the upper display fails
D. Displays page selected from the EICAS display select panel on the lower EICAS screen, and displays primary
EICAS if the upper display fails
184
12. The LWR CRT display control switch, when selected to EICAS PRI:
A. Displays the ND on the lower display
B. Displays the primary EICAS on the lower display
C. Displays page selected from the EICAS display select panel on the lower EICAS screen, and displays PFD if the
outboard display fails
D. Displays page selected from the EICAS display select panel on the lower EICAS, and displays primary EICAS if
upper display fails
B. Displays the primary EICAS on the lower display
185
13. The EICAS caution message ALT DISAGREE indicates:
A. Captain and F/O altitude indications disagree by more than 200 feet
B. Captain and F/O barometric reference settings disagree
C. F/O altitude indication is incorrect
D. Captain altitude indication is incorrect
A. Captain and F/O altitude indications disagree by more than 200 feet
186
14. The EICAS advisory message >BARO DISAGREE indicates:
A. Captain and F/O altitude indications disagree by more than 200 feet
B. Captain and F/O barometric reference settings disagree
C. F/O altitude indication is incorrect
D. Captain altitude indication is incorrect
B. Captain and F/O barometric reference settings disagree
187
15. On the B747-400ERF, the Center Air Data selector switch when selected to ON L position, results in:
A. Center Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) information being used instead of Left Air Data Inertial
Reference Unit information
B. Left Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) information being used instead of Center Air Data Inertial
Reference Unit information
C. The Captain and F/O both using air data information provided by the Left ADIRU
D. The Captain and F/O both using air data information provided by the Center ADIRU
17. With the WPT button selected on the EFIS Control Panel, what additional information is displayed?
A. Center Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) information being used instead of Left Air Data Inertial
Reference Unit information
188
17. With the WPT button selected on the EFIS Control Panel, what additional information is displayed?
A. Location of all waypoints within range (40 nm or less)
B. Elevation and magnetic variation for each waypoint
C. Altitude of route waypoints
D. All navaids within selected range
A. Location of all waypoints within range (40 nm or less)
189
18. With the ND in MAP mode, which of the following will always be displayed?
A. All navaids within the range selected
B. Active route and airplane position
C. All navaids and geographic reference points within the range selected
D. All airports in the FMC database within the range selected
B. Active route and airplane position
190
```
20. Under normal operations, symbology for the EFIS and EICAS is generated by the _______?
A. Master FMC
B. Selected CDU
C. EIUs
D. Source Selectors
```
C. EIUs
191
21. How does one select QNH descending through the transition altitude?
A. Select 29.92 with the EFIS BARO selector knob
B. Push STD on the EFIS BARO selector knob
C. No selection required, preset during CDU preflight
D. Select the desired QNH on the EFIS BARO selector knob, and press the STD button
D. Select the desired QNH on the EFIS BARO selector knob, and press the STD button
192
22. The green Altitude Range Arc on the ND, pictorially displays _______?
A. Where the airplane will reach an FMC constraint altitude
B. An optimum climb profile
C. Where the airplane will reach cruise mach
D. Position where MCP altitude will be reached based on vertical speed and groundspeed
D. Position where MCP altitude will be reached based on vertical speed and groundspeed
193
23. Raw data VOR/ADF pointers are displayed on the ND when:
A. The EFIS VOR/ADF switches are on
B. In MAP mode at all times
C. In VOR or APP mode at all times
D. The POS button is selected on the EFIS Control Panel
A. The EFIS VOR/ADF switches are on
194
24. When is the Radio Altitude (RA) displayed on the PFD?
A. Below 2500 feet AGL only
B. With RADIO selected on the EFIS Control Panel
C. Displays radio altitude between 50KTS ground speed and 1,000 feet AGL
D. Either A or B depending on aircraft
C. Displays radio altitude between 50KTS ground speed and 1,000 feet AGL
195
```
25. Which Source Selector switch provides the information source to the associated Vertical Speed Indicator?
A. EIU
B. IRS
C. AIR DATA (ADC)
D. FLT DIR
```
B. IRS
196
```
26. Where is the selected heading displayed?
A. Mode Control Panel only
B. ND, PFD and Mode Control Panel
C. ND only
D. Both A and B
```
B. ND, PFD and Mode Control Panel
197
29. The ND Position Trend Vector predicts airplane position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals. This is based on
______.
A. Only GRND SPD and selected range
B. Current flap setting and TAS
C. Bank angle and GRND SPD, segments are based on range selected
D. Bank angle, GRND SPD and Reference Thrust
C. Bank angle and GRND SPD, segments are based on range selected
198
31. On the ND, wind speed and direction is displayed in all modes:
A. True
B. False
A. True
199
```
FMS NAV 1
1. The flight management system (FMS) aids the flight crew with ____,______,______ using Flight Management
Computers (FMCs).
A. navigation
B. in–flight performance optimization
C. fuel monitoring
D. all of the above
```
D. all of the above
200
```
2. Automatic flight functions manage the airplane lateral flight path (LNAV) and _______________.
A. bi-directional flight path (BI-NAV)
B. constructive flight path (CNAV)
C. vertical flight path (VNAV)
D. restrictive flight path (RNAV)
```
C. vertical flight path (VNAV)
201
3. With the capability of controlling LNAV, VNAV navigation, and airplane performance through the AFDS and
autothrottles, the FMC can guide the airplane along the desired flight plan at the most economical vertical and speed
profile.
A. True
B. False
A. True
202
```
4. The database is updated on a regular basis at ________ intervals.
A. 180-day
B. 10-day
C. 90-day
D. 28-day
```
D. 28-day
203
5. The navigational database is a worldwide data basis.
A. True
B. False
A. True
204
6. THE RIGHT FMC IS DESIGNATED THE MASTER FMC.
A. True
B. False
B. False
205
```
7. The FMC uses the navigational-database to select the ________ for tuning.
A. ILS Antennas
B. navaids
C. Gear Door VOR's
D. UHF 1's
```
B. navaids
206
8. A full alignment, accomplished by rotating the IRS mode selector to OFF and back to NAV, must be accomplished
when the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds ________.
A. 2 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 25 hours
D. 20 minutes
B. 18 hours
207
9. Following operation in the navigation mode and with the airplane parked, performing a fast alignment removes
__,______,____, re-levels the system, and updates present position.
A. ground speed
B. attitude errors
C. accumulated track
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
208
```
10. Fast alignment completes in approximately ___ seconds.
A. 30
B. 2
C. 10
D. 15
```
A. 30
209
FMS NAV 2
1. With approach armed, V-NAV automatically terminates upon glide slope capture.
A. True
B. False
A. True
210
2. L-NAV activation occurs if L-NAV is armed and...
A. the F-M-C contains an active flight plan
B. airplane is at Least 50 feet Radio Altitude above the ground
C. and the airplane is within two-point-five nautical miles of the active Leg
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
211
3. VNAV is the vertical navigation flight profile which is the predicted flight trajectory of the airplane in the vertical plane
as a function of distance along the horizontal flight path defined by the ______ flight plan.
A. ANAV
B. BNAV
C. LNAV
D. DNAV
C. LNAV
212
```
4. V-NAV activation occurs if V-NAV is armed, the Performance initialization is complete, and the radio altitude is above
_________?
A. 100'
B. 400’
C. 20'
D. 80
```
B. 400’
213
5. If one or more engines are actually inoperative, the predictions are based on the detected engine configuration.
A. True
B. False
A. True
214
```
8. During a V-NAV climb, ____________ is displayed on the PFD. This indicates that autopilot pitch is maintaining V-NAV
climb speed.
A. RNAV SPEED
B. ALPHA SPEED
C. DONT PASS GO SPEED
D. V-NAV SPEED
```
D. V-NAV SPEED
215
```
9. During a V-NAV level-off, the _____________ maintains speed and the autopilot pitch maintains V-NAV PATH.
A. autopilot
B. autothrottle
C. automatic
D. autofeather
```
B. autothrottle
216
10. To accomplish speed intervention, push the IAS/MACH selector. This displays the current V-NAV target speed.
Rotating the ___________ increases or decreases the target speed without disengaging V-NAV.
A. IAS/MACH selector
B. TAS/MACH selector
C. VHS/MACH selector
D. BFG/MACH selector
A. IAS/MACH selector
217
11. A step climb is made by selecting the new cruise altitude and pushing the altitude selector. The airplane begins a
cruise climb at the cruise MACH.
A. True
B. False
A. True
218
12. A V-NAV descent automatically begins at the top-of-descent point. During the descent the thrust levers retard to idle
and the autopilot pitch maintains the L-NAV descent path.
A. True
B. False
B. False
219
FMS NAV 3
4. [15.1.11.4] How can one input the present aircraft heading with an IRU in ATT mode?
A. It is accomplished automatically
B. It is accomplished automatically with the HDG REF selector in TRUE
C. Manually entered on the FMS PROGRESS page
D. Manually entered magnetic heading on the CDU POS INIT page, SET IRS HEADING line
D. Manually entered magnetic heading on the CDU POS INIT page, SET IRS HEADING line
220
```
5. [15.1.11.5] How are VOR radios tuned?
A. Automatically only by the FMC
B. Manually only via the CDU
C. Automatically, and/or manually via the CDU NAVRAD page
D. Via the Radio Tuning Panel
```
C. Automatically, and/or manually via the CDU NAVRAD page
221
6. [15.1.11.6] The current position can be entered to update the IRS:
A. At any time on the ground
B. On the ground with the aircraft parked
C. At any time
D. On the ground, or in the air with IRU Selector in ATT
B. On the ground with the aircraft parked
222
```
10. [15.1.11.10] An altitude or speed constraints along the route of flight can be verified by checking if they are present:
A. On the LEGS page in large font
B. On the LEGS page in small font
C. On the RTE page in large font
D. On the RTE page in small font
```
A. On the LEGS page in large font
223
```
13. [15.1.11.13] Where can waypoint speed and/or altitude restrictions be entered into the CDU?
A. PERF INIT page
B. RTE page
C. VNAV CLB or DES pages
D. LEGS page
```
D. LEGS page
224
16. [15.1.11.16] You can manually tune the ILS frequency:
A. Always
B. Except when autopilot is engaged and the localizer or glideslope are captured
C. Never
D. Except when flight director is engaged and the localizer or glideslope are captured
B. Except when autopilot is engaged and the localizer or glideslope are captured
225
```
18. [15.1.11.18] ATC has directed you to fly to the La Guardia VOR 280 radial at 25DME. One would enter this as:
A. LGA25/280
B. LGA/280/25
C. LGA280/25
D. LGA100/25
```
C. LGA280/25
226
```
20. [15.1.11.20] During a VNAV climb what speed is normally commanded by the FMC above the speed transition (SPD
TRANS) altitude?
A. 250 KIAS
B. V2+ 100 KIAS
C. 240 KIAS
D. ECON climb speed
```
D. ECON climb speed
227
```
23. [15.1.11.23] In normal operations, new waypoints can be entered into the CDU using:
A. Waypoint identifiers
B. Latitude and longitude
C. Place/bearing/distance
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
228
```
28. [15.1.11.28] To enter a waypoint defined as N05 12.6' E005 2.5' into the CDU, the entry should be:
A. N0512.6E0052.5
B. N0512.6E00502.5
C. N512.5E52.5
D. N05 12.6 E005 2.5
```
B. N0512.6E00502.5
229
FMS NG QUIZ REV3
1. While descending in VNAV PTH, ATC requests you increase your descent rate because of conflicting traffic. You
should:
Deploy the speed brakes
Change pitch mode from VNAV to FLCH or V/S and adjust descent rate.
Speed intervene by opening and increasing the displayed MCP command speed.
Change pitch mode from VNAV to FLCH or V/S and adjust descent rate.
230
2. The ALTN page of the FMC will display?
The four closest airports to the aircrafts position that have runways greater than 6000’
The alternate airport uploaded from the flight plan.
Any airport that is not in the database
The four closest airports to the aircrafts position that have runways greater than 6000
231
3. Procedurally, ETP airports should be entered on the ALTN page during CDU preflight.
True
False
True
232
4. To enter a speed restriction associated with a waypoint (i.e. 220/), it must be followed by an entered altitude (i.e.
/2200).
True
False
False
233
5. While in descent with VNAV PTH as the pitch mode, ATC requests a slower speed for traffic. When the MCP speed
window is opened to reduce speed;
The pitch mode will change to VNAV SPD
The autothrottle targets the window speed. Speed brakes may be required to stay on path.
The A/T mode changes from SPD to THR REF.
The autothrottle targets the window speed. Speed brakes may be required to stay on path.
234
6. Selecting DIRECT TO on the ALTN Page will?
Turn the aircraft in the shortest distance and proceed direct to the selected airport.
Turn the aircraft in the direction of the departure airport.
Generate a present position holding pattern
Turn the aircraft in the shortest distance and proceed direct to the selected airport
235
7. As part of the Captains cockpit preparation, where can it be verified that all four NAV sources (GPS, LOC, DME, IRS) are
selected ON?
POS REF 3 / 4, and then NAV OPTIONS > 5R
This is not part of the Captains preparation procedure.
I am not sure.
POS REF 3 / 4, and then NAV OPTIONS > 5R
236
9. When should the REF speeds be selected ON, on TAKEOFF REF 1 / 2? Why?
Its Kalitta Air policy not to use this option
Only when the TOGW is greater than 680,000lbs.
At all times, in order to compare QRH REF speeds to entered speeds for reasonableness
At all times, in order to compare QRH REF speeds to entered speeds for reasonableness.
237
10. When would you insert 4000 into the Step Size on the PERF INIT Page?
We don’t use 4,000 at all.
When it’s the FO’s leg.
When flying in a Non-RVSM environment
When flying in a Non-RVSM environment
238
12. On the ALTN Page, what is required to be entered?
Takeoff and Destination only
Takeoff, Destination and one ETP airport.
Destination and both ETP airports (if applicable).
Destination and both ETP airports (if applicable).
239
14. When in VNAV PTH in a descent, what must the pilot select to descend below the path?
Open the MCP speed window
Select a lower altitude on the MCP and push the altitude intervene button
Select a pitch mode other than VNAV
Select a pitch mode other than VNAV
240
17. What action will take place when OVERHEAD on ALTN Page 2 is selected?
Will enter a standard holding pattern over the active waypoint.
Will enter a Non standard holding pattern over the active waypoint.
A direct diversion to the alternate will occur at the selected waypoint.
A direct diversion to the alternate will occur at the selected waypoint.
241
18. Dashes on the V-Speed lines of the TAKEOFF REF Page 1 after a Flap value has been entered indicate?
The PERF INIT was not completed
The FMC cannot generate speeds based on the ZFW, Thrust and Flaps entered into the CDU.
A SID was not properly entered
The FMC cannot generate speeds based on the ZFW, Thrust and Flaps entered into the CDU.
242
19. What will the target speed become if you close the speed window on the MCP while in VNAV descent?
The FMC target speed becomes the lessor of the VNAV profile speed or the MCP window speed.
The target speed will adjust to Flap Up maneuvering speed
The target speed will default to VREF30 +100
The FMC target speed becomes the lessor of the VNAV profile speed or the MCP window speed.
243
20. What will the target speed become if you close the speed window on the MCP while in VNAV descent and the
window speed was slower than the FMC profile speed?
The VNAV speed target becomes a SEL SPD value at the window value and is treated as a constraint speed.
The target speed will adjust to Flap Up maneuvering speed.
The target speed will remain as the commanded speed when the speed window was closed.
The VNAV speed target becomes a SEL SPD value at the window value and is treated as a constraint speed.
244
21. While descending in VNAV PTH, speed window opened (SPD mode), the autothrottle targets what speed?
The autothrottle will disconnect since it cant respect any speed with the speed window open and in VNAV PTH
during a descent.
ECON Cruise speed
The autothrottle targets the window speed instead of the FMC speed.
The autothrottle targets the window speed instead of the FMC speed
245
22. What are Deceleration Profile Points?
Deceleration Profile Points are used to notify crew they are 100nm prior to T/D.
Deceleration Profile Points indicate the point at which the deceleration starts with the new speed target
displayed.
Deceleration Profile Points display when the speed window is selected open due to an assigned speed by ATC.
Deceleration Profile Points indicate the point at which the deceleration starts with the new speed target
displayed.
246
23. What are Flap Speed Profile Points?
Flap Speed Profile Points provide flap retraction when departing with flaps 20 only.
Flap Speed Profile Points provide a predictable, optimal, flyable descent path profile that arrives over the Final
Approach Fix at flaps 20.
Flap Speed Profile Points provide flap retraction when departing with flaps 10 only.
Flap Speed Profile Points provide a predictable, optimal, flyable descent path profile that arrives over the Final
Approach Fix at flaps 20.
247
24. When will the FMC transition to the “On Approach” mode?
Gear down
First approach waypoint is sequenced or flaps are out of up.
Descending through 10,000ft
Gear down
| First approach waypoint is sequenced or flaps are out of up.
248
25. Prior to sequencing the Missed Approach Point, how is the missed approach shown?
The missed approach is shown in Cyan on the ND.
The missed approach is not shown on the ND until TOGA buttons have been pushed
The missed approach is shown in magenta on the ND.
The missed approach is shown in Cyan on the ND.
249
26. If there is a deceleration from cruise speed to descent speed how will this be displayed on the ND?
An initial T/D point will be displayed. After crossing, the A/C will slow to the descent speed and a new T/D will
display showing the actual (“knee”) descent point.
A T/D displays, showing the point where the A/C will begins its descent.
A green circle will be shown displaying the initial deceleration point.
An initial T/D point will be displayed. After crossing, the A/C will slow to the descent speed and a new T/D will
display showing the actual (“knee”) descent point.
250
FUEL
1. The FUEL TO REMAIN Selector, when rotated, selects:
A. Quantity of fuel to be jettisoned
B. Quantity of fuel to remain after jettisoning
C. Quantity of fuel to remain after jettisoning and starts jettisoning
D. Quantity of fuel to remain after jettisoning and arms jettison system
B. Quantity of fuel to remain after jettisoning
251
```
3. Which fuel tanks have both Main and Override pumps?
A. All main tanks
B. Main and reserve tanks 2 & 3
C. Main tanks 1 & 4
D. Main tanks 2 & 3
```
D. Main tanks 2 & 3
252
```
4. Which EICAS Display shows the jettison time?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Status
D. Fuel Synoptic
```
D. Fuel Synoptic
253
```
5. What is the position of the crossfeed valves during takeoff, with all fuel tanks full?
A. 2 & 3 open, 1 & 4 closed
B. 1 & 4 open, 2 & 3 closed
C. All open
D. All closed
```
B. 1 & 4 open, 2 & 3 closed
254
```
7. With all tanks full during take-off, the center wing tank feeds which engines?
A. Engines 1 & 4
B. Engines 2 & 3
C. All engines
D. All engines and the APU (if on)
```
A. Engines 1 & 4
255
```
9. Where can you find the fuel temperature?
A. Primary EICAS display
B. Status EICAS display
C. Fuel Synoptic EICAS display
D. CDU Performance Initialization pages
```
A. Primary EICAS display
256
```
12. Fuel temperature, displayed on the EICAS, is measured from:
A. Engine 4 fuel control unit
B. Center tank
C. Main tank 3
D. Main tank 1
```
D. Main tank 1
257
15. Your fuel load includes 30,000lbs of fuel in the center wing tank, 5,000lbs of which is needed as ZFW ballast. Your
reaction is:
A. This is not an allowed configuration
B. It is fine
C. It is fine, but only if the fuel scavenge system is deactivated for the flight
D. It is fine, but only on aircraft with the electric scavenge pump system
A. This is not an allowed configuration
258
16. The load master wants you to load 5000lbs of fuel into center wing tank to use as ZFW ballast. Your reaction is:
A. This is not an allowed configuration
B. It is fine
C. It is fine, but only if the fuel scavenge system is deactivated for the flight
D. It is fine, but only on aircraft with the electric scavenge pump system
C. It is fine, but only if the fuel scavenge system is deactivated for the flight
259
18. Operations would like you to ferry an aircraft with 60,000lbs of ramp fuel. Your reaction is:
A. This is not allowed – 60,000lbs being less than minimum ramp fuel
B. It is fine
C. It is fine, as long as you have management approval
D. It is fine, but only if there is no fuel available for purchase
C. It is fine, as long as you have management approval
260
HAZMAT
1. Packages identified as Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) unless exempt must be loaded in the main cabin of the aircraft in a
position which is accessible to the crew inflight
True
261
2. Aircraft spares shipped as COMAT which is determined to be hazardous must be prepared for shipment in accordance
with the applicable regulations for those materials, with the exception of those materials specifically excepted in 49 CFR
Part 175.10.
True
262
3. An incident involving dangerous goods in which a person is injured and requires hospitalization must be reported as
soon as practical, but no later than 12 hours after the occurrence of the incident.
True
263
4. What emergency response information is required on board the aircraft when we are carrying hazardous materials?
ICAO Emergency Response Guidance For Aircraft Incidents Involving Dangerous Goods
North American (or USDOT) Emergency Response Guidebook
DOT 49 CFR Part 175.10
All of the above
All of the above
264
```
5. Loading compatibility and minimum separation distance charts can be found in:
49 CFR, part 175
USPS 4790.33
PIXAR HazMan 2203345.223
MS 1347.66
```
49 CFR, part 175
265
6. May the crew or passengers bring any form of hazardous material aboard the aircraft for carriage in either the belly
compartments or the cabin area?
Only if its non-poisonous
No
Yes, with no restrictions
Only if it’s excepted (and therefore allowed) by either DOT 49 CFR Part 175.10 or ICAO/IATA
Only if it’s excepted (and therefore allowed) by either DOT 49 CFR Part 175.10 or ICAO/IATA
266
7. The pilot in command must be provided with complete information as to the nature, quantity and location of all the
hazardous materials loaded on the aircraft.
True
False
True
267
```
8. Which of the following materials require a Transport Index (T.I.) on the label?
Class 1 All
Class 7 II and III
ALL Class 9 and ORM-D
Only certain class 6 biologicals
```
Class 7 II and III
268
```
9. The maximum allowable TI aboard the aircraft is:
50
75
100
200
```
200
269
10. A NOTOC (notice to pilot in command) is NOT required when the HAZMAT is being shipped as Company Materials.
True
Fals
False
270
```
HYDRAULICS
1. Which hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel and body gear steering?
A. System 1
B. System 2
C. System 3
D. System 4
```
A. System 1
271
```
3. Hydraulic fluid quantity is displayed in:
A. Litres
B. Gallons
C. Hundreds of gallons (x100 gal)
D. Percentage of normal service level
```
D. Percentage of normal service level
272
4. Which hydraulic systems power the trailing edge flaps?
A. 2 and 3.
B. 1 and 4.
C. 1 and 4, backed up by systems 2 and 3.
D. 2 and 3, backed up by systems 1 and 4.
B. 1 and 4.
273
```
6. Of the following, what systems are powered by hydraulic system one?
A. Wing gear actuation.
B. Nose and body gear actuation.
C. Normal brakes.
D. None of the above
```
B. Nose and body gear actuation
274
8. When is the Auxiliary hydraulic pump be available?
A. Only on the ground
B. Only in flight
C. Any time AC power has been established
D. Only when the APU is running
A. Only on the ground
275
9. With a DEMAND Pump Selector 'ON', the associated pump will run:
A. When the engine driven pump output is low
B. Continuously
C. When the related fuel control switch is in CUTOFF
D. Both A and C are correct
B. Continuously
276
10. The hydraulic system 3 demand pump is driven:
A. Electrically
B. Pneumatically
C. Engine driven
D. Electrically via the ground handling bus
A. Electrically
277
```
11. Hydraulic system 4 powers, among other items, the:
A. Outboard trailing edge flaps
B. Leading edge flaps
C. Left outboard elevator
D. Inboard trailing edge flaps
```
A. Outboard trailing edge flaps
278
```
12. The HYD SYS FAULT light on the overhead panel illuminates due to:
A. Engine driven pump overspeed
B. Demand pump failure
C. Low hydraulic fluid temperature
D. Low hydraulic system pressure
```
D. Low hydraulic system pressure
279
13. The auxiliary pump on hydraulic system 4 is driven:
A. Electrically
B. Pneumatically
C. Engine driven
D. Electrically via the ground handling bus
D. Electrically via the ground handling bus
280
14. The auxiliary pump on hydraulic system 1 (if installed):
A. Can run at the same time as the hydraulic system 1 demand pump
B. Will turn off automatically once the engine driven pump provides system pressure
C. Can provide hydraulic pressure at any time
D. Can provide hydraulic pressure only on the ground
D. Can provide hydraulic pressure only on the ground
281
15. The engine driven pump on hydraulic system 1 should run when:
A. Engine 1 is rotating
B. Engine 1 fuel control switch is in RUN
C. System 1 demand pump output is low
D. Engine 1 fire switch is pulled
A. Engine 1 is rotating
282
17. With respect hydraulic system operation (all switches in normal flight positions), placing the engine fuel control
switch to CUTOFF will:
A. Start the associated demand pump
B. Start the associated auxiliary pump
C. Depressurize the associated engine driven pump
D. Both A and C are correct
A. Start the associated demand pump
283
```
18. During preflight, the desired system #3 minimum hydraulic quantity is?
A. .90
B. .85
C. .80
D. .75
```
C. .80
284
20. An illuminated demand pump PRESS light may indicate:
A. The associated auxiliary pump is running and pressure is normal
B. The associated demand pump is running and pressure is normal
C. An associated engine driven pump failure
D. None of the above
A. The associated auxiliary pump is running and pressure is normal
285
ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
1. Selecting Nacelle Anti-Ice ON:
A. Does not turn on the engine ignition; ignition must be turned on separately
B. Turns on engine ignition system determined by EEC and Auto Ignition selector
C. Turns on engine ignition system 1
D. Turns on engine ignition system 2
B. Turns on engine ignition system determined by EEC and Auto Ignition selector
286
2. In icing conditions on the ground, what are the engine run-up requirements?
A. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
B. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 15 min, and before starting takeoff roll
C. 70% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
D. 70% N1, for 30 sec every 15 min, and before starting takeoff roll
A. 60% N1, for 30 sec every 30 min, and before starting takeoff roll
287
3. With the Window Heat switches ON, electric heating is provided to:
A. All flight deck windows
B. All flight deck windows except the aft side windows
C. Only the forward windows
D. Any flight deck windows as determined by system logic
C. Only the forward windows
288
5. The EICAS advisory message “NAI VALVE 1” indicates that:
A. Icing conditions exist and engine 1 anti-ice valve is closed
B. Engine 1 anti-ice valve is not in commanded position
C. Engine 1 anti-ice valve is open
D. Engine 1 anti ice valve is closed
B. Engine 1 anti-ice valve is not in commanded position
289
7. With Nacelle Anti-Ice Switches in AUTO (on aircraft so equipped):
A. Nacelle anti-ice will be provided automatically whenever TAT is at or below 10C
B. Nacelle anti-ice will be provided automatically when needed on the ground and in flight
C. There is no need to use the ON position unless the auto system fails
D. Nacelle anti-ice will be provided automatically in flight when icing detectors sense ice formation
D. Nacelle anti-ice will be provided automatically in flight when icing detectors sense ice formation
290
9. Which portions of the airframe are heated when the Wing Anti-Ice switch is placed ON?
A. Wing leading edges
B. Wing leading edges and horizontal stabilizer
C. Wing leading edges, horizontal and vertical stabilizer
D. Wing leading edges, horizontal and vertical stabilizer, engine inlets
A. Wing leading edges
291
10. Which of the following weather conditions would require the use of engine anti-ice on the ground?
A. METAR EHAM 091525Z 06005KT 9999 RA FEW004 SCT005 BKN006 05/04 Q0998
B. METAR COR EGLL 091520Z 31004KT 7000 BKN010 07/04 Q1003 NOSIG
C. METAR KJFK 091451Z 35013KT 2SM 6/M06 A3027
D. METAR EDDL 091520Z 26007KT 4000 –RADZ FEW006 BKN008 11/08 Q0999
A. METAR EHAM 091525Z 06005KT 9999 RA FEW004 SCT005 BKN006 05/04 Q0998
292
11. Which of the following weather conditions would require use of engine anti-ice on the ground?
A. METAR KEWR 121251Z 10015KT 3/4SM –RA BKN012 OVC023 11/09 A2989
B. METAR OAIX 121225Z 03005KT 1 1/4SM BKN003 10/07 A3002
C. METAR CYQX 121230Z 28012KT 3500 –RA 09/06 A3041
D. METAR GATB 121255Z 16012 CAVOK 08/05 Q1012
C. METAR CYQX 121230Z 28012KT 3500 –RA 09/06 A3041
293
12. Which of the following weather conditions would require use of engine anti-ice on the ground?
A. METAR EDDP 222225Z 18015KT 2300 –DZ BKN003 11/09 Q1003
B. METAR KSFO 222153Z 28012KT 1SM BR BKN005 OVC010 10/07 A2995
C. METAR UHHH 222230Z 06003MPS 5000 SCT120 09/06 Q998 QFE746/0994
D. METAR KLAX 222151Z 26005KT 10SM BKN030 08/05 A3012
B. METAR KSFO 222153Z 28012KT 1SM BR BKN005 OVC010 10/07 A2995
294
```
14. What is the maximum depth of dry snow on a runway for landing?
A. 1/4 in.
B. 1/2 in.
C. 1.0 in.
D. 4.0 in
```
D. 4.0 in.
295
ILS PRM
1. When conducting closely spaced PRM approaches, the secondary monitor frequency is:
A. Always used by the pilot to transmit to ATC.
B. Sometimes used by the pilot to transmit to ATC.
C. Only used by the pilot to monitor ATC.
C. Only used by the pilot to monitor ATC.
296
2. Pilots may fly the ILS PRM approach:
A. By hand or using the autopilot, but the breakout must always be hand flown.
B. Only using the autopilot, but the breakout must be hand flown.
C. Only be hand flown throughout.
A. By hand or using the autopilot, but the breakout must always be hand flown
297
3. You briefed the ILS PRM approach and as ATC vectors your aircraft onto final, you are informed that ILS PRM
approaches are no longer in use, expect the standard ILS approach. You should:
A. Ask for a delaying vector in order to find and brief the standard ILS approach.
B. Ask for a clearance to your alternate.
C. Continue the ILS PRM approach because, having briefed the ILS PRM approach, you have also completed the
requirements to conduct the standard ILS approach
C. Continue the ILS PRM approach because, having briefed the ILS PRM approach, you have also completed the
requirements to conduct the standard ILS approach.
298
4. Following the monitor controller’s turn instruction while complying with a TCAS RA:
A. Is forbidden by FAA regulation.
B. Provides greater margins of safety.
C. Is at the pilot’s discretion
B. Provides greater margins of safety.
299
5. As you approach the airport, you determine that you only have one operative communications receiver and your ILS
glidepath receiver is not working:
A. You cannot execute the ILS PRM approach.
B. You can execute the ILS PRM approach.
C. You can execute the ILS PRM approach, but only if ATC provides altitude information along the final approach
course.
A. You cannot execute the ILS PRM approach
300
6. In a SOIA procedure (simultaneous ILS PRM and LDA PRM approaches), the course separation rather than the runway
separation:
A. Meets FAA criteria for widely spaced approaches
B. Meets FAA criteria for closely spaced (PRM) approaches.
C. Does not comply with either widely or closely spaced FAA criteria
B. Meets FAA criteria for closely spaced (PRM) approaches.
301
7. The SOIA LDA PRM procedure can be thought of as:
A. An instrument approach with a visual segment.
B. An instrument approach.
C. A visual approach.
A. An instrument approach with a visual segment
302
8. When conducting SOIA simultaneous ILS PRM and LDA PRM approaches, aircraft are paired. Prior to reaching the LDA
MAP, the aircraft conducting the LDA PRM approach will always be positioned by ATC:
A. To the rear of the ILS aircraft.
B. Ahead of the ILS aircraft.
C. Either ahead or behind the ILS aircraft
A. To the rear of the ILS aircraft
303
9. If ATC advises the aircraft conducting the LDA PRM approach that there is traffic on the adjacent ILS, the LDA aircraft
can proceed past the LDA MAP for a landing if:
A. The ILS traffic is visually acquired and reported in sight to ATC.
B. Answer (A.) and the runway environment is in sight.
C. Answers (A.), (B.), and ATC acknowledges the traffic-in-sight report.
B. Answer (A.) and the runway environment is in sight
304
10. Between the LDA MAP and the runway threshold, the pilot conducting the LDA PRM approach has the responsibility
to:
A. Keep the ILS aircraft in sight.
B. Provide wake turbulence avoidance, if applicable.
C. Both (A.) and (B.).
C. Both (A.) and (B.).
305
LANDING GEAR
1. Which hydraulic system(s) are used to actuate the landing gear?
A. System 1 for wing gear, System 4 for body and nose gear.
B. System 1 for body and nose gear, System 4 for wing gear.
C. System 1 for body gear, System 4 for wing and nose gear
D. System 1 for body and nose gear, system 4 for wing gear and system 3 for gear doors
B. System 1 for body and nose gear, System 4 for wing gear
306
```
4. What hydraulic system(s) power the normal braking system?
A. System 1
B. System 4
C. Systems 4, 1, and 2
D. Systems 1 and 2
```
B. System 4
307
6. What happens if both tiller and rudder pedals are operated simultaneously?
A. Captain’s tiller overrides rudder inputs
B. Both tiller inputs override rudder inputs
C. Rudder pedal inputs override tiller inputs
D. Inputs are combined
B. Both tiller inputs override rudder inputs
308
```
7. Unless disarmed by a pilot or a system malfunction, autobrakes will provide braking until the aircraft speed decreases
to:
A. 30 knots
B. 20 knots
C. 10 knots
D. Full stop
```
D. Full stop
309
9. When the autobrakes are active, which of the following will NOT cause them to disarm immediately?
A. Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure
B. Autobrakes selector moved from '3' to '4'
C. Normal antiskid system fault
D. Autobrakes selector moved to OFF
B. Autobrakes selector moved from '3' to '4'
310
```
11. What hydraulic system(s) power the alternate brake system?
A. System 1
B. System 4
C. Systems 4, 1, and 2
D. Systems 1 and 2
```
D. Systems 1 and 2
311
```
12. Loss of which hydraulic system(s) will cause the Brake Source Light to illuminate?
A. System 1
B. System 4
C. Systems 4, 1, and 2
D. Systems 1 and 2
```
C. Systems 4, 1, and 2
312
```
13. Maximum airspeed to retract a landing gear of a B747-400:
A. 250 KIAS
B. 260 KIAS
C. 270 KIAS
D. 320 KIAS
```
C. 270 KIAS
313
```
14. Maximum airspeed to operate a B747-400 with landing gear extended:
A. 250 KIAS
B. 260 KIAS
C. 270 KIAS
D. 320 KIAS
```
D. 320 KIAS
314
16. Body gear steering is activated after landing when:
A. The flap selector is placed to UP
B. Air/Ground Sensing System places the aircraft in ground mode
C. Ground speed decreases through 20 kts
D. Ground speed decreases through 15 kts
D. Ground speed decreases through 15 kts
315
```
LIMITATIONS
1. The batteries for the emergency lighting system are charged by the:
A. AC buses
B. Main battery charger
C. APU battery charger
D. DC bus 4
```
D. DC bus 4
316
2. How many supernumeraries are we authorized to carry on the upper deck?
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and 4-ERF)
B. 8 - BCF and 4 - ERF
C. 10 - BCF and 6 - ERF
D. 12 - BCF and 8 - ERF
A. Up to 20, but no more than number of seats installed (usually 8- BCF and 4-ERF)
317
```
3. The supernumerary oxygen system provides _____ minutes of oxygen at a cabin altitude of ______ feet.
A. 60, 25,000
B. 120, 45,100
C. 195, 25,000
D. 195, 10,000
```
C. 195, 25,000
318
```
5. What is the MGLW of the B747-400BCF aircraft?
A. 670,000 lbs
B. 653,000 lbs
C. 652,000 lbs
D. 630,000 lbs
```
C. 652,000 lbs
319
```
6. The PBE has a maximum duration of:
A. 5 min
B. 10 min
C. 15 min
D. 20 min
```
C. 15 min
320
```
8. With the main deck cargo door open, what is the wind limit?
A. 45 knots
B. 60 knots
C. 65 knots
D. 40 knots
```
C. 65 knots
321
```
9. To open or close the main deck cargo door, what is the wind limit?
A. 45 knots
B. 60 knots
C. 65 knots
D. 40 knots
```
D. 40 knots
322
```
10. What color of the PBE paper indicator signifies a failed vacuum seal, requiring the unit to be replaced?
A. Pink
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. White
```
A. Pink
323
```
12. What is the narrowest taxiway on which you can attempt to taxi a B747-400?
A. 35'
B. 40'
C. 50'
D. 60'
```
B. 40'
324
13. What turns ON the Emergency Lighting system?
A. Positioning the flight deck EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch to ON
B. Loss of DC power when the system is armed
C. Pressing the upper deck EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch
D. All of the above answers are correct
D. All of the above answers are correct
325
```
WARNINGS
1. __________________ is defined as a sudden change of wind velocity and/or direction.
Microburst
Windshear
Squall Front
Expansive dispersion of quandry gasses
```
Windshear
326
```
2. Windshear conditions usually are associated with the following weather situations:
Jet streams
Microbursts
Frontal surfaces
All of the above
```
All of the above
327
3. The windshear warning is generated whenever the energy level of the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.
True
False
True
328
4. The PWS uses the Doppler capability of the weather radar to detect the presence of low altitude horizontal wind flow
and to predict the presence of one or more windshear occurrences. The system operates only below ______ feet RA
1
10
2300
75
2300
329
5. All caution and warning alerts are inhibited above 1200 feet AGL.
True
Flase
True
