CCF,antiarrhythmias,ischemic heart disease Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

How does heart failure occur,name four underlying causes of it,what are the cardinal symptoms of heart failure

HF, there is a decrease in C.O & Increased sympathetic activity
True or false

A

In ability of the heart to maintain C.O. sufficient to meet the metabolic needs of the body during excercise and ultimately at rest whilst maintaining a normal filling pressure .Its car- dinal symptoms are dyspnea, fatigue, and fluid retention.

HF is due to an impaired ability of the heart to adequately fill with and/or eject blood. It is often accompanied by abnormal increases in blood volume and intersti- tial fluid.
In heart failure there inadequate cardiac output due to systemic vasoconstriction and this occurs due to the RAAS and can also be caused due to the sympathetic nervous system specifically norepinephrine
In the end there’s decreased blood flow to the vital organs,kidneys,skin ,GIT and the cycle continues

Underlying causes of HF include arteriosclerotic heart disease, myocardial infarction, hypertensive heart disease, valvular heart disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and congenital heart disease.

True

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2
Q

What ar the goals in treating heart failure and state the seven classes of drugs used to treat it

A

Goals of treatment are to alleviate symptoms, slow disease pro- gression, and improve survival. HF: reduced myocardial work load, decreased extracellular fluid volume, improved cardiac contractility, and a reduced rate of cardiac remodeling,improve cardiac performance,reduce arrhythmias,maintain adequate renal function and electrolyte balance

Accordingly, seven classes of drugs have been shown to be effective: 1) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, 2) angiotensin-receptor blockers, 3) aldosterone antagonists, 4) β-blockers, 5) diuretics, 6) direct vaso- and venodilators, and 7) inotropic agents (Fi

Or

Diuretics⇒ Mainly Loop diuretics and thiazides

2) Neuro endocrine antagonists:- A.C.E.Inhibitors, Ag II antagonist, Aldosterone antagonists, β-Adrenoceptor antagonist.
3) Positive ionotropic agents : Cardiac glycosides, 1-adrenoceptor agonists,Phosphodiesterase inhibitors.
4) Vasodilators: Organic nitrates, hydrallazine, sodium nitroprusside and α-adrenoceptor antagonists

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3
Q

What’s the the compensatory physiological mechanism of the body in response to heart failure

When there is increased pressure in the heart at end systolic and diastolic due to more blood being left in the heart at the end systole or diastole , it causes increased pressure backwards to pulmonary circulation causing increased fluid shift from capillaries to interstitium and alveoli causing pulmonary edema true or false

A

Increased sympathetic activity: Baroreceptors sense a decrease in blood pressure and activate the sympathetic nervous system. In an attempt to sustain tissue perfusion, this stimulation of β-adrenergic receptors results in an increased heart rate and a greater force of contraction of the heart muscle. In addition, vaso- constriction enhances venous return and increases cardiac pre- load. An increase in preload (stretch on the heart) increases stroke volume, which, in turn, increases cardiac output. These compen- satory responses increase the work of the heart, which, in the long term, contributes to further decline in cardiac function.

  1. Activation of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system: A fall in cardiac output decreases blood flow to the kidney, prompt- ing the release of renin, and resulting in increased formation of angiotensin II and release of aldosterone. This results in increased peripheral resistance (afterload) and retention of sodium and water. Blood volume increases, and more blood is returned to the heart. If the heart is unable to pump this extra volume, venous pressure increases and peripheral and pulmonary edema occur. Again, these compensatory responses increase the work of the heart, contributing to further decline in cardiac function.
  2. Myocardial hypertrophy: The heart increases in size, and the chambers dilate and become more globular. Initially, stretching of the heart muscle leads to a stronger contraction of the heart. However, excessive elongation of the fibers results in weaker con- tractions, and the geometry diminishes the ability to eject blood.

True

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4
Q

What will cause the ventricles not to fill properly ,what causes diastolic heart failure and systolic heart failure

A

excessive elongation of the fibers results in weaker con- tractions, and the geometry diminishes the ability to eject blood. This type of failure is termed “systolic failure” or HF with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and is the result of the ventricle being unable to pump effectively. Less commonly, patients with HF may have “diastolic dysfunction,” a term applied when the ability of the ventricles to relax and accept blood is impaired by structural changes such as hypertrophy.The thickening of the ventricular wall and subsequent decrease in ventricular volume decrease the abil- ity of heart muscle to relax. In this case, the ventricle does not fill adequately, and the inadequacy of cardiac output is termed “dia- stolic HF” or HF with preserved ejection fraction.

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5
Q

State the signs and symptoms of HF

If the adaptive mechanisms adequately restore cardiac output, HF is said to be compensated. If the adaptive mechanisms fail to main- tain cardiac output, HF is decompensated and the patient develops worsening HF signs and symptoms. True or false

A

Typical HF signs and symptoms include dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dys- pnea, fatigue, and peripheral edema.

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6
Q

3.What drugs worsen HF, and 1.how is HF managed and 2.when are ionotropic agents used in Hf

A

Chronic HF is typically managed by fluid limitations (less than 1.5 to 2 L daily)
low dietary intake of sodium (less than 2000 mg/d);
treat- ment of comorbid conditions;
Judicious use of diuretics, inhibitors of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, and inhibitors of the sympathetic nervous system.

Inotropic agents are reserved for acute HF signs and symptoms in mostly the inpatient setting.

Drugs that may precipitate or exacerbate HF, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), alcohol, nondihydropyridine calcium channel block- ers, and some antiarrhythmic drugs, should be avoided if possible.

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7
Q

How does Hf cause the activation of the RAAS system

A

renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system via two mechanisms: 1) increased renin release by juxtaglomerular cells in renal afferent arterioles due to diminished renal perfusion pressure produced by the failing heart and this causes the activation of RAAS causing water and sodium retention by aldosterone
and 2) renin release by juxtaglomerular cells promoted by sympathetic stimulation and activation of β receptors

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8
Q

State the mechanism of action,actions on the heart,indications,rite of administration,which ACE inhibitor must be taken on an empty stomach and is not a prodrug and adverse effects of ACE inhibitors

The potential for symptom- atic hypotension with ACE inhibitors is much more common if used concomitantly with a diuretic. ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and should not be used in pregnant women. True or false

A

These drugs block the enzyme that cleaves angiotensin I to form the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. They also diminish the inactivation of bradykinin (Figure 19.5). Vasodilation occurs as a result of decreased levels of the vasocon- strictor angiotensin II and increased levels of bradykinin (a potent vasodilator). By reducing angiotensin II levels, ACE inhibitors also decrease the secretion of aldosterone.

  1. Actions on the heart: ACE inhibitors decrease vascular resis- tance (afterload) and venous tone (preload), resulting in increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors also blunt the usual angiotensin II–mediated increase in epinephrine and aldosterone seen in HF. ACE inhibitors improve clinical signs and symptoms of HF and have been shown to significantly improve patient survival in HF
  2. Indications: ACE inhibitors may be considered for patients with asymptomatic and symptomatic HFrEF. Importantly, ACE inhibitors are indicated for patients with all stages of left ventricular failure. Patients with the lowest ejection fraction show the greatest benefit from use of ACE inhibitors. Depending on the severity of HF, ACE inhibitors may be used in combination with diuretics, β-blockers, digoxin, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate fixed-dose combination. Patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or are at high risk for a cardiovascular event also benefit from long-term ACE inhibitor therapy. ACE inhibitors are also used for the treatment of hypertension (see Chapter 17).
  3. Pharmacokinetics: ACE inhibitors are adequately absorbed fol- lowing oral administration. Food may decrease the absorption of captopril [CAP-toe-pril], so it should be taken on an empty stom- ach. Plasma half-lives of active compounds vary from 2 to 12 hours, although the inhibition of ACE may be much longer.
  4. Adverse effects: These include postural hypotension, renal insufficiency, hyperkalemia, a persistent dry cough, and angio- edema (rare),skin rashes,neutropenia Potassium levels must be monitored, particularly with concurrent use of potassium supplements, potassium-sparing diuretics, or aldosterone antagonists due to risk of hyperkalemia. Serum creatinine levels should also be monitored, particularly in patients with underlying renal disease.
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9
Q

Except for captopril, ACE inhibitors are prodrugs that require activation by hydrolysis via hepatic enzymes. Renal elimination of the active moiety is important for most ACE inhibitors except fosinopril [foe-SIH-no-pril].
True or false
Give five examples of ACE inhibitors

A

True

Captopril CAPOTEN 
Enalapril VASOTEC 
Fosinopril MONOPRIL 
Lisinopril PRINIVIL, ZESTRIL 
Quinapril ACCUPRIL 
Ramipril ALTACE
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10
Q

Only reduced aldosterone causes reduced sodium and water retention true or false

Reduced angiotensin 2 and aldosterone by ACe inhibitors causes increased beadykinin levels,decreased output of sympa and vasodilation of the vascular smooth muscle causing reduced preload and afterload on the heart true or false

A

False
Both reduced aldosterone and angiotensin 2 (caused by ACe inhibitors) cause reduced sodium and water retention thereby reducing preload and afterload

True

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11
Q

ARBs(Angiotensin receptor blockers ) cause reduced cough and angioedema that is caused by increased levels of bradykinin true or false

State the mechanism of action of ARBs

ARBs are very similar to ACE inhibitors true or false

Which ARB is given twice daily as opposed to the usual once daily ?

Usually ARBs are highly plasma protein bound which ARB is the exception?
ARBs also have high volume of distribution

Which ARB undergoes extensive first pass metabolism and has an active metabolite ?

ARBs are not contraindicated in pregnancy true or false

Give some examples of ARBs

A

True

The effects on symptoms and haemodynamics in patients with heart failure is similar to that of A.C.E. Inhibitors.

•It has the advantage of being free of cough with A.C.E.Inhibitors. & thus may be used as an alternative to A.C.E. Inhibitors in those who cannot tolerate the cough side effect

Valsartan

Candesartan

Losartan

False

ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKERS
Candesartan ATACAND 
Losartan COZAAR 
Telmisartan MICARDIS 
Valsartan DIOVAN
ALDOSTERONE AN
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12
Q

Give two examples of aldosterone antagonists
State the function of each
Difference between the two examples
And indications of aldosterone antagonists

A

Eplerenone INSPRA Spironolactone ALDACTONE

Spironolactone [spy-ro-no-LAC-tone] is a direct antag- onist of aldosterone, thereby preventing salt retention, myocardial hypertrophy, and hypokalemia. Eplerenone [eh-PLEH-reh-none] is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone at mineralocorticoid receptors.

Although similar in action to spironolactone at the mineralocorticoid receptor, eplerenone has a lower incidence of endocrine-related side effects due to its reduced affinity for glucocorticoid, androgen, and progesterone receptors.

Aldosterone antagonists are indicated in patients with more severe stages of HFrEF or HFrEF and recent myocardial infarction.

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13
Q

State the functions of beta blockers in Hf
State the three beta blockers that are used in Hf
How each of them work

Which of the beta blockers are beta1 selective
Which of the blockers protects against recurrent MI and why
Contraindications of beta blockers in HF

Treatment of beta blockers should be started at low doses and gradually titrated to target doses based on patient tolerance and vital signs.true or false

A

The benefit of β-blockers is attributed, in part, to their ability to prevent the changes that occur because of chronic activation of the sympathetic nervous system. These agents decrease heart rate and inhibit release of renin in the kidneys. In addition, β-blockers prevent the deleterious effects of norepinephrine on the cardiac muscle fibers, decreasing remodeling, hypertrophy, and cell death.

Three β-blockers have shown benefit in HF: bisoprolol [bis-oh-PROE-lol], carvedilol [KAR- ve-dil-ol], and long-acting metoprolol succinate [me-TOE-proe-lol SUK- si-nate] (Figure 19.7).

Carvedilol is a alpha 1 and nonselective β-adrenoreceptor antagonist
Metoprolol succinate
reduces mortality in patients
antagonist that also blocks α-adrenoreceptors, whereas bisoprolol and metoprolol succinate are β1-selective antagonists.β-Blockade is rec- ommended for all patients with chronic, stable HF. Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and metoprolol succinate reduce morbidity and mortality associated with HFrEF.

Carvedilol also has antioxidant properties and thus protects against recurrent MI .

Contraindications
Both carvedilol and metoprolol are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 2D6 isoenzyme, and inhibitors of this metabolic pathway may increase levels of these drugs and increase the risk of adverse effects. In addition, carvedilol is a substrate of P-glycoprotein (P-gp). Increased effects of carvedilol may occur if it is coadministered with P-gp inhibitors. β-Blockers should also be used with caution with other drugs that slow AV conduction, such as amiodarone, verapamil, and diltiazem.

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14
Q

How do diuretics work on HF
WhT kind of diuretics are used in HF

As diuret- ics have not been shown to improve survival in HF, they should only be used to treat signs and symptoms of volume excess.
True or false

Why are loop diuretics given IV during heart failure

Loop diuretics have rapid onset of action and short duration of action.

•Depending on the Patients condition, the loop diuretics may be administered once daily or 2 or 3 times daily to reduce the plasma volume .true or false

Loop diuretics increase the nephrotoxic effect of?

What enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity?

What happens when the loop diuretics are used for a long time w NSAIDs

State the difference between loop and thiazides diuretics

Name two examples of thiazides like diuretics

A

Diuretics decrease plasma volume and, subsequently, decrease venous return to the heart (preload). The mechanism is by decreasing preload and thus reducing circulating blood volume
This decreases cardiac workload and oxygen demand
Diuretics may also decrease afterload by reducing plasma vol- ume, thereby decreasing blood pressure. Loop diuretics are the most commonly used diuretics in HF. .]

True

Both loop and thiazide diuretics are well absorbed after oral administration but in heart failure absorption may be erratic so the loop diuretics are administered by i.v administration.

True

Gentamicin and cephalosporins.

Decreased plasma concentration K+ associated with the potent diuretics enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity.

•Concurrent use with NSAIDS may impair diuresis, provoke hyperkalaemia and renal failure.

They act by inhibiting Na+/K+/Cl_-transporter in the thick ascending segment of the loop of Henle while thiazides They act by inhibiting Na+/Cl- co-transporter in the distal convuluted tuble

Chlorthalidone, indapamide, xipamide & metolazone

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15
Q

Give some examples of vaso and venodilators and how they work in HF

A

Dilation of venous blood vessels leads to a decrease in cardiac preload by increasing venous capacitance. Nitrates are commonly used venous dila- tors to reduce preload for patients with chronic HF. Arterial dilators, such as hydralazine [hye-DRAL-a-zeen] reduce systemic arteriolar resistance and decrease afterload.

Hydralazine APRESOLINE
Isosorbide dinitrate DILATRATE-SR, ISORDIL
FDC (fixed dose combination)Hydralazine/Isosorbide dinitrate BIDIL

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16
Q

If the patient is intolerant of ACE inhibitors or β-blockers, or if additional vasodilator response is required what combination should be done?
Name some adverse effects of this combination

Rarely, hydralazine has been associated with drug-induced lupus.true or false

A

a combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate [eye-soe-SOR-bide dye-NYE-trate] may be used. A fixed-dose combination of these agents has been shown to improve symptoms and survival in black patients with HFrEF on standard HF treatment (β-blocker plus ACE inhibitor or ARB).

Headache, hypoten- sion, and tachycardia are common adverse effects with this combination.

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17
Q

Name some Inotropic agents and how they work

All positive inotropes in HFrEF that increase intracellular calcium concen- tration have been associated with reduced survival, especially in patients with HFrEF due to coronary artery disease. For this reason, these agents, with the exception of digoxin, are only used for a short period mainly in the inpatient setting.true or false

A

Digoxin LANOXIN
Dobutamine DOBUTREX Milrinone PRIMACOR

Positive inotropic agents enhance cardiac contractility and, thus, increase cardiac output. Although these drugs act by different mecha- nisms, the inotropic action is the result of an increased cytoplasmic
calcium concentration that enhances the contractility of cardiac muscle.

True

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18
Q

Name the three classes of inotropic agents used in treating HF

A

Digitalis glycosides
Beta adrenergic agonists
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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19
Q

State the three mechanisms of action of digitalis glycosides,

A

Regulation of cytosolic calcium concentration: By inhibit- ing the Na+/K+-adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme, digoxin reduces the ability of the myocyte to actively pump Na+ from the cell .This decreases the Na+ con- centration gradient and, consequently, the ability of the Na+/ Ca2+-exchanger to move calcium out of the cell. Further, the higher cellular Na+ is exchanged for extracellular Ca2+ by the Na+/Ca2+-exchanger, increasing intracellular Ca2+. A small but physiologically important increase occurs in free Ca2+ that is available at the next contraction cycle of the cardiac muscle, thereby increasing cardiac contractility. When Na+/K+-ATPase is markedly inhibited by digoxin, the resting membrane potential may increase (−70 mV instead of −90 mV), which makes the membrane more excitable, increasing the risk of arrhythmias (toxicity).

b. Increased contractility of the cardiac muscle: Digoxin increases the force of cardiac contraction, causing car- diac output to more closely resemble that of the normal heart (Figure 19.9).Vagal tone is also enhanced, so both heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand decrease. Digoxin slows conduction velocity through the AV node, making it useful for atrial fibrillation. [Note: In the normal heart, the positive inotropic effect of digitalis glycosides is counteracted by compensatory autonomic reflexes.]
c. Neurohormonal inhibition: Although the exact mechanism of this effect has not been elucidated, low-dose digoxin inhibits sympathetic activation with minimal effects on contractility. This effect is the reason a lower serum drug concentration is tar- geted in HFrEF.

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20
Q

State the therapeutic uses or indicators ,route of administration and adverse effects and contraindications of digitalis glycosides

Why does digoxin which is a digitalis glycoside have a large volume of distribution and what does its dosage depend on,when is the loading dose of digoxin used,what is the half life of digoxin

A

Therapeutic uses: Digoxin therapy is indicated in patients with severe HFrEF after initiation of ACE inhibitor, β-blocker, and diuretic therapy. A low serum drug concentration of digoxin (0.5 to 0.8 ng/ mL) is beneficial in HFrEF. At this level, patients may see a reduction in HF admissions, along with improved survival. At higher serum drug concentrations, admissions are prevented, but mortality likely increases. Digoxin is not indicated in patients with diastolic or right- sided HF unless the patient has concomitant atrial fibrillation or flut- ter. Patients with mild to moderate HF often respond to treatment with ACE inhibitors, β-blockers, aldosterone antagonists, direct vaso- and venodilators, and diuretics and may not require digoxin.
3. Pharmacokinetics: Digoxin is available in oral and injectable for- mulations.

  1. Adverse effects: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting may be ini- tial indicators of toxicity. Patients may also experience blurred vision, yellowish vision (xanthopsia), and various cardiac arrhythmias.[

It has a large volume of distribution, because it accumu- lates in muscle. The dosage is based on lean body weight. In acute situations such as symptomatic atrial fibrillation, a loading dose regimen is used. Digoxin has a long half-life of 30 to 40 hours. It is mainly eliminated intact by the kidney, requiring dose adjustment in renal dysfunction.

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21
Q

At low serum drug concentrations, digoxin is fairly well tolerated. However, it has a very narrow therapeutic index, and digoxin toxicity is one of the most common adverse drug reactions leading to hospitalization.
True or false

How is digoxin toxicity managed? What predisposes a patient to digoxin toxicity and why?

Patients receiving thiazide or loop diuretics may be prone to hypokalemia. True or false

A

True

Toxicity can often be managed by discontinuing digoxin, determin- ing serum potassium levels, and, if indicated, replenishing potassium. Decreased levels of serum potassium (hypokalemia) predispose a patient to digoxin toxicity, since digoxin normally competes with potassium for the same binding site on the Na+/K+-ATPase pump.

True

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22
Q

When there is severe digoxin toxicity resulting in ventricular tachycardia what kind of drugs are required to be administered

With the use of a lower serum drug concentration in HFrEF, toxic levels are infrequent. True or false

Digoxin is a substrate of what and name three drugs that inhibit the substrate of digoxin

Digoxin should be used with caution in what kinds of drugs?

A

Severe toxicity resulting in ventricular tachycardia may require administration of antiarrhythmic drugs and the use of antibod- ies to digoxin (digoxin immune Fab), which bind and inactivate the drug.

True

Digoxin is a substrate of P-gp, and inhibi- tors of P-gp, such as clarithromycin, verapamil, and amiodarone, can significantly increase digoxin levels, necessitating a reduced dose of digoxin.

Digoxin should also be used with caution with other drugs that slow AV conduction, such as β-blockers, verapamil, and diltiazem.

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23
Q

Name two beta adrenergic agonists used in HF,their route of administration ,how they work

Which inotropic agent other than digoxin is usually used?

A

β-Adrenergic agonists, such as dobutamine [doe-BYOO-ta-meen] and dopamine [DOH-puh-meen], improve cardiac performance by causing positive inotropic effects and vasodilation. β-Adrenergic agonists lead to an increase in intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which results in the activation of protein kinase. Protein kinase then phosphorylates slow calcium channels, thereby increasing entry of calcium ions into the myocardial cells and enhancing contraction .

Dobutamine is the most commonly used inotropic agent other than digoxin.

Both drugs must be given by intravenous infusion and are primarily used in the short-term treat- ment of acute HF in the hospital setting.

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24
Q

How do phosphodiesterase inhibitors work?
Name one

Long-term, milrinone therapy may be associated with a substantial increased risk of mor- tality.true or false

Short term use of milrinone is associated with increased mortality in patients with a history of what kind of disease

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Milrinone [MIL-rih-nohn] is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP .Like β-adrenergic agonists, this results in an increase of intracellu- lar calcium and, therefore, cardiac contractility.

True

However, short-term use of intravenous milrinone is not associ- ated with increased mortality in patients without a history of coronary artery disease, and some symptomatic benefit may be obtained in patients with refractory HF.

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25
Q

Digoxin, aldosterone antagonists, and fixed-dose hydralazine and isosor- bide dinitrate are initiated in patients who continue to have HF symptoms despite optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and β-blocker.
True or false

A

True

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26
Q

Define cARDIAC ARHYTHMIAS /DYSRHYTHMIAS

State three causes of them

What is the normal heart rate

A

CARDIAC ARHYTHMIAS /DYSRHYTHMIAS
•Cardiac arrhythmias refers to abnormal cardiac rhythms or abnormalities in the rhythmic beating of the heart.

60-100bpm(normal heart rate)
•Is one of the commonest problems in cardiology

•Is commonly associated with IHD’s)ischemic Heart disease)

Arrhythmias may be due:
•Abnormalities in cardiac impulse initiation (i.e abnormal automaticity)/ Impulse conduction.
• Arrhythmogenic agents/drugs
• The effect of antiarrhythmic drugs
•& metabolic disturbances in the body such as hypokalaemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoxia etc
•The majority of clinically important arrhythmias depends on/or results from disorders of impulse conduction

27
Q

Cardiac cells are electrically excitable (they don’t need to wait for impulse to be transmitted,the myocardium itself cns generate its own impulses)what causes this?

What mediates the outward and inward currents

What will cause repolarization

The cardiac muscles are divided into how many cells name them and functions of each

How do these cells work together to cause blood to move to the lungs

A

Like other excitable tissues, transient increase in membrane permeability to Na+ and/or Ca2+ (inward currents) in response to depolarisation is responsible for the excitability of the cardiac muscles.
Potassium mediates the outward currents

When depolarization occurs,action potential can be generated to be transmitted through the cells in the heart

•Repolarisation is as a result of delayed increase in K+ permeability (outward K+ current)

Electrophysiologically, the Cardiac muscles are divided into three distinct types of cells.

a) Tissues with spontaneous pacemaker activity –i.e. Sinoatrial (SA) (produces impulses) & atrioventricular (AV) nodes(delays impulses from SA node for a while)
b) Specialised high velocity conducting tissue – i.e. The His-purkinge network of fibres and bundle of His
c) The working atrial and ventricular muscles.

Impulse generated from SA node is sent from right to left atrium so they pump blood to ventricles . The AV node delays the impulse so all the blood is pumped to the ventricles
After it’s down the AV node transfers the impulse to the bundle of His and it transfers the impulse to the purkinje fibers and when these fibers are excited they cause contraction of the ventricles so blood is ejected to aorta to arteries (ventricular systole) and to the lungs
The ventricular muscles then relaxes, (i.e DIASTOLE) showing as a longer pause before the next beat occurs

28
Q

Abnormalities in the rhythm may result from impulse generation or conduction
True or false

What makes cardiac muscles different from
Other tissues

Drugs used to help w arrhythmia can cause arrhythmia or are arrhythmogenic
True or false

A

1.The spontaneous intrinsic rhythm generated by the specialized pace maker cells (SA & AV nodal cells)
Sometimes AV nodes can generate the impulses when the SA node isn’t working properly
b) Absence of fast Na+ current in the nodal cells (SA & AV)
c) The long duration of action potential and long refractory period
d) The large influx of Ca2+ ions during the plateau of the action potential

True

29
Q

What ions are needed in impulse generation

What cells are responsible fo diastolic depolarization

Action potential of SA node has three phases(4,0,3) true or false

How do the nodal cells work

How do cells of atrium and ventricles work(they have five phases),bundle of His and all

A

Calcium,sodium,potassium

The pace maker cells (mainly the SA node) is responsible for diastolic depolarization.

True

As the cell is there sodium is entering so from -60 when more sodium enters cell it gets to -40 and that’s where the threshold is and calcium channels will open causing influx of calcium causing a sharp rise and it’ll bring it +10 and that’s where depolarization happens
When it’s done,potassium gate opens and potassium gets out for repolarization to occur
The internal environment becomes more positive but then the potassium channel opens and potassium moves inside so the positivity decreases until it gets to a resting membrane potential

Cells of the atrium and ventricles go through four phases
At the resting membrane potassium gets out of the cell slowly but when an impulse comes form nodal cells that’s when sodium channels open and quickly there’s a sharp rise and that’s phase zero and when it bring to 40 at this point depolarization has taken place
At this point transiently potassium channels open for it to leave small small for a short time bringing it down then calcium channels open so calcium moves in potassium moves out and that’s the plateau phase then it gets to repolarization stage where there’s only potassium entering and potassium brings it back to 4

30
Q

the action potential and conduction velocity is much faster in the HIS-PURKINGE, the ATRIAL and VENTRICULAR fibres than that in the nodal fibres, why?

The atrial and ventricular fibres have no automaticity & that of the His-Purkinge network is slow true or false

➢what accounts for the short pause between the atrial and ventricular contraction.

A

The action potential and depolarization in the nodal cells (SA & AV nodes) are dependant on slow inward Ca2+ current.
But in the other kinds of cells,it’s not only calcium,they’re dependent on more of inward sodium as well for the action potential and depolarization

True

Conduction of cardiac impulse in the AV node is slow and that’s what accounts for it

31
Q

Explain the P wave,P-Q,QSR complex and T wave

Whilst the P & QRS waves are depolarisation waves, the T wave is a repolarisation wave true or false

A

P wave/
Depolarization of SA node and time takes to transfer to the atrium. The P wave represent the spread of cardiac excitation from the S.A.node over the atrial muscles leading to Atrial systole

P-Q, The P–Q interval represents the propagation of the contraction wave down the bundle of His. It does not produce any detectable electrical changes (i.e. flat wave or isoelectric)

QRS-time for impulse to move from bundle of His to branches to the purkinje fibers to when ventricles contract and send blood to other parts. The QRS complex, denotes the beginning of ventricular excitation and ventricular systole

S-T; The ST wave represents Ventricular relaxation (Also isoelectric)

T-when ventricles relax after sending the blood .The T-wave is caused by currents generated, as the ventricles recover from a state of depolarization.

32
Q

Explain four Mechanisms of arrhythmias

Give an example of a drug that act predominantly on arrhythmias arising in the ventricles
An example of a drug that acts on nodal cells
And which drug acts on both atrial and ventricular muscles

A

1.Delayed after depolarization: This triggers ectopic beats.(signals are generated from other places )

2.Re-entry’ phenomenon:- This occurs when an advancing wave of depolarization finds one pathway temporarily inexcitable or refractory due to acute ischaemia, or prior ischaemic damage. (Partial conduction block)
Impulses are sent to the purkinje fibers and there’s supposed to be contraction of ventricles for the blood to get out to the other parts and a new impulse is generation
But when it gets to the fibers and the contraction hasn’t taken place and there’s a delay, the impulses are transferred back to the SA node and there’ll be that cycle causing re entry. Blood won’t be pumped and there’s and initiation of another impulse. Blood isn’t getting out

3.Abnormal automaticity or ectopic pacemaker activity
Pacemaker is supposed to wait for one full cycle but if it doesn’t wait and it’s starts a new impulse when the other one hasn’t ended it causes abnormal rhythm
●This is encouraged by increased sympathetic activity.
● It may also be due to digitalis toxicity.

4) Heart block
●This results from damage to the AV node or the ventricular conducting system

Lignocaine
Verapamil
Disopyramide

33
Q

According to Vaughan Williams classification how many classes of drugs are used to treat arrhythmia and state them

A
Four classes
Class I (a,b,c)(they act on sodium channels)
II
III
IV
34
Q

How do class 1 drugs work

How do class 1a drugs work(can be used in someone w tachycardia)
Give three examples 
How do 1b drugs work
Give three Examples 
State two difference between a and b
How do 1c work
Give three examples 

Which drug Exerts its most powerful effect by slowing intracardiac conduction, and widening the QRS complex.

Which drug is in class 1 and also has minor beta blocking and calcium antagonist properties

Which drug causes a shift depolarization period to the right causing a longer time for everything to come to the resting potential?

A

These interfere with or block voltage sensitive sodium channels, resulting in slowing of cardiac conduction, & increase in refractory period or both.
Thus Class 1 drugs cause reduction in the excitability of the non-nodal regions of the heart where rapid Na+ current is important for propagation of action potential. (i.e. has a membrane stabilising effect).

A. Lengthens action potential duration moderately,
Causes minor slowing of intra cardiac conduction and widening of the QRS complex in therapeutic concentrations.

•Examples include Quinidine, Procainamide and disopyramide.

B. Shortens action potential duration(so can be used in bradychardia)
•Has no effect on intra cardiac conduction or the QRS complex in sinus rhythm.
•E.g. Lignocaine,torcainide Phenytoin, mexiletine etc.

C. No effect on action potential duration,
•Exerts its most powerful effect by slowing intracardiac conduction, and widening the QRS complex. (Can also be used in tachycardia cuz it slows down heart beat)
•Examples include Flecainide, Encainide & propafenone

1c

Propafenone

1a drugs do that

35
Q

How do class II drugs work and give five examples

Class II drugs can also act competitively as beta blockers true or false and why

Which class II drug acts by non-competitive adrenoceptor antagonism

Which class II drug acts by inhibition of noradrenaline release at sympathetic nerve terminals

A

They decrease the arrythmogenic effects of cathecolamines such as adrenaline, noradrenaline, etc.
They act on nodal cells . Beta blockers are useful drugs in arrhythmias provoked by increased sympathetic activity.
I’m Examples include metoprolol, Atenolol, Propranolol, Satolol, Acebutolol, esmolol, labetalol

Catecholamines increase heart rate by acting on beta1 receptors
If they’re decreased by these drugs then that’s how the act as beta blockers

Amiodarone

Bretylium

36
Q
How do class III drugs work and give two examples of class III drugs that have class II properties 
State the difference between Class Ia and class III drugs 

Which drug prolongs QT interval

Which drug has class 1,2,4 properties

Which classes of drugs are the only ones that acts on nodal cells while the rest acts on the other kinds of cells

Name two other examples of class three drugs

A

lengthen cardiac action potential duration and effective refractory period without interference with the Na+ inward current(but they act on the outward movement of potassium in phase 3)
Class III drugs could cause prolongation of QT interval , detectable clinically on an E.C.G.; Especially in pts taking other drugs that prolongs the QT interval such as Terfenadine.

Bretylium and Satolol

Class 1a act lengthen the thingy by blocking sodium channels and acting on inward movement of sodium

Amiodarone

Class II drugs and class IV

Dronedarone
Dofetilide
Ibutilide

37
Q

How do class four drugs work
Give two examples of these drugs
Why aren’t dihydropiridines used in class four although they’re also calcium channel blockers
Which drugs suppresses premature ectopic beats and are thus useful in blocking supra ventricular tachycardia involving the A.V node?

A

Typically these include the slow Ca2+ channel antagonists/blockers such as Verapamil.
Diltiazem

L type calcium channels
•They act by blocking voltage sensitive Ca2+ channels on the heart cells
The action results in slowed conduction in the SA and AV nodes & Prolongation of refractoriness in the A.V node.
The Ca2+ channel blockers shorten the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential and reduce the force of myocardial contraction

They don’t use the dihydropiridines cuz fhose ones act on the blood vessels so the other calcium channel blockers act directly on the heart so these are used

Class IV drugs

38
Q

What is the use of digoxin as used in arrhythmia,use of adenosine nucleotide,atropine,isoprenaline/adrenaline,calcium salts,magnesium chloride,direct current

A

Digoxin
It slows the heart rate thus could be used in patients with atrial fibrillation & atrial flutter.

2) Adenosine nucleotides
For supraventricular tachycardia

3) Atropine (Muscarinic antagonist)
For sinus bradycardia
Miscarinic receptors on heart counteract effects of beta on heart so if you’re antagonizing the muscarinic receptors on heart then the little sympa will work and only beta1 will work

4) Isoprenaline/adrenaline
For heart block.

5) Ca2+ salts (e.g. CaCl2)
For ventricular tachycardia caused by hyperkalaemia

6) MgCl2
For Ventricular fibrillation
7) Direct current
For emergency treatment of life-threatening arrhythmias such as heart block. Also known as electrical cardioversion or pacing

39
Q

High concentration ofquinidine which is a D isomer of quinine causes what

Name CV side effects of it and GI side effects of it

What happens when quinidine is given w digoxin and verapamil

A

Higher concentrations are associated with decreased myocardial contractility, peripheral vasodilatation & hypotension so it’s rarely used for arrhythmia
But it’s used to treat severe falciparum malaria

could also cause sinoatrial block, progressive QRS and QT prolongation, which may lead to paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia

  • Other side effects that may not be related to the CVsystem include nausea, diarrhoea (G.I.), hepatic dysfunction, thrombocytopenia and cinchonism(myriad of effects associated w quinine)
  • When given concurrently with digoxin, quinidine could raise the plasma levels of digoxin due to decrease clearance.
  • Similar effect has been observed with concurrent administration of quinidine and Verapamil
40
Q

Why isn’t procainamide used

Disopyramide is avoided in which kinds of patients and why
It has cholinergic effects and name three ways those effects manifest as
Clinically what is it used for?

A

Also not very much used clinically because of unpleasant side effects such as QRS and QT prolongation.
•It causes drug-induced lupus erythematosus syndrome

The electrophysiological properties are similar to that of Quinidine.

•It has marked negative ionotropic effect and thus should be avoided in patients with cardiac failure and
It is contraindicated in patients with sick sinus symdrome

  • Its has anticholinergic effects which manifests as urinary retention, blurred vision & glaucoma.
  • QT prolongation occurs with increasing plasma concentrations
  • Clinically disopyramide is used for atrial and ventricular arrythmias that are resistant to lignocaine.
41
Q

What is lignocaine used to treat

Name three side effects on lignocaine

A

Used clinically to treat or prevent ventricular arrhythmias following myocardial infarction and surgery in coronary intensive care units.
•Also widely used as a local anaesthetic agent

•Central side effects include drowsiness, disorientation, convulsion

42
Q

Amiodarone suppresses both atrial and ventricular re-entrant arrhythmias
•True or false
Where does amiodarone accumulate
•and give three side effects

Due to its accumulating effect , chronic amiodarone therapy should only be used when?

Amiodarone potentiates effects of which drugs

A

It has an extremely long t1/2 and accumulates considerably in muscles and fats
•Side effects include photosensitive skin rashes &
thyroid abnormalities

in life threatening or severely disabling arrhythmias & when conventional drugs have been shown to be ineffective

Amiodarone potentiates the effect of warfarin & also increases plasma digoxin levels;
•Dose reduction may be necessary if there is the need to use the above mentioned drugs together with Amiodarone.

43
Q

Verapamil is not effective for ventricular arrhythmias
• The systemic bioavailability is about 10 to 20% after oral administration
True or false

State three uses of verapamil

Why is is contraindicated in patients w heart block and heart failure

Verapamil and Diltiazem also potentiates the negative effects of which drugs

The dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel antagonists do not interfere significantly with A.V. nodal conduction,
hence has no anti arrhythmic actiontrue or false

How is verapagiven to terminate supraventricular tachycardia?

A

decreases AV conduction and blocks intranodal re-entry circuits.

  • It is used to terminate or prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)(tachycardia resulting from after the ventricles contract )
  • & to reduce ventricular rate in patients with atrial fibrillation(irregular rhythm in atrium)who are not adequately controlled with digoxin.

It’s given IV in this case

Verapamil has depressant effect on SA. node automaticity and A.V nodal conduction,
•It is therefore contra-indicated in patients with heart block or SA nodal disease.
•Verapamil is contra-indicated in heart failure, due to its severe negative ionotropic effect

digoxin and blockers on AV nodal conduction. (Potentially serious or fatal interaction)

44
Q

What are cardiac glycosides used for and give two examples

Name four used of it and how it works

A

They have been in clinical use for many centuries and are still useful for cardiac failure particularly that associated with atrial fibrillation.

Digoxin, Digitoxin & Ouabin)

Has effect on the rate, & rhythm
& also on the force of myocardial contractility

  • The CG’s decreases ventricular rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter; by slowing A.V. conduction as a result of vagal stimulation.
  • The effect of the CG’s diminishes on exercise due to withdrawal of the underlying vagal tone
  • The CG’s also increase the force of myocardial contratility (i.e +ve ionotropic effect) , which may be beneficial in patients with heart failure

CG’s cause increased myocardial automaticity (↑ sed ectopic pacemaker activity) at high concentrations or even at therapeutic concentrations in the presence of hypokalaemia

•The mechanism of action involve increased vagal activity & inhibition of Na+ /K+ ATPase activity (Na pump)

45
Q

Name six side effects of cardiac glycosides

A

Sinus bradycardia

  • Various degrees of AV block including complete heart block,
  • Ventricular ectopic beats
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Atrial and ventricular tachycardia
  • Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index and thus requires monitoring of serum levels .
46
Q

Absorption of digoxin is decreased by what kind of drugs and give an example

Name a drug that Drugs that decreases gastro intestinal motility but increases absorption

Name four Drugs that reduces plasma K+ concentration thereby increasing digoxin toxicity

A

by drugs that increases intestinal motility e.g. metoclopramide

  • e.g. propantheline
  • example:the loop diuretics, Amiodarone, Quinidine & Verapamil
47
Q

State the four determinants of cardiac output

What does the preload determine

What does afterload represent

The force of myocardial contraction is determined by?

The force of contraction is decreased in which conditions?

Name one other factor that influences cardiac performance

A

Determinants of Cardiac output
1) Heart Rate:- (Chronotropy)
2) Myocardial Contractility:-(Inotropy)
3) Venous Return:-(Preload)(blood that comes into the heart)
4) Peripheral Resistance:-causing
( Afterload)(blood pumped to extremities)

The preload determines ventricular end diastolic pressure and volume.

  • Afterload represents the Ventricular wall tension developed during ejection (i.e Peripheral resistance)
  • The force of myocardial contraction is determined by the strength and intergrity of the muscle cells. In people w HF the strength of the myocardial muscles isn’t so good so they’re not able to pump blood
  • The force of contraction is decreased in conditions like IHD(ischemic heart disease),Hypertension, dilated cardiac myopathy, Vulvular heart disease etc
  • Another factor/mechanism that influences cardiac performance is Neuroendocrine activation. Endocrine (RAAS system),Neuro(sympathetic)
48
Q

The plasma levels of renin, angiotensen II, aldosterone, noradrenaline & ADH increases in heart failure.

  • Increased sympathetic activity in HF also leads to sympathetically mediated increase in renin secretion by activating beta 1 receptors on the kidneys and increase in angiotensen II and aldosterone levels.
  • Neuroendocrine activation is believed to be responsible for many of the characteristic features of heart failure

True or false

How does increased angiotensin 2 and increased sympathetic system contribute to Hf

Peripheral amount of blood is very high but this blood is not able to be pumped cuz the in the heart most of the cells are dead and the muscles don’t have enough tone to have adequate chronotropic and inotropic effects

A

True

Is a potent vasoconstrictor,
• It causes progressive ventricular dilatation(remodelling), leading to destruction of the cardiac myocytes .
•It also stimulates the secretion of Aldosterone leading to Na+ retention & K+ loss

Sympa:
Vasoconstriction, tachyarrhythmias, sympathetically mediated renin release (Na+ retention, etc)
•Initially there appears to be improvement in CO, but ventricular remodelling occurs & Cardiac fxn worsens if no intervention is administered to control the NEA

49
Q

What are the adverse effects of loop diuretics

oThe K+ sparing diuretics are less effective alone in decreasing end diastolic volume & pressure (Preload) true or false

How does amiloride work

Spironolactone in particular has been shown to have beneficial clinical effects in reducing mortality in patients with heart failure
True or false

A

Dehydration ( due to Salt and water depletion – effect is dose dependent)

  • Acid-Base & Electrolyte imbalance including:
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Hypokalaemia & Hypomagnesaemia

•Rapid iv administration of the loop diuretics may cause deafness

True

Amiloride and triamterene, which act by blocking Na+ channels controlled by aldosterone’s protein mediator in the collecting tubules .

True

50
Q

Why is carvedilol better than labetalol

Carvedilol may be combined with diuretics & A.C.E. Inhibitors for maximum therapeutic benefit in patients with chronic heart failure.true or false
Name five side effects of beta blockers

Which class of drugs reduce both preload and afterload , Slow the heart rate & thus improve coronary circulation,Slow the development of myocardial hypertrophy in the ventricles,Decrease progression of the disease
Which calcium channel  blockers will worsen cardiac adverse effects
Carvedilol is contraindicated in which people and why will the effects of carvedilol be increased
A

The ß1: effect of carvedilol is significantly greater than labetalol

  • In addition, the duration of ß1 effects of carvedilol is much longer than that of Labetalol
  • Labetalol has no known antioxidant effects

True

Postural hypotension

  • Dizziness
  • Bradycardia
  • Headache
  • & some allergic reactions manifesting as facial swelling and/or difficulty breathing

Beta blockers

Diltiazem or verapamil could worsen the cardiac adverse effects when given w carvedilol or beta blockers cuz both are trynna slow down heart rate

Carvedilol is contra indicated in Asthmatics or patients with bronchospastic disorders
•Must be avoided or given with caution in individuals with kidney disease or liver disease
•The effects of carvedilol may be increased because of slower elimination from the body
•Contraindicated in patientts with peripheral vascular diseases.

51
Q

Which drug Reduce diuretic induced renin secretion
•Increase renal and skeletal muscle blood flow.
They do not only improve symptoms, but reduces mortality in patients with heart failure

Why will you want to inhibit bradykinin breakdown in HF

Captopril is short acting ( i.e. t1/2 of about 2hrs)
•Drug elimination is through the kidneys & is reduced in renal failure leading to accumulation & enhanced adverse effects.true or false

Which ACEI is a prodrug

Which ACEIs have the longest half life

Why will ACEI help improve pump function of heart

A

ACEI

Bradykinins stimulate the production of vasodilator prostaglandins and NO.

•Thus impact both on preload & afterlaoad, Improve blood supply & reduces vascular hypertrophy

Enalapril is a pro drug. It is coverted to enalaprilaat, the active metabolite after oral administration. Which has a much longer t1/2 than captopril

Fosinopril and Lisinopril have the longest t1/2 & hence used once daily.

•Ramapril has a relatively shorter t1/2 & may be used 2x daily

by decreasing preload
No aldosterone will be produced so there will be no retention of water or water is reduced thereby decreasing blood volume and decreasing preload

52
Q

How do vasodilators work
Give three examples
Which vasodilators have both arteriolar dilating and venodilation effects

A

Arteriolar dilators reduces aortic impedance, decrease after load and enhance cardiac output. E.g.  adrenergic blockers –Prazosin, Terazosin etc

  • The Venodilators reduces left ventricular end diastolic pressure and volume(preload) & hence could affect pulmonary congestion and symptoms of breathlessness observed in acute heart failure.
  • Most of the vasodilators have both arteriolar dilatating and venodilation effects.
  • E.g. Hydrallazine, Isosorbide dinitrate, Sodium Nitroprusside etc
53
Q

How do organic nitrates work

A

The nitrates causes the release of NO after interaction of with –SH groups in the vascular endothelium

  • NO activates guanylate cyclase, leading to increased cellular levels of cGMP.
  • cGMP → activates protein kinases which antagonizes the influx or accummulation of intracellular Ca2+, responsible for constriction of the vessels.
  • cGMP activation of the protein kinases may also affect the contractile proteins in the vessels directly, causing vasodilation
54
Q

When does angina occur

State the types of angina

Stable angina attacks are provoked by
What will make the attack cease
What is the underlying pathology of stable angina
What is treatment of stable angina directed at

A

Ischemic heart something is also called ANGINA and it occurs when there is an IMBALANCE between O2 requirements of the heart cells (myocardial O2 demand) and O2 available to it (myocardial O2 supply).

i.e In angina,Coronary blood supply is insufficient to meet the myocardial energy requirements

Three types: Stable, Unstable & Variant Angina

Attacks are provoked by exertion or excitement.
•The attack ceases when the increased energy demand is withdrawn.
•The underlying pathology is usually chronic coronary artery disease.
•Treatment could be directed at increasing myocardial O2 supply through vasodilation
•or reducing myocardial O2 consumption through reduced heart rate, decreased myocardial contractility, decreased preload and decreased afterload

55
Q

When does variant angina occur or atypical angina

When does unstable angina occur

What is the underlying pathology of unstable angina

Unstable angina may lead to myocardial infarction and/or sudden death.true or false

A

It occurs when the increase in myocardial O2 demand is due to spasms of the coronary arteries as in coronary artery stenosis

It occurs with lesser exertion or at rest

•It is unpredictable, unlike stable angina

The underlying pathology for unstable angina is usually rapture of an atheromatous plaque with thrombus formation in a coronary artery.

•Coronary spasms may be an additional mechanism.

56
Q

What drugs are used to treat and prevent angina attacks

A

Organic nitrates

  • Ca2+ channel antagonists
  •  adrenoceptor antagonist
  • K+ channel activators
57
Q

State three other useful pharmacological agents in treating unstable angina

A

Low dose aspirin and other antiplateletes such as Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine and dipyridamole
•Antithrombotic agents or anticoagulants such as heparin, warfarin and heparin derivatives (e.g Enoxaprin)
•Lipid lowering drugs e.g the statins

58
Q

Name three examples of organic nitrates

How do nitrates work

Which organic nitrate is short acting, is also rapidly eliminated from the body with elimination t1/2 of about 2mins, is extensively metabolized in the liver and has almost 0% bioavailability when administered orally,how is it administered,

What are the side effects of glyceryl trinitrate

The symptoms of the adverse effects can be terminated by swallowing the tablet or spitting it out.
•With a patch or paste, the effect could be terminated by removing the patch true or false

A

Glyceryl trinitrate, Amyl nitrate, ISD, ISM

The nitrates relieves coronary arterial spasms in variant angina and any vascular spasm s that may occur in stable or unstable angina
•They cause improvement in blood flow through the coronary vessels and hence improvement of perfusion to ischaemic areas

Glyceryl trinitrate

is either administered sublingually or transdermally as a patch or paste

The side effects are dose related.& It include headache, flushing, postural dizziness, postural hypotension, syncope etc.

59
Q

How do beta blockers help in angina and improve myocardial perfusion

The -blockers reduce the rate of mortality in patients with myocardial infarction.

•It also reduces re-infarction following a previous myocardial infarctiontrue or false

Which beta blockers are preferred in angina

Which calcium channel blockers are used to treat stable and unstable angina and which are used t treat atypical or variant angina

Which calcium channel blocker may increase the risk of sudden death in unstable angina, via reflex tachycardia

A

blockers reduce myocardial O2 consumption by:

  • Reducing an increase in heart rate associated with exercise and anxiety.
  • Reducing the force of myocardial contraction.
  • They also improve myocardial perfusion by increasing the duration of diastole and the time available for coronary circulation

True

selective for beta -1 receptors or those with vasodilating propertites (i.e α1,  antagonists effects- Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Metoprolol, Labetalol & Carvidelol
•Ca2+ channel blockers- Verapamil & Diltiazem for both stable & Unstable angina
•Dihydropyridine for variant angina.

Short acting Nifedipine

60
Q

What is infarction
When does myocardial infarction occur

What is the most important therapeutic aim in treating ischemic heart diseases

The heart cells rely on aerobic metabolism and hence if the supply of oxygen via coronary circulation is poor, sequence of events leading to cell death by necrosis ensues.
True or false

A

Infarction is death of part of the myocardium from deprivation of blood & oxygen
•MI occurs for e.g when a coronary vessels becomes blocked as a result of thrombosis
•It is the commonest cause of sudden deaths (Heart attack) in many parts of the world

Prevention of ischaemic damage following coronary thrombosis is an important therapeutic aim in the management of Ischaemic heart diseases

61
Q

Name the agents used in treating MI

A

Thrombolytics- Dissolves clots and decreases risk of sudden deaths
•Antithrombotic agents-Reduces risk of thrombus & embolus formation
•Antiplatelets – Prevents blood clots formation
•Opiods- Releives pain and improve circulation
•Beta-blockers - reduces mortality and re-infarction
•& A.C.E. Inhibitors- reduces ventricular remodeling and risk of CCF
•Lipid lowering drugs –Reduces atheroma & risk of thrombotic events

62
Q

Difference between isosorbide mono nitrate and dinitrate

How does isosorbide mononitrate act

mdur (isosorbide mononitrate) Extended Release and Isordil (isosorbide dinitrate) are vasodilators indicated for the prevention of angina pectoris due to coronary artery disease. Side effects of Imdur and Isordil that are similar include headache and dizziness.true or false

A

has high bioavailability and a longer half-life (4-6 hours) than ISDN

Nitrate tolerance can develop in using ISDN rendering the drug less effective

ISDM is used to Prevents heart-related chest pain (angina) from the narrowing of heart blood vessels (coronary artery disease).and ISDN is used to Treats and prevents heart-related chest pain (angina) from the narrowing of heart blood vessels (coronary artery disease).

ISDN is better cuz can be used in heart failure,heart attack and all but ISDM is only used in liver disease and chest pain prevention

Isosorbide mononitrate reduces the load on the heart by venous and arterial dilatation and can have a direct vasodilatory effect on the coronary arteries. By reducing end-diastolic pressure and volume, it lowers the pressure inside the ventricle and thus improves the subendocardial blood flow.

63
Q

Both Imdur and Isordil may interact with erectile dysfunction medications and calcium channel blockers.

Imdur (ISDM) may also interact with other vasodilators, alcohol, and organic nitrates.

Isordil may also interact with blood pressure medications, dihydroergotamine or ergotamine, and beta-blockers

True or false

A

True

64
Q

Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) is the active metabolite of ISDN and is primarily used in the management of chronic stable angina. It is not FDA-approved for treating heart failure. It has high bioavailability and a longer half-life (4-6 hours) than ISDN

True or false

A

True