CCMA Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
meaningful use guidelines
A
- Is for adaptive use of the EHR
- used for the qualitative and quantitative data
2
Q
what is hematology used for
A
The hematology department is responsible for reviewing blood cell counts, morphologic studies, and coagulation tests.
3
Q
chemistry
A
The chemistry department is responsible for analyzing chemicals found in blood, cerebrospinal fluid, and urine.
4
Q
mircobiology
A
The microbiology department is responsible for studying very small infectious organisms such as bacteria, fungi, and yeast.
5
Q
immunohematology
A
The immunohematology department is responsible for blood typing.
6
Q
Normochromic
A
RBCs that have an expected amount of hemoglobin.
7
Q
Normocytic
A
normal-sized RBC.
8
Q
Macrocytic
A
enlarged RBC.
9
Q
Hypochromic
A
pale-appearing RBC.
10
Q
what angle should the needle be inserted for a venipuncture
A
15
11
Q
Auditing
A
is the process of checking claims to ensure they are complete.
12
Q
Reviewing
A
Reviewing is the process of checking the diagnosis and procedure codes to ensure the provider is reimbursed correctly
13
Q
Unbundling
A
the process in which codes are separated out to bill for procedures separately.
14
Q
Abstracting
A
the process of reviewing a patient’s medical record to determine what diagnosis and procedure codes should be used for billing purposes.
15
Q
The portal of exit
A
The portal of exit is how the infection leaves the body of one person to the susceptible host.
16
Q
The reservoir
A
is where an infection can be stored.
17
Q
The susceptible host
A
the person who can acquire pathogens.
18
Q
The portal of entry
A
is where an infection can enter the body.
19
Q
Slander
A
Making false statements against a patient is an example of slander.
19
Q
Negligence
A
the failure to exercise proper care for a patient, such as a provider or assistant not performing hand hygiene before starting a procedure.
20
Q
Assult
A
Intentionally harming a patient’s body with force is an example of assault.
21
Q
Abandonment
A
Discontinuing a patient’s medical care without advance notice is an example of abandonment.
22
Q
A release of information form
A
is signed by the patient to provide authorization for the practice to discuss confidential account information with a third-party payer.
23
Q
Advance directives
A
are written instructions regarding a patient’s health care decisions.
24
Advanced Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
An ABN is a form notifying the patient of services that may not meet Medicare's medical necessity requirements.
25
Medical records release
form is signed by the patient to authorize the release of records to the assigned persons listed on the release.
26
According to NHA what position should a pt be in for an EKG
Supine/Laying position
26
what's the order of draw
1. yellow
2. light blue
3. gold/tiger
4. dark green
5. light green
6. lavender
7. grey
26
what do you do to make a vein bounce?
palpate vein
27
How many seconds should the pt apply pressure on the area after a venipuncture
5-10 seconds
28
what 2 things should always be written on a tube after draws
time and assistants initials
29
Papules
solid elevations that are less than 0.5 cm (0.2 in) in diameter. A common cause is allergic eczema.
30
Macules
flat areas of skin that are a different color than the surrounding skin. They have no elevation or depression. A common example of a macule is a freckle.
30
what does a rheumatologist specializes in
A rheumatologist specializes in treating patients who have diseases of the joints, muscles, and bones, including fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, and tender joints.
31
Pustules
pus-filled blisters. A common example of a pustule is an acne blister.
31
Vesicles
small fluid-filled blisters. A common cause is a herpes viral infection.
32
what does CRP stand for
C-reactive protein.
33
what does CPT stand for
curent procedural terminology.
34
what does CPR stand for
cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
35
what does CC stand for
chief complaint.
36
A serum-separator tube is used for?
coagulation tests.
37
A red tube is used for
serum tests.
37
A light green tube is used for
plasma determinations in chemistry studies.
38
A lavender tube is used for
hematology tests.
38
what is the minimum temp that an autoclave gets to?
250F or 121.1C
39
what does A PCMH is a community resource help with
that can help provide holistic care for a patient.
40
what does a A skilled nursing facility do
provides 24-hr medical care and supervision.
41
what is an assisted living facility
is a retirement facility for older adults.
42
what is Home health care
it includes therapy services, assistance with medications, and wound care.
43
what is orthostatic VS.
its taking VS 1 min after laying, sitting then standing
44
Disinfection
destroys pathogenic micro-organisms, but it does not destroy bacterial spores.
45
Sanitization
removes organic material from instruments and reduces the level of micro-organisms, but it does not destroy all micro-organisms.
46
Sterilization
destroys all microbial life, including bacterial spores, through physical or chemical methods. Therefore, this is the method the assistant should use to cleanse the towel clamp.
47
what is the ultrasonic method to "cleaning"
is used to avoid direct handling of the instrument during the sanitization process. This method uses vibrations to loosen and remove debris but does not destroy micro-organisms.
48
what are the Kubler-Ross stages of grief
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Depression
5. Acceptance
49
what is A cryoprobe used for
removing cancers of the skin and warts.
50
An endoscope is used to
examine the inside of an organ or body cavity.
51
An operating microscope is used to
perform delicate procedures, such as otologic or rhinologic procedures.
52
An electrosurgical unit is used to
cauterize blood vessels to reduce bleeding.
53
what does Antineoplastics do
slow the growth of cancer cells.
54
what does Analgesics do
reduce pain.
55
what does Antitussives do
suppress coughs.
56
what does Antiemetics do
reduce nausea and vomiting.
57
most common sublingual med
nitroglycerin
58
Release of information
It authorizes the medical facility to release a patient’s medical records to a third-party player
59
What is complete medical history
Components of a patient’s health record that represents the foundation and starting point of all patient provider contacts.
60
What is inform consent form?
Is a document signed by the patient giving consent to the provider to preform an invasive surgery
61
When is bone density checked in females?
Every two years after the age of 65
62
When are lung cancer screenings advised
Between the ages 55-80
63
When should a colonoscopy be performed?
Every three years between the ages 45-75
64
When should prostate cancer screenings be performed?
Any male patients above the age of 50
65
What type of infection is gonorrhea?
It’s a bacterial infection
66
What type of infection is herpes?
It’s a viral infection
67
What is another word for pubic lice?
Crabs
68
What is managed care organization (MCO)?
A health insurance company that provides cost-effective care
69
What is per preferred provider organization
Is a managed care network that selects a group of providers to contract with
70
What does Usual, Customary, and reasonable (UCR)
71
What is anemia?
It’s a blood disorder
72
What is bulimia nervousa
And eating disorder characterized by over eating
73
What is anorexia nervosa?
It is a eating disorder, characterized by body dysmorphia, and low food intake
74
What is the proper way to don PPE?
Gown mask, cockles gloves
75
How often does tetanus and diphtheria get renewed
Every 10 yrs
76
How often is flu renewed
Once a year
77
How often should you zoster (Zostavax) vaccine be renewed
Only given once for lifetime after the age of 60
78
PCV13 vaccine is how often renewed
Only given once for adults over the age of 65
79
When does new born screaming happen
Within 24/48 hrs after birth
80
What is myositis
Inflammation of the muscle
81
What is malaise
Refers to generalized discomfort or weakness
82
What is myopia
Nearsightedness
83
What is myalgia?
Refers to muscle pain
84
What is urostomy?
Procedure used to treat Neurogenic bladder
85
What is nephrolithotomy?
A procedure to remove kidney stones
86
What is dialysis?
A procedure used to treat kidney failure
87
What is a blood transfusion?
Helps, treat blood loss, anemia, and kidney disease
88
What does HIPAA do?
It set a standard for patient data
89
what is the affordable care act?
The implements measures to lower healthcare costs an increase quality in availability and public health insurance
90
What is controlled substance act
Is a US federal drug policy?
91
what is modified wave scheduling?
It’s scheduling four or more appointments at one time
92
what is time specified scheduling?
Scheduling patients specific to a certain time all day long, normal scheduling
93
what are open office hours appointments?
Allowing patients to come in with no appointment
94
What is double booking
Scheduling two or more appointments at the same time
95
what is AC interference?
Interference caused by electrical occurrence from nearby devices
96
what does interrupted base?
Caused by an electrical, the attachment or a attachment of an electrode
97
what is a somatic tremor?
It is an artifact caused by muscle movement
98
what is wandering baseline?
When the base of the EKG reading moves bc of movement or poor attachment of electrodes
99
what is a living will
Indicates a patient’s wishes regarding life prolonging care
100
what is wandering baseline?
When the base of the EKG reading moves bc of movement (breathing) or poor attachment of electrodes
101
What is durable power of attorney?
It does designate a person who has the power to make medical decisions for the patient in the event, they are unable to make decisions for themselves
102
what are class D fire extinguishers used for?
Used for combustible material
103
what are c extinguishers used for?
Electrical fires
104
what are cl extinguishers used for?
Flammable liquids, for example grease
105
class a extinguisher used for?
Flammable liquids
106
what does part of A Medicaid cover?
Covers inpatient hospital care
107
What does part B for Medicare cover?
DME
108
what does part C for Medicare cover?
It covers expanded parts of A and B benefits
109
what does part D of Medicare cover?
Covers prescribed drugs
110
What is wave scheduling?
Having three patients scheduled at the top of each hour for the same time
111
what temp should a drug screen be?
32 to 38°C or 90 to 100°F
112
what BMI is obese class two
35 through 39.9 BMI
113
what BMI is obese class one
30 to 34.9 BMI
114
what BMI is classified as overweight
25 to 29.9 BMI
115
What BMI is a healthy weight
18.5 -24.9 BMI
116
what temperature should an auto clave get to?
