CCSP Exams 01 Flashcards

1
Q

Your organization needs to conform to the highest levels of FIPS-140 cryptographic standards in order to meet contractual obligations. Your manager has tasked you with investigating options to meet this requirement. Which technology are you most likely to recommend?

KVM

Bastion host

DRS

HSM

A

Answer: HSM

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a primary function of a network security group (NSG)?

Filtering traffic based on source and destination addresses

Applying rules for handling network traffic

Controlling traffic flow based on protocols

Encrypting data at rest

A

Answer: Encrypting data at rest

“Encrypting data at rest” is correct. Encrypting data at rest is not a primary function of NSGs.
The other answers are incorrect because they are all primary functions of NSGs

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3
Q

What is the primary focus of most DNS attacks?

Overloading DNS servers to cause downtime

Extracting sensitive data from DNS queries

Gaining unauthorized access to DNS servers

Redirecting traffic to malicious sites

A

Answer: Redirecting traffic to malicious sites

“Redirecting traffic to malicious sites” is correct. The primary focus of most DNS attacks is redirecting traffic to malicious sites.

“Gaining unauthorized access to DNS servers” is incorrect because unauthorized access is a means, not the primary focus.

“Overloading DNS servers to cause downtime” is incorrect because overloading servers is a type of DoS attack, not the primary focus of most DNS attacks.

“Extracting sensitive data from DNS queries” is incorrect because extracting data is not the primary focus of most DNS attacks.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a primary function of IPSec?

Operating at the application layer

Authenticating packets during transmission

Encrypting packets during transmission

Negotiating security policies between two parties

A

Answer: Operating at the application layer

“Operating at the application layer” is correct. IPSec does not operate at the application layer; it operates at the Internet network layer.

The other answers are incorrect because encrypting packets, authenticating packets, and negotiating security policies are all primary functions of IPSec.

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5
Q

Which of the following is a primary advantage of using Windows Server Core as a baseline in cloud environments?

It supports legacy applications out of the box.

It includes all Windows Server roles and features.

It provides a GUI-based management interface.

It offers a reduced attack surface

A

Answer: It offers a reduced attack surface

“It offers a reduced attack surface” is correct. Windows Server Core offers a reduced attack surface due to its minimalistic installation.

“It provides a GUI-based management interface” is incorrect because Windows Server Core does not provide a GUl-based interface.

“It includes all Windows Server roles and features” is incorrect because Windows Server Core does not include all roles and features.

“It supports legacy applications out of the box” is incorrect because supporting legacy applications is not a primary advantage of Windows Server Core.

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6
Q

What is the primary benefit of cloud platforms in terms of efficiency for an organization?

Increased software updates

Reduced hardware maintenance

Enhanced user experience

Improved in-house catering services

A

Answer: Reduced hardware maintenance

“Reduced hardware maintenance” is correct. One of the main benefits of cloud platforms is that organizations don’t have to worry about maintaining physical hardware.

“Enhanced user experience” is incorrect because although cloud platforms can enhance user experience, that’s not a primary benefit in terms of efficiency.

“Increased software updates” is incorrect because while cloud platforms might offer regular software updates, that’s not a primary benefit in terms of efficiency.

“Improved in-house catering services” is incorrect because in-house catering services have nothing to do with cloud platforms.

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7
Q

In cloud environments, why is it essential to consider data sovereignty regulations?

To comply with local data storage and processing regulations

To enhance user experience

To ensure data redundancy

To reduce operational costs

A

Answer: To comply with local data storage and processing regulations

“To comply with local data storage and processing regulations” is correct. Data sovereignty regulations dictate how data should be stored and processed in specific geographical locations.

“To ensure data redundancy” is incorrect because data sovereignty is primarily about compliance, not redundancy.
“To enhance user experience” is incorrect because user experience isn’t the primary concern of data sovereignty.
“To reduce operational costs” is incorrect because compliance with data sovereignty might increase costs due to specific storage requirements.

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8
Q

Which cloud deployment model involves a combination of private and public cloud resources?

Hybrid cloud

Public cloud

Community loud

Private cloud

A

Answer: Hybrid cloud

“Hybrid cloud” is correct. A hybrid cloud involves a combination of private and public cloud resources.

“Public cloud” is incorrect because a public cloud is solely based on public cloud resources.

“Private cloud” is incorrect because a private cloud is based on private resources, typically within an organization.

“Community loud” is incorrect because a community cloud is shared by several organizations with common concerns.

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9
Q

In cloud computing, what is the primary purpose of orchestration?

Ensuring data redundancy

Limiting data access to specific users

Automating and coordinating complex cloud tasks and workflows

Focusing on in-house application development

A

Answer: Automating and coordinating complex cloud tasks and workflows

“Automating and coordinating complex cloud tasks and workflows” is correct. Orchestration in cloud computing is about automating and coordinating complex tasks and workflows.

“Ensuring data redundancy” is incorrect because ensuring data redundancy is not the primary purpose of orchestration.

“Limiting data access to specific users” is incorrect because limiting data access is not the primary purpose of orchestration.

“Focusing on in-house application development” is incorrect because in-house application development isn’t directly related to orchestration.

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10
Q

Why is it crucial to understand and evaluate the risk management program of a cloud provider?

Because the cloud customer’s data will be stored externally and out of their control

Because it helps in negotiating better pricing with the cloud provider

Because it is a mandatory requirement for all cloud customers

Because the cloud provider’s risk acceptance will directly impact the customer’s security

A

Answer: Because the cloud provider’s risk acceptance will directly impact the customer’s security

“Because the cloud provider’s risk acceptance will directly impact the customer’s security” is correct because the risk decisions of a cloud provider can have direct implications on the security of a cloud customer.

“Because the cloud customer’s data will be stored externally and out of their control” is incorrect because while external storage of data is a concern, it doesn’t directly address the importance of understanding the provider’s risk management.

“Because it helps in negotiating better pricing with the cloud provider” is incorrect as the primary concern is security, not pricing.

“Because it is a mandatory requirement for all cloud customers” is incorrect as it’s not a mandatory requirement for all cloud customers.

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11
Q

When considering a startup as a potential cloud provider, what is a significant concern for organizations?

Startups often have innovative features not found in established providers.

The longevity and stability of startups can be uncertain.

Startups always have a smaller customer base, ensuring better support.

Established providers are always more expensive than startups.

A

Answer: The longevity and stability of startups can be uncertain.

“The longevity and stability of startups can be uncertain” is correct because startups, being new entrants, might not have a proven track record, making their long-term stability uncertain.

“Startups often have innovative features not found in established providers” is incorrect because while startups might have innovative features, it’s not the primary concern when selecting a provider.

“Startups always have a smaller customer base, ensuring better support” is incorrect because a smaller customer base doesn’t always guarantee better support.

“Established providers are always more expensive than startups” is incorrect because pricing varies and is not solely based on the age of the company.

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12
Q

With a cloud environment, who is responsible for the collection of data pursuant to an eDiscovery order?

The application owner

The cloud provider

The cloud customer

Both the cloud provider and cloud customer

A

Answer: Both the cloud provider and cloud customer

“Both the cloud provider and cloud customer” is correct.

Both the cloud provider and the cloud customer share responsibility for data collection and preservation, pursuant to an eDiscovery order.
The other answers are incorrect.

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13
Q

With an laaS implementation, which of the following metrics would not be used as a factor in determining costs for the cloud customer?

Storage

Number of users

Memory

CPU

A

Answer: Number of users

“Number of users” is correct because the actual number of users is irrelevant to cloud costs.

“Memory” is incorrect as memory used is a direct component of costs with laaS.

“Storage” is incorrect as storage used is a direct component of costs with laaS.

“CPU” is incorrect as CPU used is a direct component of costs with laas.

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14
Q

Your company has tasked you with getting your legacy systems and applications connected with new cloud-based services that management has decided are critical to core business services.
Which role would you be assuming under this directive?

Cloud service administrator

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service user

Cloud service integrator

A

Answer: Cloud service integrator

“Cloud service integrator” is correct as a cloud service integrator is responsible for connecting and integrating existing services and applications with cloud-based services.

“Cloud service administrator” is incorrect because a cloud service administrator is responsible for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services.

“Cloud service user” is incorrect because a cloud service user is someone that consumes cloud services.

“Cloud service business manager” is incorrect because a cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing the billing, auditing, and procurement of cloud services.

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15
Q

Which concept BEST describes the capability of a cloud environment to automatically scale a system or application based on its current resource demands?

On-demand self-service

Measured service

Rapid elasticity

Resource pooling

A

Answer: Rapid elasticity

“Rapid elasticity” is correct. Rapid elasticity allows a cloud environment to automatically add or remove resources to or from a system or application based on its current demands.

Whereas a traditional data center model would require standby hardware and substantial effort to add resources in response to load increases, a cloud environment can easily and rapidly expand to meet resource demands, so long as the application is properly implemented for it. The other answers are incorrect.

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16
Q

Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?

Quality

Volume

Labels

Format

A

Answer: Quality

Quality” is correct. The main problem when it comes to data discovery is the quality of the data that analysis is being performed against.

Data that is malformed, incorrectly stored or labeled, or incomplete makes it very difficult to use analytical tools against.
The other answers are incorrect.

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17
Q

Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?

HIPAA

HFCA

HAS

HITECH

A

Answer: HIPAA

“HIPAA” is correct. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets stringent requirements in the United States for the protection of healthcare records.

The other answers are incorrect.

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of multi-tenancy in cloud computing?

Multiple cloud providers collaborating on a single project

Multiple applications running on a single server

Multiple users sharing a single instance of a software application

Multiple servers dedicated to a single application

A

Multiple users sharing a single instance of a software application

“Multiple users sharing a single instance of a software application” is correct because multi-tenancy refers to a single instance of a software application serving multiple customers or “tenants”.

“Multiple cloud providers collaborating on a single project” is incorrect because multi-tenancy does not involve multiple cloud providers collaborating on a project.

“Multiple applications running on a single server” is incorrect because while multiple applications can run on a single server, it doesn’t define multi-tenancy.

“Multiple servers dedicated to a single application” is incorrect because dedicating multiple servers to a single application is not related to the concept of multi-tenancy.

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19
Q

Which of the following is the biggest concern or challenge with using encryption?

Efficiency

Dependence on keys

Cipher strength

Protocol standards

A

Answer: Dependence on keys

“Dependence on keys” is correct. No matter what kind of application, system, or hosting model is used, encryption is 100 percent dependent on encryption keys. Properly securing the keys and the exchange of them is the biggest and most important challenge of encryption systems.

The other answers are incorrect.

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes the Software Assurance Forum for Excellence in Code (SAFECode)?

A cloud service model

A threat modeling methodology

A software licensing platform

An organization promoting secure software development practices

A

Answer: An organization promoting secure software development practices

An organization promoting secure software development practices” is correct because SAFECode is an organization that promotes best practices for secure software development.

“A cloud service model” is incorrect because SAFECode is not a service model related to cloud computing.

“A threat modeling methodology” is incorrect because SAFECode is not a methodology for threat modeling.

“A software licensing platform” is incorrect because SAFECode does not provide software licensing platforms.

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21
Q

What role does encryption play in cloud data protection?

Enhances data visibility

Protects data from unauthorized access

Reduces data size

Speeds up data transfer

A

Answer: Protects data from unauthorized access

“protects data from unauthorized access” is correct because encryption protects data by making it unreadable to unauthorized individuals.

“Reduces data size” is incorrect because encryption doesn’t typically reduce data size; in fact, it might increase it slightly.

“Enhances data visibility” is incorrect because encryption aims to reduce unauthorized data visibility.

“Speeds up data transfer” is incorrect because encryption doesn’t inherently speed up data transfer.

22
Q

Which statement accurately describes the proper sequence of ISC2 phases in the data cycle process?

a) Store, Create, use, share, archive, and destroy
b) Use, store, Create, share, archive, and destroy
c) destroy, store, use, share, archive, and create
d) create, store, use, share, archive, and destroy

A

Answer: d) create, store, use, share, archive, and destroy

23
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate risk response when the identified risk falls within the organizational risk tolerance?

a) Risk Mitigation

b) Risk Acceptance

c) Risk Transfer

d) Risk Avoidance

A

Answer: b Risk Acceptance

24
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate risk response when the identified risk exceeds the organizational risk tolerance?

a) Risk Mitigation

b) Risk Acceptance

c) Risk Transfer

d) Risk Avoidance

A

Answer: d) Risk Avoidance

25
Which of the following is an appropriate risk response that including taking actions to prevent or reduce the possibility of Impact? a) Risk Mitigation b) Risk Acceptance c) Risk Transfer d) Risk Avoidance
**Answer: a) Risk Mitigation**
26
Which of the following is the appropriate risk response practice of passing the risk to another party, who will accept the financial impact of the harm ?' a) Risk Mitigation b) Risk Acceptance c) Risk Transfer d) Risk Avoidance
**Answer: c) Risk Transfer**
27
Which of the following is the appropriate risk response practice of passing the risk to another party, who will accept the financial impact of the harm ? a) Risk Mitigation b) Risk Acceptance c) Risk Transfer d) Risk Avoidance
**Answer: d) Risk Transfer**
28
What is the Primary objective of Risk Assessment? a) prioritized by risk level and used to inform risk response decisions. b) Identify threat events that could be produced by those sources. c) Communicate risk assessment results to designated organizational stakeholders. d) Mitigate the Risk.
**Answer: a) prioritized by risk level and used to inform risk response decisions.**
29
Which of the following options does not represent a type of control? 1. Physical Control 2. Technical Control 3. Administrative Control 4. Preventive Control
**Answer: 4. Preventive Control**
30
Which of the following is not one of the Canon? a) Protect society, the common good, necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure. b) Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally. c) Provide diligent and competent service to principals. d) Requires that we adhere, and be seen to adhere, to the highest ethical standards of behavior.
**Answer: d) Requires that we adhere, and be seen to adhere, to the highest ethical standards of behavior.** Canon: PAPA **Protect Society:** Prioritize the well-being of society, the public trust in the digital sphere, and the protection of critical infrastructure. **Act Honorably:** Maintain high standards of integrity, honesty, and responsibility in all aspects of cloud security practices. **Provide Diligent Service:** Deliver competent and professional services to your principals, ensuring the security of their cloud environments. **Advance the Profession:** Contribute to the growth and development of the cloud security profession through continuous learning, knowledge sharing, and ethical conduct.
31
What factors need to be considered MOST when deciding to implement a control? a) Control Cost vs Impact b) Confidentiality vs Integrity c) Eliminate risk d) Cost Benefit analysis
**Answer: a) Control Cost vs Impact**
32
Which type of control is introduced in an organization to direct an employee's behavior? a) Administrative Control b) Technical Control~ c) Physical Control d) Preventive Control
**Answer: a) Administrative Control**
33
What is the Primary Purpose of the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) in the Enterprise ? a) Provides procedures for sustaining mission/business operations while recovering from a significant disruption. b) Provides procedures for disseminating internal and external communications; c) Provides procedures for mitigating and correcting a cyber attack d) Provides procedures for relocating information systems operations to an alternate location.
**Answer: a) Provides procedures for sustaining mission/business operations while recovering from a significant disruption.**
34
In a scenario where multiple documents are being reviewed, which one of them that are not mandatory for inclusion? A. Policy B. Procedure C. Standard D. Guideline
**Answer: D. Guideline**
35
Proper documentation of evidence is important to support any future investigations or legal proceedings. In which stage of the Incident Management Process we must acquire, preserve, secure, and document evidence? a) Detection and Analysis b) Preparation c) Containment, Eradication, and Recovery d) Post-Incident Activity
**Answer: c) Containment, Eradication, and Recovery**
36
In which Stage of the Incident Management Process, do we determine whether an incident has occurred ? A. Detection and Analysis B. Preparation C. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery D. Post-Incident Activity
**Answer: A. Detection and Analysis**
37
Which phase of the Incident Response Process helps us to improve security measures and the incident handling process? a) Detection and Analysis b) Preparation c) Containment, Eradication, and Recovery d) Post-Incident Activity
**Answer: d) Post-Incident Activity**
38
Which type of access control leaves a certain amount of Access Control to the discretion of the object's owner, or anyone else authorized to control the object's access? A) DAC B) NDAC C) MAC D) RBAC
**Answer: A) DAC**
39
Which type of access control system enforces the system's security policy through the use of security labels? a) DAC b) NDAC C) MAC d) RBAC
**Answer: C. MAC** Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a security model that enforces tight security and access control through a centralized system. **This model assigns security labels to users and resources, letting a central authority define and manage access rules, including through security groups.**
40
Which principle addresses information security strategy integrating people, technology, and operations capabilities to establish variable barriers across multiple layers and missions of the organization? a) Separation of Duties b) Principle of Least Privilege c) Defense of Depth d) Privilege Function
**Answer: c) Defense of Depth**
41
Which of the following principle dictates that each task, process, or user is granted the minimum rights required to perform its job ? a) Separation of Duties b) Principle of Least Privilege c) Defense of Depth d) Privilege Function
**Answer: b) Principle of Least Privilege**
42
What protocol MUST be utilized for remotely managing a firewall? a) Telnet b) FTP c) SSH d) HTTP
**Answer: c) SSH**
43
Which solution monitors the characteristics of a single host and the events occurring within that host for suspicious activity? a) HIDS b) NIDS c) SIEM d) Antivirus
**Answer: a) HIDS**
44
Which of the Following Solutions is not used to Identify Threats ? a) IDS b) SIEM c) NIDS d) NIPS
**Answer: d) NIPS**
45
Which cryptographic algorithm uses the same secret key for its operation and, if applicable, for reversing the effects of the operation? a) Symmetric b) Asymmetric c) Hash d) Digital Signature
**Answer: a) Symmetric**
46
Which process establishing and maintaining a framework and supporting management structure and processes to provide assurance that information security strategies are aligned with and support business objectives, are consistent with applicable laws and regulations through adherence to policies and internal controls, and provide assignment of responsibility, all in an effort to manage risk? a) Risk Management b) Compliance Management c) Security Governance d) Risk Assessment
**Answer: c) Security Governance**
47
What is the most effective physical control would like to suggest for a data center to prevent unauthorized access? a) Mantrap Control Configured with Biometric b) Only Mantrap Control c) Install Tailgating with Biometric d) Install Tailgating
**Answer: a) Mantrap Control Configured with Biometric**
48
Sam is a part of the legal team, and they wish to protect the brand name and goodwill of the company. Recently some other company used their brand name to sell products and services in the market. What is the MOST important action you will recommend to Sam to take to protect the brand? a) Filled Patent b) Filled for Trademark c) Filed for Copyright d) Filled for trade secret
**Answer: b) Filled for Trademark** Patent = Protect Idea Trademark = Protect name and brand Copyright Protec = Expression of Idea Trade secret = Protect Competitive advantage
49
Tom recently joined a security consultant position in a healthcare company in the U.S. The company collects and processes health care data for further analysis. Which of the following Primary regulations compliance firms need to achieve? a) HIPAA b) PCIDSS c) FEDRAMP d) ISO 27001
**Answer: a) HIPAA **
50
Aspirants technology solutions leaders in digital payment services. They have already obtained PCI DSS certification. By increasing the number of transactions, they moved from on-premises to a cloud provider for IAAS services. In this scenario, who MUST be taking accountability for PCI DSS accreditation? a) Cloud Provider b) Cloud Customer c) Data Subject d) Regulator
**Answer: b) Cloud Customer**