CD Flashcards
1
Q
It refers to a disease that occurs infrequently and irregularly
A
SPORADIC
2
Q
What are the 6 links in the Chain of Infection?
A
Causative Agent, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible Host
3
Q
What is the difference between airborne and droplet transmission?
A
Airborne: <5 µm, can travel long distances (e.g., TB, measles, varicella)
Droplet: >5 µm, spreads within 3 feet (e.g., Influenza, rubella, pertussis
4
Q
What PPE is required for airborne precautions?
A
N95 mask, gown, gloves, negative pressure room
5
Q
What are the 4 types of Health-Care Associated Infections (HAIs)
A
CLABSI – Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infection
2️⃣ CAUTI – Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection
3️⃣ SSI – Surgical Site Infection
4️⃣ VAP – Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia
6
Q
How often should you change an IV bag and IV tubing?
A
Every 24 hours for IV bags; 96 hours for IV tubing
7
Q
What vaccines are included in the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)
A
BCG, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent (DPT-HepB-Hib), OPV, IPV, MMR, PCV
8
Q
At what age should the first dose of MMR vaccine be given?
A
9 months
9
Q
What is the absolute contraindication to vaccination?
A
Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) to a previous vaccine dose
10
Q
What is the gold standard for TB diagnosis?
A
Xpert MTB/RIF
11
Q
What is the first-line treatment for Pulmonary TB?
A
RIPE therapy
R – Rifampicin (causes red-orange urine)
I – Isoniazid (peripheral neuritis, give Vit B6/Pyridoxine)
P – Pyrazinamide (hyperuricemia, gout)
E – Ethambutol (optic neuritis, blurred vision)
12
Q
How long should TB treatment last?
A
6 months (2 months intensive + 4 months maintenance)
13
Q
What is the pathognomonic sign of TB?
A
A: Chronic cough for 2 weeks + afternoon fever + night sweats
14
Q
What is the first sign of measles?
A
Koplik’s spots (white spots inside the cheeks)
15
Q
How does the measles rash spread?
A
Cephalocaudal (from head to toe)
16
Q
What is the main complication of Rubella during pregnancy?
A
Congenital Rubella Syndrome (Deafness, Cataracts, Heart Defects)
17
Q
What is the pathognomonic sign of diphtheria?
A
Thick grayish pseudomembrane in the throat
18
Q
What is the treatment for diphtheria?
A
Diphtheria Antitoxin + Penicillin
19
Q
What is the pathognomonic sign of pertussis?
A
Paroxysmal coughing followed by a high-pitched whoop
20
Q
What is the first sign of tetanus?
A
Trismus (Lockjaw)
21
Q
What is the treatment for tetanus?
A
Tetanus Immune Globulin (TIG) + Metronidazole
22
Q
What is the danger sign of severe dengue?
A
Persistent vomiting, severe abdominal pain, bleeding
23
Q
What is the recommended IV fluid for Dengue Shock Syndrome?
A
Crystalloids (Ringer’s Lactate or NS)
24
Q
What is the diagnostic test for malaria?
A
Malaria Blood Smear (MBS) – Gold Standard
25
What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated malaria?
Chloroquine or Artemisinin-based therapy
26
What is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone 500mg IM + Azithromycin 1g PO
27
What is the causative agent of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
28
What is the first sign of primary syphilis?
Painless chancre (ulcer)
29
refers to the constant presence and / or usual prevalence of
a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area
ENDEMIC
30
refers to a sudden
increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally
expected in that population in that area
EPIDEMIC
31
refers to an epidemic that has spread over several countries
or continents, usually affecting a large number of people
PANDEMIC
32
Type of waste: Non-infectious dry waste
BLACK
33
Types of waste: Non-infectious wet waste
GREEN
34
Type of Waste: Infectious & pathological waste
YELLOW
35
Type of waste: Chemical waste w/ heavy metals
YELLOW w/ BLACK BAN
36
Type of Waste: Radioactive waste
ORANGE
37
Type of waste: Sharps & pressurized containers
RED
38
What vaccines are most sensitive to heat?
OPV & Measles
39
When can you say a child is Fullu Immunized?
has received all immunization
that should be given before reaching the 1st year of life
40
When can you say a child is protected at birth or CPAB?
2 doses of DT during pregnancy or 3
doses of DT given anytime prior to pregnancy
41
When can you say a child is COMPLETELY IMMUNIZED?
has completed all
immunization scheduled at the age of 12 – 23 months
42
What diseases are AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS?
MTV-C
- Measles
- TB
- Varicella (Chickenpox)
- Covid-19
43
Pathognomonic Signs of TB?
>2 weeks of:
-Cough
-Nightsweats
-Low Grade Fever
-Weight Loss
44
What Dx Test is used to confirm active infecion of TB and also a Gold Standard?
XPERT MTB (Alternative DX)
45
What is the most common causative agent of TB in Asia
Mycobacterium tubercle
46
Incubation period of TB?
4-6 weeks
47
Where do you place patient in primary prevention of TB?
Negative Pressure Room & perform 6-12 air changes per day
48
What are zoonotic and vector-borne diseases?
Diseases transmitted from animals or insects to humans, such as Malaria, Dengue, and Zika.
49
What is a communicable disease?
A disease where the infectious agent can be transmitted to an individual by direct or indirect contact or as an airborne infection.
50
What are the types of infections based on duration?
Chronic and Acute.
51
What does 'Sporadic' refer to in disease distribution?
A disease that occurs infrequently and irregularly.
52
What is an endemic disease?
A disease that is constantly present or has usual prevalence in a population within a geographic area.
53
What is a pandemic?
An epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.
54
What is the Epidemiological Triad?
A model that describes disease as a result of the interaction between the agent, host, and environment.
55
What are the methods of sterilization?
Autoclave, Radiation, Gas, and Dry Heat.
56
What are standard precautions?
Infection control practices applied to all patients regardless of their diagnosis.
57
What is the most effective method of controlling the spread of microorganisms?
Hand hygiene.
58
What are droplet precautions?
Precautions taken to prevent transmission of infectious agents spread through respiratory droplets.
59
What is the purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
To prevent contamination of healthcare personnel and protect them from infectious materials.
60
What is concurrent disinfection?
Disinfection carried out immediately after an infected individual produces infectious materials.
61
What is terminal disinfection?
Disinfection done after the patient is no longer a source of infection.
62
What is an Airborne Isolation Room?
A negative pressure room where the door remains closed and is private.
63
What are safe injection practices?
Never recap, bend, or break needles; never reuse/share contaminated needles; throw used needles in a puncture-resistant container.
64
What PPE should be worn in an Airborne Isolation Room?
Respirator (N95 or PAPR), gown, and gloves.
65
What should be done if a patient must leave the isolation room?
Put a mask on the patient.
66
What diseases require airborne precautions?
Tuberculosis, Measles, Varicella Virus, SARS, Smallpox.
67
What is coughing/sneezing etiquette?
Cover your mouth and nose with a tissue, dispose of it properly, or cough/sneeze into your upper sleeve if no tissue is available.
68
What is Protective Environment (Reverse Isolation)?
Used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplants.
69
What is Enteric Isolation?
A precaution to prevent the spread of gastrointestinal infections transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
70
What are the types of precautions?
Contact, Droplet, Airborne.
71
What are the causative agents for Contact Precautions?
C. Diff, E. Coli, Scabies, Hepatitis A, Shigella.
72
What are the causative agents for Droplet Precautions?
Pneumonia, Influenza, Mumps, Pertussis.
73
What are the causative agents for Airborne Precautions?
Measles, Tuberculosis, Varicella.
74
What is a Live Attenuated Vaccine?
A vaccine that can still infect hosts but has its pathogenicity taken away.
75
What is a Killed (Inactivated) Vaccine?
A vaccine where the pathogen is inactivated through chemical or heat treatment.
76
What are Subunit Vaccines?
Vaccines that contain specific antigens that best activate the immune system.
77
What are Toxoid Vaccines?
Vaccines that contain bacterial toxins adapted to elicit an antibody response without causing disease.
78
What are Absolute Contraindications for vaccination?
Serious conditions needing hospitalization, immunocompromised status, high fever.
79
What is the purpose of TB Diagnosis?
To confirm active infection.
80
What is the gold standard for TB diagnosis?
XPERT MTB/RIF.
81
What are the clinical manifestations of Tuberculosis?
Cough, low-grade fever, anorexia, fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis, chest pain.
82
What is the purpose of Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM)?
To confirm active infection by demonstrating the presence of Mycobacterium.
83
What is the vision of the National Tuberculosis Control Program?
A TB-free Philippines.
84
What is the treatment regimen for Pulmonary TB?
Intensive: 2 months → RIPE; Maintenance: 4 months → RI.
85
What are common side effects of Rifampicin?
Discolored skin, nausea, vomiting, renal disorder.
86
What are common side effects of Isoniazid?
Peripheral neuritis, psychosis, convulsion.
87
What are the side effects of ISONIAZID?
Red-orange color to body secretions, nausea, vomiting, painless swelling or nodules on the skin, thick, stiff or dry skin, loss of eyebrows or eyelashes, weakness and numbness in extremities (Peripheral Neuritis), swelling of face (Leonine Face), psychosis, and convulsion (Stop Medication).
88
What renal disorders are associated with ISONIAZID?
Oliguria and albuminuria (Stop Medication).
89
What are the side effects of PYRAZINAMIDE?
Chronic uveitis and painful joints (arthralgia due to hyperuricemia).
90
What are the side effects of ETHAMBUTOL?
Nerve damage that leads to loss of feeling or numbness in the arms and legs, blurring of vision, and optic neuritis (decrease red-green color discrimination).
91
What are the clinical manifestations of LEPROSY?
Nerve involvement is mild in 'Tuberculoid' leprosy, with tender, enlarged peripheral nerves, claw finger, and foot drop. In 'Lepromatous' leprosy, there is generalized skin involvement.
92
What is the causative agent of LEPROSY?
Mycobacterium leprae, also known as Hansen’s bacillus.
93
How is LEPROSY diagnosed?
Acid-fast bacilli; Ziehl-Neelson method using 5% sulphuric acid as a decolorizing agent. The presence of acid-fast bacilli confirms the diagnosis.
94
What are the modes of transmission for Hansen's disease?
Direct contact, prolonged skin-to-skin contact, and droplet.
95
What is the incubation period for LEPROSY?
5 months to 5 years (average of 8 to 16 months).
96
What is the treatment for Tuberculoid leprosy?
Rifampicin: 600mg (monthly, no food), Clofazimine: 300mg (monthly), Dapsone: 100mg (daily).
97
What is the treatment for Lepromatous leprosy?
Rifampicin: 600mg (monthly, no food), Clofazimine: 50mg (daily, with food), Dapsone: 100mg (daily).
98
What is the nursing management for MEASLES?
Isolate the patient; airborne precautions; daily cleansing bath with warm water; oral and nasal hygiene; keep eyes free of secretions; monitor for signs of mastoid infection; TSB for fever; antipyretics as prescribed; vitamin A supplementation.
99
What are the manifestations of MEASLES?
Prodromal phase: flu-like symptoms + 3 C’s (conjunctivitis, coryza, cough). Exanthem phase: maculopapular skin rash (cephalocaudal rash).
100
What is the primary level prevention for MEASLES?
MMR Vaccine: one dose = 93% effective, two doses = 97% effective.
101
What are the complications of RUBELLA during pregnancy?
Congenital rubella syndrome: deafness, cataracts, heart defects, intellectual disabilities, liver and spleen damage, low birth weight, skin rash at birth.
102
What is the nursing management for RUBELLA?
Droplet isolation with good ventilation; isolate the infected child from pregnant persons; bedrest until fever subsides; darken room to avoid photophobia; provide mild but nourishing liquid diet.
103
What are the complications of MUMPS?
Orchitis, epididymitis, meningitis, and encephalitis.
104
What is the prevention for MUMPS?
Administer MMR Vaccine; pregnant women should avoid exposure to patients.
105
What is the treatment for CHICKEN POX?
Airborne isolation; anti-viral Acyclovir (Zovirax) 500mg/tab BID; oral antihistamine for pruritus; calamine lotion on itchy skin.
106
What are the manifestations of CHICKEN POX?
Centripetal distribution (chest, back, and face); begins as a macule, progresses to a papule, then a vesicle, and finally forms a crust.
107
Common symptoms of infections
Fever, tiredness, loss of appetite, headache
108
Purpose of minimizing scratching
To minimize bacterial infections due to scratching
109
Different types of skin lesions
1. Macule
2. Papule
3. Vesicles
4. Pustules
5. Crust
110
Contagious status of vaccinated individuals with lesions
Vaccinated people may develop lesions that do not crust and are considered contagious until no new lesions have appeared for 24 hours.
111
Causative agent of shingles
Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of varicella-zoster virus (VZV), the same virus that causes varicella (chickenpox).
112
Symptoms of nasal diphtheria
Nasal discharge, congestion, and sometimes bleeding.
113
Manifestations of diphtheria
Unilaterally clustered skin vesicles along peripheral sensory nerves on the trunk, thorax, and face; Fever, burning, neuralgia; Pruritus, and paresthesia.
114
Causative agents of diphtheria
Corynebacterium diphtheriae or Klebs-Löffler bacillus.
115
Transmission mode of diphtheria
Most often person-to-person spread from the respiratory tract.
116
Incubation period for diphtheria
2 to 5 days (possibly longer).
117
Pathognomonic sign of diphtheria
Pseudomembrane & Bull's Neck
118
Manifestations of laryngeal diphtheria
Sore throat, fever, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, swelling of the soft tissues of the neck, hoarseness, and stridor.
119
Confirmatory test for diphtheria
Elek test (an in vitro immunoprecipitation assay).
120
Types of diphtheria
1. Classical respiratory diphtheria
2. Cutaneous diphtheria
3. Laryngeal diphtheria
121
Complications of diphtheria
1. Myocarditis
2. Acute tubular necrosis
3. Oculomotor nerve palsy.
122
Prevention of diphtheria
Immunization.
123
Contact precautions for diphtheria
Keep distance from patient (at least three feet), wear PPE especially gloves and masks, hand hygiene, clean and disinfect fomites.
124
Manifestation of whooping cough
Nocturnal coughing fits followed by sudden inspiration associated with a crowing sound or a whoop.
125
Diagnosis of whooping cough
Culture is the gold standard for pertussis diagnosis.
126
Causative agent of pertussis
Bordetella pertussis.
127
Mode of transmission for pertussis
Direct contact or droplet spread from infected person; indirect contact with freshly contaminated articles.
128
Incubation period for pertussis
5 to 10 days after exposure.
129
Types of poliomyelitis
1. Spinal polio
2. Bulbar polio
3. Bulbospinal polio.
130
Causative agent of poliomyelitis
Poliovirus.
131
Transmission mode of poliomyelitis
Fecal-oral, person-to-person, and indirect contact with contaminated articles.
132
Signs and symptoms of non-paralytic polio
Can last from one to 10 days and are flu-like.
133
Post-polio syndrome
It’s possible for polio to return even after recovery, occurring after 15 to 40 years.
134
Prevention of tetanus
Immunization and contact precautions.
135
Pathognomonic sign of tetanus
Trismus or lock jaw (spasms and rigidity of the facial muscles due to tetanospasmin).
136
Manifestation of tetanus
Tetanus triad: 1. Trismus (lockjaw)
2. Risus sardonicus (sardinian grin)
3. Opisthotonos (severe simultaneous spasm of all muscles).
137
What is the transmission method for polio?
Person-to-person transmission, and through contaminated articles.
## Footnote
The virus can survive in sewage, soil, and infected water for a few weeks.
138
What is post-polio syndrome?
A condition that can occur after 15 to 40 years of recovery from polio.
139
What are the predisposing causes of polio?
1. Age – Common in children under 10 years old.
2. Sex – Males are more prone.
3. Environment and hygienic conditions.
4. Excessive work, strain, and marked overexertion.
140
What is the incubation period for the paralytic type of polio?
7 to 21 days.
141
What are the diagnostic methods for poliomyelitis?
1. Throat swab (up to 1 week from onset of paralysis).
2. Stool culture (polio virus can be recovered from feces for up to 6 weeks).
3. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.
142
What does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) usually contain in cases of poliomyelitis?
An increased number of white blood cells (10–200 cells/mm3, primarily lymphocytes) and a mildly elevated protein level (40–50 mg/100 mL).
143
What is the primary prevention method for poliomyelitis?
Vaccination with the Oral Polio Vaccine given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks.
144
What are the contraindications for the Oral Polio Vaccine?
Severe allergic reactions after a previous polio vaccine or after taking streptomycin, polymyxin B, or neomycin.
145
What are the nursing management strategies for polio?
1. Enteric and contact precautions.
2. Observe for signs of paralysis and other neurologic damage.
3. Provide good skin care and hydration.
146
What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis A and E?
Flulike symptoms, jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools.
147
What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A?
15 to 50 days.
148
What are the transmission methods for Hepatitis B?
Childbirth, sexual contact, and sharing contaminated needles.
149
What is the diagnostic test for acute Hepatitis A infection?
Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-HAV.
150
What are the nursing management strategies for acute Hepatitis?
1. Enteric isolation.
2. Improve nutritional status.
3. Promote rest and food sanitation.
151
What is the causative agent of meningitis?
Haemophilus influenzae Type B, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas sp., Neisseria meningitidis.
152
What are the signs and symptoms of meningitis in children and adults?
Triad of headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity; photophobia and phonophobia.
153
What is the causative agent of malaria?
P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi.
154
What is a vector in the context of disease transmission?
An organism that transmits a disease-causing pathogen from one host to another.
155
What is the incubation period for P. falciparum malaria?
8 to 15 days.
156
What is ENDOPHAGIC?
Feed Indoors (15 to 60 mins)
157
What is EXOPHAGIC?
Feed outdoors during Hot Stage
158
What is ENDOPHILY?
Rest inside dwellings
159
What symptoms are associated with ENDOPHILY?
Headache, Palpitations, Tachypnea, Epigastric Discomfort, Thirst, Nausea and Vomiting
160
What is EXOPHILY?
Rest Outdoors
161
What are the symptoms during the Sweat Stage?
Defervescence and Diaphoresis or Profuse Sweating (2 to 4 hours)
162
What is the clinical manifestation time for P. Falcifarum?
24 to 48 hours
163
What is the clinical manifestation time for P. Vivax and Ovale?
48 to 72 hours (Alternate Days)
164
What is the clinical manifestation time for P. Malariae?
72 to 96 hours (Quartan)
165
What are the complications of malaria?
Cerebral Malaria, Severe Hemolytic Anemia
166
What is the treatment for adults with malaria?
Chloroquine: 100 mg daily
167
What is the treatment for children with malaria?
≥8 years old: 2.2 mg/kg (maximum is adult dose) daily
168
What is the prevention regimen for Atovaquone/Proguanil (Malarone)?
Begin 1 – 2 days before travel, daily during travel, and for 7 days after leaving
169
What is the preferred antimalarial for interim oral treatment?
Artemether-lumefantrine (Coartem®)
170
What is the causative agent of Dengue?
DENV I, DENV2, DENV3 and DENV4
171
What are the hemorrhagic symptoms of Dengue?
Hematemeis, bloody stool, or menorrhagia
172
What is the mode of transmission for Dengue?
Vector Borne through a Mosquito Bite (Aedes aegypti)
173
What is the Dengue grading system for Grade 1?
FHAMS + Muscle / Joint Pain + (+) Tourniquet Test
174
What indicates Grade 2 Dengue?
Grade 1 + Nose & Gums Bleeding and GIT – Vomit/Melena
175
What indicates Grade 3 Dengue?
Presence of circulatory failure
176
What indicates Grade 4 Dengue?
Profound shock occurs and blood pressure and pulse becomes undetectable
177
What is the incubation period for Filariasis?
8 to 16 months from time of exposure
178
What is the causative agent of Filariasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi
179
What is the diagnosis method for Filariasis?
Nocturnal Blood Examination for microfilariae
180
What are the clinical manifestations of Filariasis in the acute phase?
Acute Dermatolymphangioadenitis, Lymphadenitis, lymphangitis, Cellulitis
181
What is the treatment for Filariasis?
Hetrazan Di-ethyl-carbamazine citrate (DEC)
182
What is the vision of the Filariasis elimination program?
Healthy and productive individuals and families for filariasis-free Philippines
183
What is IXCHIQ approved for?
IXCHIQ is approved for use in adults 18 years and older.
184
What is the vision of the filariasis-free Philippines?
Healthy and productive individuals and families.
185
What is the mission regarding filariasis?
Elimination of Filariasis as a public health problem through a comprehensive approach and universal access to quality health services.
186
What are some prevention methods for filariasis?
Treatment, Reporting, Early Diagnosis and Case Finding, Anti-Mosquito Repellants (DEET), Sanitation of Environment and Home, Mosquito Nets, Indoor Spraying and Outdoor Fogging, Neem Tree, Eucalyptus and other Plants.
187
What is the causative agent of Chikungunya virus?
RNA Virus belongs to Alphaviruses genus of the Togaviridae.
188
What is the mode of transmission for Chikungunya virus?
Aedes Aegypti and Aedes Albopictus mosquitoes during daylight hours with peak early morning and late afternoon.
189
What is the causative agent of Zika virus?
Zika Virus.
190
How can Zika virus be transmitted?
Through mosquito bites, from a pregnant person to their fetus, through sex, and more rarely through infected blood or tissues.
191
What is the incubation period for Japanese Encephalitis?
3 to 14 days.
192
What are the clinical manifestations of Japanese Encephalitis?
Fever, Rash, Headache, Joint Pain, Red eyes and Muscle Pain.
193
What is the mode of transmission for Japanese Encephalitis?
Culex species mosquitoes, particularly Culex Tritaeniorhynchus.
194
What is the incubation period for Rabies?
The average incubation is between one to three months.
195
What is the causative agent of Rabies?
Lyssavirus, an RNA virus belonging to the family Rhabdoviridae.
196
What are the modes of transmission for Rabies?
Contact with infected animal saliva, bites, scratches, licking, and inhalation of aerosolized particles.
197
What is the treatment for Japanese Encephalitis?
There are no specific treatments; treatment is symptomatic.
198
What is the prevention method for Rabies?
Mass Dog Vaccination, Dog Population Management, and Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP).
199
What are the categories of rabies exposure?
Category I: Feeding/touching an animal, Category II: Nibbling of uncovered skin, Category III: Transdermal bites.
200
What is the causative agent of Avian Influenza?
H5N1.
201
What are the modes of transmission for Avian Influenza?
Direct contact with infected birds, inhalation of aerosolized materials, and contact with contaminated feeds and water.
202
What is the causative agent of Leptospirosis?
Leptospira sp.
203
What are the clinical manifestations of Leptospirosis?
Muscle pain, headache, chills, fever, conjunctivitis, and severe cases can lead to pneumonia or respiratory distress.
204
What is the incubation period for Leptospirosis?
2–30 days; most illnesses occur 5–14 days after exposure.
205
What is Schistosomiasis?
A parasitic disease caused by worms called blood flukes, often spread through poor personal hygiene or exposure to contaminated water.
206
What is the prevention method for Schistosomiasis?
Avoid contact with potentially contaminated freshwater and wear appropriate personal protective equipment.
207
What is schistosomiasis?
It is a parasitic disease caused by worms called blood flukes.
208
How is schistosomiasis spread?
It is often spread through poor personal hygiene or exposure to water contaminated with the parasite Schistosoma.
209
What personal protective equipment (PPE) should be worn to prevent schistosomiasis?
Wear rubber boots, waterproof coveralls/clothing, and gloves when exposed to contaminated water.
210
Where is schistosomiasis endemic in the Philippines?
It is prevalent in various places across Luzon (especially Cagayan province), Visayas (especially Samar and Leyte islands), and Mindanao.
211
What is the definitive host for schistosomiasis?
The definitive hosts include Man, Dogs, Pigs, Cats, Carabaos, Cows, Rodents, and Monkeys.
212
What is the intermediate host for schistosomiasis?
The intermediate host is Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi.
213
What is the drug of choice for treating mild schistosomiasis symptoms?
Doxycycline (100 mg orally, twice daily).
214
What are other treatment options for mild schistosomiasis?
Azithromycin (500 mg orally, once daily), ampicillin (500-750 mg orally, every 6 hours), and amoxicillin (500 mg orally, every 6 hours).
215
What is the treatment for severe schistosomiasis?
IV penicillin (1.5 MU IV, every 6 hours) is the drug of choice, and ceftriaxone (1 g IV, every 24 hours) can be equally effective.
216
What complications can arise from schistosomiasis during pregnancy?
Leptospirosis can cause fetal complications including fetal death or abortion.
217
What are the general clinical manifestations of schistosomiasis?
Diarrhea, abdominal pain, blood in the stool, hematuria, hepatomegaly, portal hypertension, ascites, splenomegaly, bladder fibrosis, and kidney failure.
218
What diagnostic tests are used for schistosomiasis?
Stool/urine examination.
219
What are the prevention methods for schistosomiasis?
Practice food safety, proper waste disposal, water sanitation, and contact precautions.
220
What is the causative agent of ascariasis?
Ascaris lumbricoides.
221
What are the modes of transmission for ascariasis?
Oral-fecal transmission, particularly in areas without proper sanitation.
222
What are the diagnostic tests for ascariasis?
Stool exam, direct fecal smear, and Kato-Katz test.
223
What is the drug of choice for ascariasis?
Albendazole, Mebendazole, and Pyrantel Pamoate.
224
What is the causative agent of enterobiasis?
Enterobius vermicularis.
225
What are the diagnostic tests for enterobiasis?
Scotch tape test.
226
What are the signs and symptoms of enterobiasis?
Perianal itching or pruritus ani.
227
What is the causative agent of taeniasis?
Taenia solium (pork), Taenia saginata (beef), and D. latum (fish).
228
What are the signs and symptoms of taeniasis?
Perianal itching or pruritus ani, secondary to bacterial infection due to scratching.
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What is the drug of choice for taeniasis?
Albendazole, Mebendazole, and Pyrantel Pamoate.
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What is the causative agent of trichuriasis?
Trichuris trichiura.
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What are the signs and symptoms of trichuriasis?
Abdominal discomfort, blood streaked diarrheal stools, anemia, and rectal prolapse.
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What is the drug of choice for trichuriasis?
Mebendazole, Albendazole, and Benzimidazole.
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What is the causative agent of ancylostomiasis?
Ancylostoma duodenale / Necator americanus.
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What are the modes of transmission for ancylostomiasis?
Oral-fecal / skin penetration.
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What are the signs and symptoms of ancylostomiasis?
Cough of long duration, hemoptysis, chest/back pain, and abdominal pain.
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What is the drug of choice for ancylostomiasis?
Mebendazole, Albendazole, and Benzimidazole.
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What is the causative agent of paragonimiasis?
Paragonimus westermani.
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What are the prevention strategies for parasitic infections?
Use sanitary toilets, participate in deworming activities, improve hygiene, and drink safe water.
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What are the effects of parasitic worm infection?
Decreased physical/mental development, decreased physical activity, decreased performance in school, and in severe cases, death.
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What is the incubation period for gonorrhea?
3 to 8 days.
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What are the clinical manifestations of gonorrhea in men?
Purulent penile discharge, dysuria, and urinary frequency.
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What are the complications of gonorrhea in women?
Heavy yellow-green purulent vaginal discharge, cervical erythema, and abnormal menstrual bleeding.
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What is the drug of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM or Cefixime (Suprax) orally.
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What is the prophylaxis for newborns against gonorrhea?
Administration of tetracycline 1.0% or erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment.
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What is the drug of choice for Gonorrhea?
Penicillin is the Drug of Choice.
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What is the causative agent of Gonorrhea?
Neisseria Gonorrheae, a gram-negative diplococcus.
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What is Crede’s prophylaxis?
Administration of tetracycline 1.0% or erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment to newborns.
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What is the mode of transmission for Gonorrhea?
Primarily through sexual contact; indirect transmission via instruments or linens is rare.
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What is the causative agent of Syphilis?
Treponema pallidum, a spirochete.
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What are the modes of transmission for Syphilis?
Sexual contact and sharing of needles among IV drug users.
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What is the incubation period for chlamydial infection?
1 to 3 weeks.
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What is the clinical manifestation of primary Syphilis?
Chancre (painless indurated lesion) and regional lymphadenopathy.
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What are the symptoms of secondary Syphilis?
Flu-like symptoms, alopecia, and a symmetric rash.
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What is a common complication of Syphilis in adults?
Cardiovascular disease and tabes dorsalis.
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What is the causative agent of Chlamydia?
Chlamydia trachomatis, a gram-negative bacterium.
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What are the risk factors for Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?
Excessive vaginal douching, poor vaginal hygiene, multiple sexual partners, and pregnancy.
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What is a pathognomonic clinical manifestation of Bacterial Vaginosis?
Foul-smelling fishy vaginal odor.
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What is the causative agent of Trichomoniasis?
Trichomonas vaginalis, a microscopic motile protozoan.
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What is the recommended medication for Trichomoniasis?
Metronidazole (Flagyl) administered in a single 2-g dose.
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What is the causative agent of Pediculosis Pubis?
Pthirus pubis.
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What is a common clinical manifestation of Pediculosis Pubis?
Intense itching due to hypersensitivity to louse saliva.
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What is the incubation period for pubic lice?
Nits take about 6–10 days to hatch; nymphs take 2–3 weeks to mature.
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What is the causative agent of Genital Warts?
Human papilloma virus (HPV).
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What is a pathognomonic clinical manifestation of Genital Warts?
Single or multiple soft, grayish pink, cauliflower-like lesions.
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What is the vaccine for HPV?
Gardasil-9, a nonavalent vaccine against HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58.
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What are the topical treatments for genital herpes?
Podofilox solution, gel, or imiquimod 5% cream.
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What are the diagnostic methods for genital herpes?
Direct visualization of lesions, viral culture, and HSV-1 & HSV-2 serologic testing.
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What are the provider-administered therapies for genital herpes?
Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen or cryoprobe, and surgical removal by tangential scissors excision, shave excision, curettage, or electrosurgery.
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What are some palliative treatments for genital herpes?
Using good genital hygiene, wearing loose-fitting cotton undergarments, using a hair dryer set on a cool setting, and frequent sitz baths.
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What is the causative agent of genital herpes?
Herpes simplex virus (HSV).
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What percentage of people infected with genital herpes have not been diagnosed?
Most people infected with genital herpes have not been diagnosed.
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What antiviral agents are available for the treatment of HSV?
Acyclovir, valacyclovir (Valtrex), and famciclovir (Famvir).
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What is the mechanism of action of antiviral drugs for HSV?
These drugs inhibit herpetic viral replication and are prescribed for primary and recurrent infections.
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What do you call this retreatment of TB where pt. is previously treated but still positive on the 5th month & dont show improvement?
Treatment After Failure
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