CD & IPAC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps involved in outbreak management?

A

1-Assess (is it really an outbreak, does it meet the definition of suspect or confirmed?),

  • develop case definition
  • ask for a line listing

2-Implement IPAC measures (additional precautions and increased surveillance)

3-Declare an outbreak (suspect or confirmed)
-Notify MOH

4-Notify appropriate stakeholders (OMT team/DOC in LTCH, neighboring PHUs, etc)

5-Call OMT meeting

6-Communicate lab results (with ICP of LTCH, etc)

7-Perform ongoing surveillance

8-declare the outbreak over

9-complete outbreak investigation file

https://www.health.gov.on.ca/en/pro/programs/publichealth/oph_standards/docs/reference/resp_infectn_ctrl_guide_ltc_2018_en.pdf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the links in the chain of transmission?

A

1-host
2- Infectious agent
3-reservoir
4-portal of exit
5-route of transmission
6-portal of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can the chain of transmission be broken? Give some examples

A
  • the infectious agent is eliminated or inactivated or cannot exit the reservoir
  • portals of exit are contained via safe practices (wearing mask, or covering wounds)
  • modes of transmission are removed between objects or people because of barriers and/or safe practices (administrative controls-training, etc and environmental controls-hand hygiene, safe sharps handling, reprocessing, etc)
  • portals of entry are protected (skin is disinfected before procedures, PPE worn by staff)
  • hosts are not susceptible (immunizations up to date, symptoms are addressed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Listeriosis, and what is the PH significance?

A

Bacterial infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes

affects immunocompromised, infants, elderly people, and pregnant women

Transmitted via contaminated food:
lunchmeats, cold cuts, unpasteurized fresh cheeses (brie, blue, queso fresco)

long incubation period
can replicate in cold temperatures

congenital/vertical transmission possible- can be fatal for baby, even while mother is symptom-free

antibiotics can stop infection- people should keep an eye out for symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Lyme disease?

A
Early signs/symptoms (3-30 days) are:
bullseye rash*
joint pain*
swollen lymph nodes
fever
chills
headache
later symptoms (days to months later):
facial palsy (the Jean Chretien)
arthritis and swelling of joints
swelling of brain and spinal cord
severe headaches and neck stiffness
dizziness
shortness of breath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some control measures for respiratory outbreaks in LTCH?

A
  • additional precautions (droplet/contact)
  • cohorting (patients and staff)
  • proper hand hygiene
  • isolation of symptomatic residents
  • increased attention to hand hygiene (can perform auditing)
  • increased environmental cleaning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can climate change affect the spread of vector-borne disease in Canada?

A
  • Increased habitat range of ticks, due to warming: increasing the length of season that they can survive.
  • Increased range and abundance of mosquitos due to warming and changing weather patterns/more extreme weather events: making endemic MBD’s more common (WNV, EEE), and making it possible for invasive species like aedes aegypti, and aedes albopictus to survive (bringing new diseases like yellow fever, zika, dengue, chickungunya)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the exclusion criteria for S. Typhi (Typhoid Fever)?

A

Exclude all cases of S. Typhi from food handling, healthcare* and daycare activities until provision of:

3 consecutive negative stool samples collected at least 48 hours apart; AND

  • at least 48h after completion of antibiotic treatment (for ciprofloxacin); OR
  • at least 2 weeks after completion of antibiotic treatment (for ceftriaxone and azithromycin).5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Campylobacter jejuni, its symptoms, and its reservoir?

A

Symptoms:
- Diarrhea (with or without bloody stool)
- Abdominal pain
- Malaise
- Fever
- Nausea
- Vomiting

Reservoir:
- Poultry and cattle
- Puppies and kittens or other pets
- Swine, sheep, rodents, and birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between an inspection and an investigation?

A
  • Inspection –> visit to determine compliance and to avoid/remedy risks to the public and ensure compliance with acts/regulations (preventive)
  • Investigation –> collection of evidence with view for prosecution and to support an offence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Difference between cleaning, sanitizing, disinfecting, and sterilizing

A

Cleaning: physical removal of substances but does not kill microorganisms
Sanitizing process of reducing the number of microorganisms on a surface to a safe level
Disinfecting: process of using chemicals to kill or eliminate a broad range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, on a surface (except large numbers of bacterial spores)
Sterilizing: process of using heat, chemicals, or radiation to eliminate or kill all forms of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and bacterial spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are low-level disinfectants used and what do they kill. Provide an example of a low level disinfectant.

A

Used on non-critical items, and environmental surfaces

Low - kills Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, Salmonella

Label may state: “general disinfectant”, “limited disinfectant”, or “hospital disinfectant”

E.g., 100 ppm of chlorine (1:500 bleach solution), quaternary ammonium (barbicide), 3% hydrogen peroxide, 0.5% hydrogen peroxide (enhanced action formulation), or phenols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When are intermediate-level disinfectants used and what do they kill. Provide an example of an intermediate level disinfectant.

A

Intermediate - tuberculocidal and/or kills most bacteria, fungi, and viruses

E.g., 1000 ppm of chlorine (1:50 bleach solution), 70-90% ethyl or isopropyl alcohol, or 0.5% hydrogen peroxide (enhanced action formulation) with efficacy claims against TB or mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can infections spread in a PSS?

A
  • Spread via the transfer of microorganisms from people, surfaces, or equipment
  • Not cleaning, disinfecting, or sterilizing properly
  • Reusing single-use tools instead of throwing them away
  • Being exposed to infected skin or body fluids
  • Using contaminated tools
  • Performing procedures that break the skin and not protecting yourself or the client
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should gloves be worn in a PSS and when should they be changed?

A
  • When the service involves breaking the skin’s surface. E.g., tattooing, microblading, ear or body piercing, waxing, etc.
  • The PSS worker has open sores, cracks, or cuts on their hands
  • Types of gloves include latex and nitrile
  • Heavy duty gloves should be worn when handling sharps and chemicals
  • Need to be changed between clients, breaks, and if they become soiled or damaged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should an operator do if their sterilizer fails the spore test?

A
  • Stop use of any tools or equipment that was sterilized since the last negative spore test
  • Find all equipment and instruments that were used since the last negative spore test
  • Find out the potential risks to clients
  • Repeat the biological monitoring test
    If the test is negative, re-sterilize any equipment and instruments that were sterilized since the last negative spore test
    If the repeat test is positive, stop using the sterilizer and find out if repair and/or maintenance is needed
  • Following nay repairs and/or maintenance, the sterilize must pass the mechanical, chemical, and biological monitors for at least three full loaded consecutive cycles before use
17
Q

Incubation period and infectious period of COVID-19?

A

Incubation - 2-14 days
*Depends on variant- newer strains have shorter incubation periods

Infectious period- up to 48 hours before symptoms, and up to 10 days after symptom onset

18
Q

Explain routine IPAC practices, and additional precautions, and the principles behind each

A

-Routine practices are those used with all clients, during all kinds of care, in all healthcare settings, to prevent the spread of microorganisms

-This is based on the assumption that all patients are potentially infectious, even when asymptomatic

-Additional precautions are taken (in addition to routine practices) when patients are known or suspected to be colonized/infected with a particular agent

-These are based on the route of transmission of that agent

19
Q

List each level of the hierarchy of controls

A

The hierarchy of controls is s way of determining which actions will best control exposures:

1-Elimination

2-Substitution

3-Engineering controls

4-Administrative controls

5-PPE

20
Q

What are the exclusion criteria for a child/staff when a child care center is in an enteric outbreak?

A

-do not return to center until 48 hours after symptoms stop

21
Q

What is the case definition for an enteric illness in a child care center?

When can an enteric outbreak be suspected? (definition)

A

-Case defined as 2 or more episodes of diarrhea and/or vomiting within 24 hour period

-Outbreak definition: 2 or more cases with common epidemiological link, and onset within 48 hour period

22
Q

What is the difference between the case definition for an ARI, Influenza, and COVID-19?

A

-ARI cases are solely based on symptoms

-Influenza requires lab confirmation

-COVID:
-Confirmed case is PCR+, or RAT+ accepted if facility can not do PCR
-Probable case =symptoms and high-risk exposure

23
Q

Current isolation and case management guidance for COVID-19 cases?

A

-Isolate until symptoms improving for 24 hours (48 hours if GI symptoms)

-Wear a tight-fitting mask while in public for 10 days after symptom onset or specimen collection

-Avoid non-essential activities that require removal of mask (dining out)

-Avoid non-essential visits to highest risk settings and individuals (if unavoidable, notify setting of recent diagnosis)

24
Q

What diseases do Rodents carry?

A
  • Hantavirus (white-footed or deer mice)
  • Lymphatic choriomeningitis (mice)
  • Leptospirosis (rats)
  • Rat Bite fever (rats)
25
Q

What Disease can birds spread

A
  • Salmonella (Bacteria)
  • West Nile Virus
  • E.coli (Bacteria)
  • Avian Influenza (virus)
  • Psittacosis (Bacteria)
26
Q

Factors that contribute to increase risk of disease transmission in a day care settings

A
  • Diaper changing (Fecal-oral spread of pathogens)
  • Toys in mouths
  • Children have poor hand hygiene practices
  • Underdeveloped immune system
27
Q

What are the requirements for sterilization

A
  • Must be an approved Health Canada sterilizer
  • The best type of sterilizer for heat-resistant tools and equipment is a steam sterilizer
  • Must follow the instructions for
    o Temperature and pressure
    o Cycle length and size of the load
    o Packaging
  • Must have a printout or display for time, temperature, and pressure for each cycle
28
Q

Three elements for carrier state

A
  1. The presence of the disease agent in the body
  2. The absence of recognizable symptoms and signs of disease
  3. The shedding of disease agent in the discharge or excretions
    Recall: Typhoid Mary was carrier her whole life
29
Q

Three types of Plague

A

Bubonic
pneumonic
septicemic

30
Q

Name an eradicated disease. How do we Eradicate a disease?

A

The only disease we’ve been able to eradicate is smallpox

Must have:
1. an effective intervention is available to interrupt transmission of the agent
2. humans are essential for the life-cycle of the agent, which has no other vertebrate reservoir and does not amplify in the environment.
3. practical diagnostic tools with sufficient sensitivity and specificity are available to detect levels of infection that can lead to transmission (lab tests, symptoms)

31
Q

Common diseases prevented by vaccination

A

Varicella
Small pox
Pertussis
Rubella
Measles
Meningitis
Mumps
Influenza
Rotavirus
Diphtheria
Poliomyelitis

32
Q

List some diseases that DO NOT cause fever

A

Amebiasis
Bacillus cereus (rare occasion)
Clostridum botulinum
Clostridum perfringes
Cholera
Cyclospora
Giardia

33
Q

Exclusion criteria for Hepatitis A

A

Exclude from high risk settings/occupations (food handler, healthcare/childcare)

-14 days after onset of symptoms, or 7 days after onset of jaundice

34
Q

What are the recommendations for PEP in regards to a confirmed Hepatitis A case?

A

-Should be offered to household and close contacts of index case

-PEP is not routinely recommended for school or workplace contacts, or health care workers caring for HAV cases, unless an outbreak is suspected

-PEP can be considered for contacts of cases in childcare, or food handler (based on risk assessment)

35
Q

Why is E. Coli O157:H7 so dangerous?

A
  • Low infectious dose
  • Survives at low temps
  • Survives in acidic environments
  • produces verotoxin-damaging the intestinal lining (causing bloody diarrhea)