CD Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A model that shows the chain of command is called the:

A) corporate plan
B) practice ownership
C) staff assignments
D) organizational chart

A

D) organizational chart

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2
Q

CMS (formerly HCFA) developed additional codes for use when specific services, materials, drugs, & procedures are not listed in the CPT codebook. These are known as:

A) HCPCS
B) subcodes
C) E codes
D) HIPAA

A

A) HCPCS

Healthcare Common Procedural Coding System

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3
Q

The instrument used to explore body cavities for measurement of depth and presence of masses or foreign bodies is a/an:

A) hemostat
B) Adison forceps
C) tenaculum
D) sound

A

D) sound

Sounds are long slender probing instruments

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4
Q

After barium enema, it is important to instruct the patient to:

A) use a cleansing enema after arriving home
B) notify the office if the next bowel movement contains a white substance
C) notify the office if no bowel movement within 24 hours
D) drink only clear liquids the remainder of the day

A

C) notify the office if no bowel movement within 24 hours

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5
Q

If a manager lets everyone make decisions and function independently with no oversight, this management style is referred to as:

A) diplomatic
B) laissez-faire
C) autocratic
D) democratic

A

B) laissez-faire

This management style allows individuals to make their own decisions and function independently without any structure or guidance

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6
Q

The nephrons of the kidney contain clusters called:

A) glomeruli
B) renal cortex
C) loop of Henule
D) renal pelvis

A

A) glomeruli

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7
Q

The prevailing fee is determined by the

A) size of the medical field

B) geographic area

C) number of employees in the practice

D) age of patients

A

B) Geographic area

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8
Q

Which of the following is the title for the organization formerly called the Health Care Finance Administration?

A) National Institutes for Health
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services
D) Department of Health and Human Services

A

C) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

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9
Q

Medical facilities usually keep cash on hand for incidental purchases. This money is referred to as:

A) purchase order
B) spending money
C) ancillary money
D) petty cash

A

D) petty cash

Petty cash is a small sum of money that is kept on hand for minor or unexpected expenses.

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10
Q

A tenaculum is used to:

A) hold a needle for suturing
B) remove foreign bodies
C) retract tissue during surgery
D) grasp tissue during surgery

A

D) grasp tissue during surgery

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11
Q

The patient has the right to all the following except to:

A) euthanasia
B) participate or not participate in research
C) refuse treatment
D) receive continuity of care

A

A) euthanasia

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12
Q

Another term for a roentgenogram is a(n):

A) MRI
B) x-ray
C) ultrasound
D) angiogram

A

B) x-ray

X-rays were discovered by German physicist Wilhelm Roentgen

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13
Q

The assignment of benefits means that the:

A) patient will not be covered for certain services provided
B) provider will accept the remittance as full payment
C) provider will receive the full fee for service
D) patient will pay a lower copayment

A

B) provider will accept the remittance as full payment

Patient has given written authorization for reimbursement to the physician for billed charges

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14
Q

When managing multiple incoming calls, all of the following are appropriate except:

A) provide options if the hold will be longer
B) obtain permission of the first caller to be placed on hold
C) automatically place the second caller on hold
D) attempt to respond to callers within 30 seconds

A

C) automatically placed the second caller on hold

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15
Q

The word root blephar/o means:

A) Spinal cord
B) Retina
C) Eyelid
D) Eardrum

A

C) eyelid

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16
Q

The medical term for the upper job bone is the:

A) maxilla
B) ethmoid
C) mandible
D) hyoid

A

A) maxilla

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17
Q

When a patient has a condition that his or her health insurance policy will not provide benefits for, it is called a(n):

A) review
B) waiting period
C) exclusion
D) deduction

A

C) exclusion

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18
Q

The chart used to measure visual acuity is the:

A) Snellen
B) Sims’
C) Ishihara
D) Korotkoff

A

A) Snellen

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19
Q

When releasing medical records, the rule to remember is:

A) there is no need to obtain the patients signature on an Authorization for Release of Medical Record form as long the patient has given verbal authorization
B) limit the amount of medical information you release over the telephone when you are not talking directly to the patient
C) release the original medical record when the patient asks for it
D) release a copy of the medical record not the original

A

D) release a copy of the medical record not the original

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20
Q

The instrument that uses fiberoptic technology that allows lighting and video transmission is a/an:

A) laser
B) cryogenetic machine
C) endoscope
D) dilator

A

C) endoscope

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21
Q

The most common position for patient’s experiencing shortness of breath is:

A) Fowler’s
B) dorsal
C) Sims’
D) supine

A

A) Fowler’s

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22
Q

The normal adult pulse pressure is:

A) 20
B) 80
C) 40
D) 60

A

C) 40

The normal adult pulse pressure is 20 which is the difference of the systolic and diastolic readings

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23
Q

Lawful mandatory reporting situations or subpoenas:

A) do not require a signed consent form
B) require that the patient provide a signed release form
C) provide for the release of patient information for the most recent visit only
D) mandate that the physician’s signature is on the file

A

A) do not require a signed consent form

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24
Q

The male endocrine gland is the:

A) prostate
B) scrotum
C) testes
D) penis

A

C) testes

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25
Which of the following is not considered when calculating the RVU? A) Type of service rendered by the physician B) Cost of malpractice insurance C) Number of patients the physician sees D) Cost of rent for the medical facility
C) Number of patients the physician sees RVU is a component that is multiplied by a monetary conversion factor to establish physician payments
26
The process to determine the period between when the service is rendered in the bill is paid is referred to as a(n): A) age analysis B) remittance advice C) reconciliation D) receivable account
A) age analysis
27
The buffy coat is the: A) bottom layer of the blood specimen after centrifugation B) red opaque portion of the blood and composes 44% of whole blood C) light grayish liquid portion of blood containing white blood cells and composes 1% of whole blood D) clear yellow liquid portion of the blood and composes 55% of whole blood
C) light grayish liquid portion of blood containing white blood cells and composes 1% of whole blood
28
Which code would you use on an insurance claim for a patient who received an external injury in order to explain the mechanism of the injury? A) V code B) CPT code C) E code D) UCR code
C) E code E codes are used to identify the external causes of injuries and poisonings
29
The estimated energy requirement is the: A) unit of energy that produces heat B) actual daily required intake of minerals C) approximate number of daily calories required by a person D) estimated amount of energy to convert HDL to LDL
C) approximate number of daily calories required by a person
30
The medical term meaning surgical repair of the renal pelvis is: A) Renoplasty B) Nephroplasty C) ureteroplasty D) Pyeloplasty
D) Pyeloplasty
31
The atria in the ventricles of the heart are separated by the: A) Xiphoid B) mediastinum C) sternum D) septum
D) septum
32
The term stomatitis means: A) Plus formation of the gums B) discharge from the mouth C) inflammation of the gums D) inflammation of the mouth
D) inflammation of the mouth
33
At the time of service for medical care, the amount of money paid to the provider by the insured is the: A) copayment B) exclusion C) capitation D) fee-for-service
A) copayment
34
When using heating pads it is necessary to: A) ensure the pad is covered with fabric before placing on the skin B) apply a special gel substance to improve the heat conductivity C) ask the patient if they have a pacemaker D) use mineral oil on the skin before applying heat pad
A) ensure the pad is covered with fabric before placing on the skin
35
The term dermatosis means: A) biopsy of the skin B) A disease of the skin C) surgical reconstruction of the skin D) incision into the skin
B) disease of the skin
36
An oral thermometer registers 98.6°F which equates to: A) 97.6°F rectally B) 99.6°F axillary C) 97.6°F otic D) 99.6°F rectally
D) 99.6°F rectally
37
The male hormones are primarily produced in the: A) prostate B) glans penis C) vas deferens D) testes
D) testes
38
The term bradyphagia means: A) slow healing of a wound B) slow formation C) painful swallowing D) eating very slowly
D) eating very slowly
39
If the patient does not speak English, you should try to communicate by: A) using negative body language B) only communicating with the patient is accompanied by someone who speaks fluent English C) raising your voice to increase understanding D) using gestures to demonstrate information
D) using gestures to demonstrate information
40
The fraudulent practice of deliberately using an incorrect code to bill at a higher rate is called: A) phantom billing B) ping ponging C) yo-yoing D) upcoding
D) upcoding
41
A value subtracted from or owed by an account is called: A) asset B) adjustment C) credit D) debit
D) debit
42
The term tympanogram means: A) field of medicine that studies the ear drum B) measurement instrument used to examine the ear drum C) record of the function of the ear drum D) relating to the ear drum
C) record of the function of the ear drum
43
Immediately following knee surgery, a patient will probably: A) use hot packs B) use a passive motion device C) use electrical stimulation D) perform fill range of motion exercises
B) use a passive motion device
44
The bones of the skull, spine and chest make up the: A) axial skeleton B) xiphoid process C) styloid process D) appendicular skeleton
A) axial skeleton
45
If a manager includes others in the decision making process, this management style is referred to as: A) bureaucratic B) diplomatic C) democratic D) autocratic
C) democratic
46
Failure to act when duty indicates, resulting in or causing harm is referred to as: A) malfeasance B) nonfeasance C) standard of care D) misfeasance
B) nonfeasance Malfeasance is performing an improper act that causes harm Misfeasance us an improper performance of an act that causes harm
47
Which of the following is NOT an example of a use of the medical record? A) it provides legal protection for the health care provider B) it provides resource for education C) it provides a back up to an electronic file D) it facilitates research
C) it provides back up to an electronic file
48
A gross measurement for hearing and conduction: A) tuning fork B) audiometer C) otoscope D) tympanometer
A) tuning fork
49
The disease causing thickened rigid skin is: A) pediculosis B) psoriasis C) scleroderma D) vitiligo
C) scleroderma
50
The medical term meaning enlargement of the liver: A) Hemiplegia B) Spenomegaly C) Encephalorrhexis D) Hepatomegaly
D) Hepatomegaly Hepat/o = liver
51
The over stretching of a ligament: A) fulcrum B) sprain C) strain D) fracture
B) sprain
52
When pressure is needed to be applied over an injured area, the bandage material used is: A) triangular bandage B) elastic bandage C) 4 x 4 gauze D) roller gauze
B) elastic bandage Rolled and tubular gauze is used to prevent items and debris from getting into a wound or a break in the skin. Elastic bandages are used to apply pressure to bleeding and help decrease swelling
53
Changes made to the amount of money owed for reasons other than additional services or payments is a(n): A) reconciliation B) adjustment C) posting D) balance
B) adjustment
54
The term meaning arthrocentesis means: A) surgical reconstruction of a joint B) discharge from a joint C) creation of a new opening into a joint D) puncture into a joint to aspirate fluid
D) puncture into a joint to aspirate fluid
55
Bacteria that is able to form a resistant capsule around them is called: A) spore forming B) aerobic C) anaerobic D) non-pathogenic
A) spore-forming
56
Filing medical claims through a secure electronic database exchange is an example of: A) CMS 1500 B) HIPAA compliance C) using a browser D) using a local network
B) HIPAA compliance
57
The suffix -iasis means: A) treatment of B) destruction of C) abnormal condition D) abnormal decrease
C) abnormal condition
58
If an oral temperature reading is 99.4°F, then which of the following is true? A) taken in the ear it would be 100.4°F B) an axiliary reading would be 98.4°F C) rectally it would be 101.4°F D) rectally it would be 99.4°F
B) an axillary reading would be 98.4°F
59
The anterior transparent cover of the sclera is the: A) lens B) iris C) conjunctiva D) retina
C) conjunctiva
60
Which of the following is not an indexing rule when filing alphabetically? A) disregard apostrophes B) file abbreviated names as if they were spelled out C) treat hyphenated names as two units D) file records according to last name, first name, and middle initial
C) treat hyphenated names as two units
61
Which organ is involved in the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen? A) spleen B) liver C) gall bladder D) pancreas
B) liver
62
The statement issued to the provider and to the patient that details a payment made by the insurance plan is the: A) CPT B) RVU C) COB D) EOB
D) EOB after payment has been made by the insurance company to the physician, or if a claim is being denied, both the physician and the patient receive an explanation of benefits (EOB) form
63
The proper angle of the needle to the skin when administering an intradermal injection is: A) 60° B) 45° C) 30° D) 15°
D) 15°
64
No radiation is emitted when performing a(n): A) Ultrasound B) PET scan C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging D) Computerized tomography
A) Ultrasound
65
The type of artifact that night be produced by a cell phone is: A) AC interference B) wandering baseline C) somatic tremors D) DC interference
A) AC interference AC interference occurs when the electrocardiograph picks up electrical interference given off by another piece of electrical equipment
66
The amount of money paid by an individual for a health benefits policy is the: A) deductible B) coinsurance C) premium D) copayment
C) premium
67
The medical record material is the property of: A) patient B) insurance company C) patients family D) health care provider
D) health care provider
68
An exchange of something of value between parties when entering into a contract is referred to as: A) an offer B) capacity C) intent D) consideration
D) consideration
69
The practice of radiation protection includes wearing a: A) lead apron B) face mask C) transducer D) collimator
A) lead apron
70
Types of TRICARE include: A) TRICARE Extra and Basic B) TRICARE Prime and Subprime C) TRICARE Standard, Prime, and Extra D) TRICARE Standard and Basic
C) TRICARE Standard, Prime, and Extra
71
When multiple tubes of blood are drawn, which is drawn first? A) tubes for blood culture B) tubes containing heparin C) tubes containing sodium citrate D) tubes containing an anticoagulant
A) tubes for blood culture Following the CLSI guidelines the order of tubes drawn starts with blood culture tubes, then sodium citrate (light blue), serum tubes (red top and SST), heparin tubes (green), EDTA tubes (lavender, pink, white, or royal blue), Glycolytic inhibitor (gray), and then FDP (dark blue)
72
Pointing toes downward is an example of: A) Palmer extension B) plantar extension C) Palmer flexion D) plantar flexion
D) plantar flexion
73
When an employee attend the conference the medical practice may incur additional expenses for all the following except: A) transport B) registration C) cost of the employees benefits D) replacement staff
C) cost of the employees benefits
74
The medical term for the ear ossicle that is shaped like a stirrup is the: A) pinna B) incus C) stapes D) malleus
C) stapes
75
Vitamin B 12 is the treatment for: A) Bell's palsy B) diabetes C) pernicious anemia D) hepatitis B
C) pernicious anemia
76
All of the following are important when scheduling special procedures except: A) obtaining preauthorization from the patient's insurance company B) obtaining the patient's consent for the specific procedure C) providing the patient with preparatory instructions D) assuring availability of staff and equipment
B) obtaining the patient's consent for the specific procedure
77
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 deals with: A) equal employment B) equal pay C) racial discrimination D) sexual harassment
D) sexual harassment
78
When a letter indicates there are other materials in the envelope with the letter, it is noted: A) below the inside address B) four lines below the complimentary closing C) two lines below the reference initials D) within the body of the letter only
C) two lines below the reference initials
79
The test performed to determine the density of urine compared with distilled water: A) p B) microscopic analysis C) specific gravity D) sedimentation rate
C) specific gravity
80
Radiolucent is an x-ray term that means that x-ray beams: A) will pass through the material and produce a dark image on the x-ray film B) cannot penetrate the material and it will show as a light or white object on an x-ray film C) will penetrate the material and will show as a white image on the x-ray film D) of higher doses are required to produce and image on the x-ray film
A) will pass through the material and produce a dark image on the x-ray film
81
Traction is used to: A) cause blood vessels to constrict B) provide massage and heat therapy C) passively exercise muscles D) realign fractured bones
D) realign fractured bones
82
Which of the following is true regarding the date on a business letter? A) the date includes the month and year only B) it is proper to abbreviate the date to save space C) the date is not necessary on a business letter D) the date is placed two lines below the letterhead
D) the date is placed two lines below the letterhead
83
When ordering an angiogram it is important to know if the patient is on a(n): A) antibiotic B) antiemetic C) antitussive D) anticoagulant
D) anticoagulant
84
Anterior refers to: A) front B) distal C) dorsal D) back
A) front
85
The study of cells, tissues, and organs in association with their functions is: A) hematology B) histology C) microbiology D) parasitology
B) histology
86
A value added to an account, usually in the form of a payment is referred to as a(n): A) debit B) adjustment C) currency D) credit
D) credit
87
Which of the following statements represents the correct sequence for filing using reverse chronological order? A) laboratory test results from June 1999 would be in front of those from December 2004 B) x-ray exam reports from November 15, 2008, would be in front of those from December 30 of the same year C) office visit entries from June 2010 would be in front of visit from December 2009 D) a surgical report from an operation in 1997 would be in front of a report of a procedure performed in 2010
C) office visit entries from June 2010 would be in front of visits from December 2009
88
The term chiralgia means: A) surgical reconstruction of the hand B) pain in the hand C) tumor of the hand D) incision into the hand
B) pain in the hand
89
CHAMPUS is a health care benefit plan that is now called: A) Medicare Advantage B) CHAMPVA C) TRICARE D) Medigap
C) TRICARE
90
The affective domain of learning involves: A) values B) comprehension C) sensory skills D) knowledge
A) values
91
Oxygenated blood is usually carried by: A) veins B) atria C) venules D) arteries
D) arteries
92
The prefix con- means: A) condition B) outside C) with D) bad
C) with
93
A person completing and carrying an organ donation card is a form of: A) Good Samaritan Act B) Living will C) Medical Power of Attorney D) Advance directive
D) Advance directive
94
The wing shaped portion of the hip bones is called the: A) ilium B) ischemia C) pelvis D) ischium
A) ilium
95
An example of a properly keyed signature is: A) James Jones, M.D. B) Dr. Brown, M.D. C) Dr. Martin Garcia, M.D. D) Doctor Tang, M.D.
A) James Jones, M.D. A properly keyed signature consists of the first name, last name followed by a comma and then credentials of the individual
96
Patient education is incorporated in: A) EEOC guidelines B) OSH requirements C) The joint commission standards D) title VII of the civil rights act
C) the joint commission standards
97
The information necessary to schedule inpatient surgery with the hospital admitting department includes: A) patient diagnosis B) physician fee schedule C) known allergies D) Who will accompany the patient
A) patient diagnosis
98
Certified mail provides: A) verification that it was received by the addressee B) Insurance C) A return address D) verification that it was delivered
D) verification that it was delivered
99
Closed files include those for patients that have: A) decided to see a different physician in the office B) moved away C) not been seen in the office for six months D) been purged and destroyed
B) moved away
100
The abbreviation "S/R" refers to: A) send for referral B) surgical referral C) suture removal D) schedule a recall
C) suture removal
101
The W-4 form states the: A) Number of exemptions an employee wishes to claim for tax purposes B) amount of money withheld from the employee's paycheck C) employee's income and deductions for the total year D) employee's net income taxes
A) Number of exemptions an employee wishes to claim for tax purposes
102
The term transthorax means: A) through the chest B) inside the chest C) below the chest D) across the chest
D) across the chest
103
A displaced fracture of the wrist is a: A) compound fracture B) comminuted fracture C) greenstick fracture D) colles fracture
D) colles fracture
104
Which of the following is not part of the urine analytes: A) glucose B) pH C) protein D) cholesterol
D) cholesterol
105
The abbreviation NEC in medical insurance coding is used: A) if information is unavailable for specific category coding B) to abbreviate normal causes for the disease C) when the patient is newly established D) to describe external injuries
A) if information is unavailable for specific category coding Not Elsewhere Classified
106
An open fracture with an external wound is a: A) comminuted fracture B) colles fracture C) greenstick fracture D) compound fracture
D) compound fracture
107
The term onychocryptosis means: A) condition of fungus of the nails B) condition of mold of the nails C) hidden or ingrown nail D) blue condition of the nailbed
C) hidden or ingrown nail ``` Onych/o = nail (of fingers or toes) Crypt/o = hidden -osis = condition of usually abnormal ```
108
A blood test result of 70-110 mg/dL would be an appropriate range for: A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) female hemoglobin C) blood glucose test D) red blood cell count
C) blood glucose test
109
The most common letter format used in business is the: A) Full block B) semi block C) freestyle D) modified block
A) Full block
110
The female eggs are called: A) mammary glands B) ovaries C) ampulla D) ova
D) ova
111
The word root myel/o means: A) muscle fiber B) brainstem C) spinal cord D) connective tissue
C) spinal cord
112
The term laparotomy means: A) inspection of the abdominal wall B) creating a new opening in the abdominal wall C) incision of the abdominal wall D) excision of part of the abdominal wall
C) incision of the abdominal wall
113
Another name for funduscope is the: A) ophthalmoscope B) stethoscope C) sigmoidoscope D) otoscope
A) ophthalmoscope
114
The endocrine gland located in the mediastinal cavity is the: A) pituitary B) thymus C) thyroid D) hypothalamus
B) thymus
115
The term gastrostomy: A) suspension fixation of the stomach B) bypassing the stomach C) creation of a new opening into the stomach D) puncture of the stomach to remove the contents
C) creation of a new opening into the stomach -stomy = creating of a new opening
116
Software that is necessary for transcription performs: A) medication calculations B) medical terminology spellcheck C) Internet searches D) spreadsheet applications
B) medical terminology spellcheck
117
Onychomycosis means: A) Hidden or ingrown nail B) brittle condition of the nails C) blueness of the nailbed D) condition of fungus of the nails
D) condition of fungus of the nails Myc/o = fungus
118
A person who has not received care from the physician or another physician of the same specialty in the same group practice within three years is a(n): A) inactive patient B) New patient C) established patient D) Old patient
B) New patient
119
The term litholysis means: A) destruction of nerve tissue B) stopping the formation of calculi or stones C) removal of fatty tissue D) destruction of a stone or calculi
D) destruction of the stone or calculi
120
Absorption is the process of: A) taking of nutrients, eating and drinking B) synthesizing of nutrients from the bloodstream to produce energy C) changing of nutrients in the body to allow ingestion D) transferring digested nutrients from the gastrointestinal system into the blood circulation
D) transferring digested nutrients from the gastrointestinal system into the blood circulation
121
Respondeat superior is a legal term meaning: A) this position is responsible for the actions of the staff B) respond to your superiors C) subpoena to come to court D) "something for something"
A) the physician is responsible for the actions of the staff
122
Federal payroll taxes are regulated by the: A) IRS B) EEOC C) FMLA D) W-4
A) IRS
123
The air exchange in the lungs occurs in the: A) capillaries B) bronchioles C) alveoli D) bronchi
C) alveoli
124
The defense mechanism that redirects unacceptable behaviors or thoughts to positive ones: A) sublimation B) introjection C) repression D) displacement
A) sublimation
125
Where are the receptors doe hearing and equilibrium found? A) middle ear B) external ear C) inner ear D) tympanic membrane
C) inner ear
126
The glands responsible for regulating sodium and potassium levels is: A) Pituitary B) Thymus C) Adrenals D) Pancreas
C) Adrenals
127
During communication, when a message is received and interpreted by an individual, it is known as: A) decoding B) encoding C) acceptance D) feedback
A) decoding
128
The term enterectomy means: A) excision of part of the intestine B) inflammation of the intestine C) surgical reconstruction of the intestine D) enlargement of the intestine
A) excision of part of the intestine
129
The endocrine gland that plays a ket role in the development of the immune system is the: A) thyroid B) hypothalamus C) pituitary D) thymus
D) thymus
130
Any skin lesion or eruption js referred to as a: A) dermatoma B) dermatomycosis C) dermatosis D) dermatoid
C) dermatosis
131
If a patient is facing the x-ray film, when positioned for a chest x-ray, the position is: A) anterioposterior B) posterior oblique C) lateral D) posteroranterior
D) posteroanterior
132
You are calling a patient about normal laboratory results the patient's wife answered, you would: A) check the patients privacy form to determine who is authorized to receive information B) attempt to reach the patient at his place of employment C) leave a message to contact the office for laboratory results
A) check the patients privacy form to determine who is authorized to receive information
133
The medical assistant should attempt to answer all incoming telephone calls: A) within 10 seconds B) within 30 seconds C) by the second ring D) by the third ring
D) by the third ring
134
The organ located in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity below the diaphragm is: A) stomach B) liver C) spleen D) pancreas
B) liver
135
The medical term for the shin bone is the: A) patella B) tibia C) femur D) fibula
B) tibia
136
Melatonin is produced in the: A) thymus gland B) pineal gland C) pituitary gland D) thyroid gland
B) pineal gland
137
Sugar levels are increased by: A) glucose B) glucagon C) metabolism D) insulin
B) glucogen
138
The adrenal glands are located: A) in the mediastinum B) in the brain C) on top of the kidneys D) behind the thyroid
C) on top of the kidneys
139
The first 7 vertebrae of the spinal column are called: A) coccyx B) sacrum C) vertebrae D) thoracic
A) coccyx
140
What is the condition when the eye looses the ability to accommodate as part of the aging process: A) hyperopia B) presbyopia C) myopia D) glaucoma
B) presbyopia
141
When placing telephone calls to patients confirming future appointments: A) time changes should be documented in the patient's medical record B) the best time is 1 week before the appt. C) HIPAA guidelines apply D) the patient should be reminded of the office address
C) HIPAA guidelines apply
142
To eliminate the possibility of broken appointments, it is best to use: A) double booking scheduling B) wave scheduling C) cluster scheduling D) open booking scheduling
D) open booking scheduling
143
If mail is sent certified, it is also considered classified as: ``` A) third class mail B) second class mail C) first class mail D) express mail ```
C) first class mail
144
Lead II of the EKG tracing record records the electrical activity through the heart from the: A) right arm to left arm B) right arm to left leg C) right leg to left leg D) left arm to left leg
B) right arm to left leg
145
Lead I of the ECG tracing is the heart view between the: A) right arm and left arm B) right arm and the left leg C) left arm and the left leg D) left arm and the right leg
A) right arm and the left arm
146
You would immediately report to the physician all of the the following EXCEPT: A) premature atrial contraction B) bigeminy C) ventricular fibrillation D) ventricular tachycardia
A) premature atrial contraction
147
An open wound caused by forceful tearing away of skin from bony structure by trauma, sometimes leaving a skin flap is a(n): A) avulsion B) contusion C) laceration D) abrasion
A) avulsion
148
An exposure control plan contains all of the following except: A) training guidelines B) record keeping and reporting C) availability of recommended immunization D) establish a means of accounting for all staff, patients and visitors
D) establish a means of accounting for all staff, patients and visitors
149
The first thing to do with a patient who has experienced a third degree burn is to: A) observe for shock B) don sterile gloves C) cover affected areas D) activate EMS
D) activate EMS
150
The form used in the medical office that us a preprinted patient statement listing the basic office charges is a: A) superbill B) journal C) day sheet D) ledger
A) superbill
151
Transferring information from a day sheet to the account receivable ledger or to the individual patients' statements is called: A) billing B) reconciling C) balancing D) posting
D) posting
152
In a healthy adult patient, a normal WBC count would be: A) 7,000 cells/mm3 B) 20,000 cells/mm3 C) 1,000 cells/mm3 D) 2,000 cells/mm3
A) 7,000 cells/mm3
153
CLIA waived testing includes the following tests except: A) rapid strep testing B) microscopic urinalysis C) urine glove testing D) mononucleosis antibody testing
B) microscopic urinalysis
154
Plasma is: A) the fibrinogen B) the clear liquid portion of the blood compromising 55% of whole blood C) the hemoglobin D) the liquid portion of the blood containing WBC's that makes up 75% of whole blood
B) the clear liquid portion of blood compromising 55% of whole blood
155
Hematology tests include: A) Rh antibody titer B) glucose and cholesterol C) blood urea nitrogen and chloride D) hemoglobin and hematocrit
D) hemoglobin and hematocrit
156
Which of the following is true regarding the composition of blood? A) serum is the liquid part of the blood with the clotting factors still present B) whole blood consists of 44% white blood cells and 55% plasma C) plasma is the liquid part of the blood after the clotting agents have been removed D) whole blood consists of 55% plasma and 44% red blood cells
D) whole blood consists of 55% plasma and 44% red blood cells
157
An association that provides all are to the insured person for a fixed fee is a(n): A) RVU B) HMO C) RVS D) PPO
B) HMO
158
The second party in an insurance plan is the: A) physician B) patient C) insured party D) insurance company
A) physician
159
The fraudulent practice of billing for services or supplies not provided is referred to as: A) yo-yoing B) upcoding C) unbundling D) phantom billing
D) phantom billing
160
Similar services provided to the same patient on the same day by more than one physician is referred to as: A) concurrent care B) medical decision making C) yo-yoing D) consulting
A) concurrent care
161
Improper performance of an act, resulting in or causing harm: A) misfeasance B) nonfeasance C) malfeasance D) standard of care
A) misfeasance
162
All of the following address discrimination in the workplace EXCEPT: A) EEOC B) FMLA C) OSHA D) ADA
C) OSHA
163
Electronic medical records include the following EXCEPT: A) microfiche B) conditioned files C) scanned files D) CD-ROM
B) conditioned files
164
A common example of an antitussive is: A) Lomitil B) Tylenol C) Codeine D) Benadryl
C) Codeine
165
A common example of an antiemetic is: A) Benadryl B) Tegretol C) Lomotil D) Compazine
D) Compazine